UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 9 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
12 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 12
1 It is constituted by the President under Article 279A, which was inserted by the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.
2 The Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance is a member of the Council.
3 Every decision of the Council needs a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.
4 One-third of the total number of members of the Council constitutes the quorum at its meetings.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 279A(1) directs the President to constitute the Council by order, and the Article came with the 101st Amendment, 2016.
Statement 2Correct
Article 279A(2)(b) makes the Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance a member.
Statement 3Correct
Article 279A(9) needs three-fourths of the weighted votes, the Centre’s vote counting for one-third and all States together for two-thirds.
Statement 4Incorrect
Under Article 279A(7) the quorum is one-half of the members, not one-third.
Analysis
The 57th meeting recommended process reforms, not rate changes, and those recommendations still need circulars, notifications and amendments to the CGST Act before they bind anyone.
Concept note
The GST Council is the main forum of fiscal federalism created by the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016. Article 279A makes the Union Finance Minister its chairperson, adds the Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance, and gives each State a member, the Minister in charge of Finance or Taxation or another Minister the State nominates.
Its voting rule forces bargaining. The Centre’s vote carries one-third of the weight and all the States together carry two-thirds, and a decision needs three-fourths of the weighted votes of those present and voting, so neither side can carry a proposal alone.
Half the members make a quorum. The Council recommends; it does not legislate.
At its 57th meeting it recommended omitting section 69 of the CGST Act (arrest), raising the prosecution threshold from ₹1 crore to ₹5 crore and easing refunds, and the release said these would be given effect through circulars, notifications and law amendments, which alone have the force of law. That is why a Council meeting is reported as a set of recommendations and why the date each change starts matters.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (federalism, constitutional bodies); GS3 (indirect taxation, ease of doing business). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** cooperative federalism, weighted voting, pooled fiscal sovereignty, harmonised national market. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing the Centre’s one-third vote weight with the quorum; the quorum is one-half of the members. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 279A(7) quorum one-half; 279A(9) three-fourths of weighted votes; Centre one-third, States two-thirds. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does weighted voting in the GST Council protect the States, or make the Centre a permanent veto player? |
Question 2 of 12
1 The power of arrest under GST is contained in section 69 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.
2 The recommended monetary threshold for prosecution is ₹5 crore, up from ₹1 crore.
3 A recommendation of the GST Council takes effect by itself, without any notification or amendment of the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Council recommended complete withdrawal of arrest powers under GST by omitting section 69 of the CGST Act, 2017.
Statement 2Correct
It recommended raising the prosecution threshold from ₹1 crore to ₹5 crore.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Council’s release says the changes will be given effect through circulars, notifications and law amendments, which alone have the force of law.
Analysis
Arrest powers lapse only when Parliament amends the CGST Act; until then section 69 stays on the statute book.
Concept note
Decriminalisation is the thread of the 57th meeting. Besides omitting section 69 (arrest) and raising the prosecution threshold to ₹5 crore, the Council recommended narrowing the offences in section 132, cutting the maximum general penalty under section 125 from Rs 25,000 to Rs 10,000, and a minimum of Rs 10,000 of tax before a show cause notice issues.
For appeals that involve only a penalty, it proposed a cap of ₹40 crore on the pre-deposit. On refunds, it proposed cutting the time for an acknowledgement or deficiency memo from 15 to 10 days and sanctioning 90% of zero-rated and inverted-duty claims provisionally through the system.
The logic is that of trust-based compliance: punish fraud, not error, and stop locking up working capital. The route matters for the exam.
The Council is a recommending body under Article 279A; the Central law changes only when Parliament amends the CGST Act, and notifications and circulars carry the rest. The recommendations carry some dates: input-services ITC refunds would cover ITC availed on or after 1 November 2026, and capital-goods ITC refunds ITC availed on or after 1 April 2027.
None of these is in force until the law or rules are changed.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (indirect taxes, ease of doing business); GS2 (Parliament’s law-making, delegated legislation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** decriminalisation, trust-based compliance, working capital, tax certainty. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating a GST Council recommendation as law; it binds only once the Act is amended or a notification issues. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 69 = arrest; section 132 = offences and prosecution; section 125 = general penalty. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Will removing arrest powers weaken the deterrent against fake invoicing rackets? |
Question 3 of 12
1 Scheduled formulations are subject to ceiling prices fixed by the government.
2 The earlier trade-margin cap on anti-cancer drugs fixed by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) covered every non-scheduled anti-cancer drug.
3 Trade margins on non-scheduled anti-cancer drugs have been capped under Paragraph 19 of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Scheduled drugs are already subject to government-set ceiling prices.
Statement 2Incorrect
The February 2019 cap covered 42 selected non-scheduled anti-cancer drugs, not all of them.
Statement 3Correct
That 2019 cap was imposed under Paragraph 19 of the DPCO, 2013.
Analysis
The government has now approved a cap of 30% of MRP on trade margins for non-scheduled anti-cancer drugs; an expert committee under the DGHS will finalise the list, and the NPPA will then issue the notification.
Concept note
India controls medicine prices on two tracks. Scheduled drugs carry ceiling prices fixed by the government.
Non-scheduled drugs have no ceiling, and their trade margins, the margins added as a medicine moves through the supply chain before it reaches the patient, can be very large: NPPA’s analysis of market data found an average mark-up of about 170% on non-scheduled anti-cancer medicines, reaching 700% or more in some cases. Capping the margin is the middle path between leaving prices free and fixing them.
It was tried in February 2019, when the NPPA capped trade margins on 42 selected non-scheduled anti-cancer drugs under Paragraph 19 of the DPCO, 2013, which reduced MRPs by up to 91% and saved a reported ₹984 crore a year across 526 brands. The new decision limits margins to 30% of MRP on non-scheduled anti-cancer drugs, branded and generic, domestic and imported, patented and non-patented, and asks makers to keep production at current levels.
The Department expects prices to fall by up to 70% and patients to save ₹2,500 crore a year. It takes effect only after the DGHS committee settles the list and the NPPA notifies it.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (health, regulatory bodies); GS3 (pharmaceutical sector, pricing). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** trade margin rationalisation, out-of-pocket expenditure, affordable access, supply-side response. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the 2019 cap covered all cancer drugs; it covered 42 selected non-scheduled drugs. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Scheduled = ceiling price; non-scheduled = margin cap under Paragraph 19, DPCO 2013; NPPA notifies. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Will a 30% margin cap cut prices or push companies to withdraw low-margin brands? |
Question 4 of 12
Statement-I: In Prakash Singh v. Union of India, the Supreme Court directed that a Director General of Police should have a minimum tenure of two years.
Statement-II: The directions in that case sought to insulate the police force from political influence.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The law laid down in the case requires a transparent appointment process and a minimum tenure of two years in office once appointed.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
The 2006 judgment mandated the insulation of the police force from political influence, and a fixed tenure is one of the safeguards that keep the police chief’s post insulated from it.
Analysis
A Bench led by the Chief Justice of India has taken the prima facie view that Jharkhand’s 2025 rules on DGP selection run against Prakash Singh, and has asked its amicus, with the UPSC assisting, to examine other States’ laws too.
Concept note
The 2006 judgment in Prakash Singh v. Union of India is the reference point for how States choose and keep a police chief. On the DGP, the law laid down in the case has three parts: a transparent appointment process, a minimum tenure of two years once appointed, and an eligibility floor of six months of residual service before normal retirement, which came with the Court’s clarification of 13 March 2019.
The aim, in The Hindu’s words, is the insulation of the police force from political influence. The case also produced seven directions on police reform, which include State Security Commissions and Police Complaints Authorities.
Now the Union government has moved the Court against Jharkhand’s 2025 rules, which allowed an officer with less than six months of residual service to be considered for the post. A Bench headed by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant took the prima facie view that the rule runs against Prakash Singh, asked the State to revisit it, and asked its amicus, with the UPSC assisting, to look into other States’ laws and appointments too.
The view is prima facie: the rule has not been struck down, and the matter is pending.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (police reforms, judiciary and executive, federalism); GS4 (integrity and neutrality of the civil services). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** operational autonomy, fixed tenure, police accountability, judicial directions. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying the Court has struck down Jharkhand’s rules; its view is prima facie and the matter is pending. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Prakash Singh (2006): transparent DGP selection, two-year minimum tenure, State Security Commission, Police Complaints Authority. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the Supreme Court supervise police appointments, or is that the State legislature’s job? |
Question 5 of 12
1 Under Article 324(1), the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for elections to Parliament and to the State Legislatures vest in the Election Commission.
2 Article 325 bars the exclusion of a person from the general electoral roll on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
3 Under Article 326, a citizen not less than eighteen years of age who is not otherwise disqualified is entitled to be registered as a voter.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 324(1) vests the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls in the Election Commission.
Statement 2Incorrect
Article 325 lists religion, race, caste and sex; place of birth is not among its grounds.
Statement 3Correct
Article 326 sets adult suffrage at eighteen years for a citizen not otherwise disqualified.
Analysis
The Hindu’s lead argues that the Special Intensive Revision shifts the burden onto electors, whereas the ECI’s own Manual gives probative value to a name on the preceding roll, with the onus on the objector.
Concept note
Electoral rolls sit at the meeting point of three Articles and two statutes. Article 324 gives the Election Commission superintendence, direction and control of preparing the rolls; Article 325 provides one general roll for every territorial constituency and forbids exclusion on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex; Article 326 entitles every citizen of eighteen and above, not otherwise disqualified, to be registered.
The Representation of the People Act, 1950 carries the detail: section 21(3) lets the Commission direct a special revision for reasons to be recorded, and Rule 25(1) of the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960 allows a revision to be intensive, summary or partly each. The Electoral Registration Officer, not a central database, decides each elector’s eligibility.
Form 6 is the application for inclusion and Form 7 the objection to an entry. In Lal Babu Hussein (1995), a three-judge bench ruling built into the ECI’s Manual, a name on the roll is presumed valid and can be removed only after notice and a hearing.
The Hindu’s editorial reads the Special Intensive Revision against these safeguards and finds the process exclusionary in its effect.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Election Commission, Representation of the People Acts, citizenship). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** universal adult franchise, inclusive rolls, burden of proof, procedural fairness. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Adding place of birth to Article 325; its grounds are only religion, race, caste and sex. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 324 = superintendence by the ECI; 325 = one general roll, no exclusion on religion, race, caste or sex; 326 = adult suffrage at 18. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Who should bear the burden of proving citizenship when a voter’s name is challenged? |
Question 6 of 12
1 India’s Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) is with the European Free Trade Association, whose members are Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein.
2 The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021 was enacted to end retrospective tax demands of the kind raised against Vodafone and Cairn Energy.
3 A Quality Control Order makes certification by the Bureau of Indian Standards voluntary for the products it covers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
TEPA is with EFTA, the four-nation group of Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein, not with the European Union.
Statement 2Correct
The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021 ended retrospective tax disputes by withdrawing outstanding demands against entities such as Vodafone and Cairn Energy.
Statement 3Incorrect
A Quality Control Order makes BIS certification mandatory, not voluntary.
Analysis
The Hindu op-ed argues that investment promises in trade pacts need predictable rules at home: labour codes that States implement, fewer Quality Control Orders and faster dispute resolution.
Concept note
TEPA entered into force on 1 October 2025 and carries an investment objective: USD 100 billion over 15 years and the facilitation of one million direct jobs in India. Its partner is the European Free Trade Association, the four states of Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein, not the European Union.
Bharat Joshi’s op-ed in The Hindu asks whether India’s inbound investment framework can deliver on such targets. He points to the four labour codes, in force since 21 November 2025, which rationalise 29 labour laws but need State rules because labour is in the Concurrent List, as PIB records; to Quality Control Orders, which make BIS certification mandatory and which grew, by the Gauba Committee count he cites, from fewer than 70 to nearly 790; and to TEPA’s lack of an independent bilateral investment dispute mechanism.
He credits the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021 with ending the ghost of retrospective tax disputes, and says the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 and the Mediation Act, 2023 have helped. The DPIIT is the nodal agency, though not the decision-maker on many approvals.
The argument is that targets attract headlines while predictable rules attract capital.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (investment models, FDI, ease of doing business); GS2 (bilateral and regional agreements, Centre-State relations). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** regulatory certainty, investor confidence, dispute resolution, cooperative federalism in labour reform. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling TEPA an India-EU agreement; it is with EFTA, the four-nation European Free Trade Association, not the European Union. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** EFTA = Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, Liechtenstein; TEPA investment objective USD 100 billion over 15 years; QCO = mandatory BIS certification. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should investment targets be written into trade agreements at all? |
Question 7 of 12
1 The Punjab Preservation of Sub-Soil Water Act, 2009 was enacted as a groundwater law.
2 The stubble-fire protocol of CREAMS uses the MODIS and VIIRS sensors on polar-orbiting satellites.
3 The Happy Seeder is a machine for in-situ management of crop residue.
4 A fall in the number of fires counted by satellites is by itself proof of a fall in the area burnt.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The PPSSWA, enacted in 2009 to slow groundwater depletion, is a groundwater law that fixes when paddy can be sown and transplanted.
Statement 2Correct
CREAMS uses NASA’s MODIS and VIIRS sensors, carried on polar-orbiting satellites.
Statement 3Correct
The Happy Seeder sows into the residue left in the field, which is in-situ management.
Statement 4Incorrect
CREAMS counts active fires seen at fixed hours, not the area burnt, so fewer counted fires need not mean less burning.
Analysis
The polar satellites pass over India only between 10:30 am and 1:30 pm, and the column in The Hindu cites an ISRO-led study that found farmers shifting to evening burning.
Concept note
Stubble burning is a policy problem with three layers. The first is legal: Punjab’s Preservation of Sub-Soil Water Act, enacted in 2009 to slow groundwater depletion, delayed paddy sowing and transplanting, which pushed the harvest into late October and early November and left farmers a narrow window of 10 to 15 days before wheat.
The second is economic: as C.S.C. Sekhar writes, paddy procurement between 2012 and 2024 averaged 87% of production in Punjab and 74% in Haryana against about 37% nationally, which keeps farmers on paddy. The third is the measurement problem.
CREAMS counts active fires from polar-orbiting satellites that pass over India only between 10:30 am and 1:30 pm, while geostationary observation in an ISRO-led study caught evening burning, so a fall in fire counts may reflect a change of timing. In-situ options, such as the Happy Seeder, Super Seeder and Rotavator, short-duration varieties and direct seeding of rice, keep the residue in the field.
Ex-situ options, such as bio-ethanol and compressed biogas, take it away for use. For the 2026 paddy harvest, the Commission for Air Quality Management has, through the CPCB, deployed flying squads in 34 districts, 18 in Punjab and 16 in Haryana.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (agriculture, environmental pollution, remote sensing); GS2 (Centre-State coordination, CAQM). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** crop residue management, crop diversification, unintended policy consequences, airshed approach. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading the PPSSWA as an air-pollution law; it is a groundwater law whose side effect shifted the burning season. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** In-situ = Happy Seeder, Super Seeder, Rotavator; ex-situ = bio-ethanol, compressed biogas. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should procurement policy be changed to wean Punjab off paddy? |
Question 8 of 12
1 Article 17 makes the enforcement of any disability arising out of 'untouchability' an offence punishable in accordance with law.
2 Under Article 35, Parliament, and not the Legislature of a State, has the power to make laws prescribing punishment for acts declared to be offences under Part III of the Constitution.
3 The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 was enacted to prevent atrocities against members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 17 abolishes ‘untouchability’, forbids its practice in any form and makes the enforcement of any disability arising out of it an offence punishable in accordance with law.
Statement 2Correct
Article 35(a)(ii) gives Parliament, and denies a State Legislature, the power to prescribe punishment for offences under Part III.
Statement 3Incorrect
The PCR Act, 1955 prescribes punishment for enforcing any disability arising from the practice of ‘untouchability’; the law enacted to prevent atrocities against SCs and STs is the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989.
Analysis
The Hindu’s Parley asks whether legal guarantees alone can end the practice, given the high bar of proof in criminal law.
Concept note
Article 17 abolishes ‘untouchability’, forbids its practice in any form and makes the enforcement of any disability arising from it an offence. Article 35 then reserves to Parliament the power to prescribe punishment for such offences, which is why the law is a Central one.
That law is the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, which prescribes punishment for enforcing any disability arising from ‘untouchability’. A second Central law, the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, was enacted to prevent atrocities against members of SCs and STs.
A committee chaired by the Union Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment, and co-chaired by the Union Minister for Tribal Affairs, reviews how States and UTs implement both Acts. The Parley’s question is whether these guarantees are enough.
Disha Wadekar notes that criminal law requires proof beyond reasonable doubt and looks to civil remedies with a lower burden of proof, as under the POSH Act, and to local forums; Valerian Rodrigues looks to textbooks, teacher training and urban planning that rebuild the common.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (caste and social justice); GS2 (fundamental rights, protection of vulnerable sections). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** social conscience, burden of proof, civil remedies, implementation gap. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Mixing the PCR Act, 1955 (untouchability offences) with the PoA Act, 1989 (atrocities against SCs and STs). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 17 abolishes; Article 35 reserves the punishing law to Parliament; PCR Act, 1955 prescribes the punishment. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can a law change a social practice, or must social reform come first? |
Question 9 of 12
1 The revised reduction target of the National Clean Air Programme, for 2025-26, is framed in terms of PM2.5 concentration.
2 The Graded Response Action Plan for the National Capital Region is run by the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
3 The System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR) functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
NCAP’s revised target, up to 40% reduction by 2025-26 or meeting the national standards, is framed in PM10, not PM2.5; the 2019 launch goal of a 20 to 30 per cent cut covered both PM10 and PM2.5.
Statement 2Incorrect
GRAP in the NCR is run by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM).
Statement 3Incorrect
SAFAR functions under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, not the MoEFCC.
Analysis
Gufran Beig, SAFAR’s founder project director, argues in The Indian Express that weather multiplies Delhi’s pollution and that only an airshed approach across State lines can manage it.
Concept note
Delhi’s winter smog is a problem of emissions multiplied by weather. In his column, Gufran Beig explains the multiplier: a super El Niño can cut wind speed over North India, make western disturbances, the weather systems that bring winter rain to Delhi and wash pollutants out, almost absent, and lower the surface inversion layer, so pollutants build up near the ground.
El Niño adds no smoke of its own; it changes winds, rain and temperature. India’s policy response works at several levels.
The National Clean Air Programme, launched by the MoEFCC in January 2019, covers 131 cities in 24 States with a target of up to 40% reduction in PM10, or meeting the national standards, by 2025-26. In the NCR, the CAQM runs the Graded Response Action Plan, whose revised schedule has four stages and 48 actions.
SAFAR, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, forecasts air quality. Beig’s case is for the airshed, a region that shares the same air and is managed as one unit across city and State lines, since smoke does not stop at a border.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (environmental pollution, climate variability); GS1 (atmospheric circulation, temperature inversion); GS2 (inter-State coordination). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** airshed management, temperature inversion, ventilation index, inter-State coordination. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying NCAP’s revised target is framed in PM2.5; it is framed in PM10. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NCAP = MoEFCC, January 2019, 130 cities; GRAP = CAQM in the NCR; SAFAR = MoES. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should air quality be governed by airsheds that cut across State boundaries? |
Question 10 of 12
Statement-I: Section 115 of the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 provides that a person who attempts to commit suicide shall be presumed, unless proved otherwise, to have severe stress and shall not be tried and punished under the Indian Penal Code.
Statement-II: The Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 repealed Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Section 115(1) of the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 presumes severe stress in a person who attempts suicide and bars trial and punishment under the IPC.
Statement IIIncorrect
The Act did not repeal Section 309; Section 115 opens with ‘Notwithstanding anything contained in section 309’ and works through a presumption.
Analysis
Urvashi Prasad’s column in The Indian Express argues that reporting a student suicide as a single-cause story misleads readers, and Section 24(1) of the same Act already bars releasing to the media, without consent, any photograph or other information about a person with mental illness undergoing treatment at a mental health establishment.
Concept note
Section 115 of the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 did not delete the IPC offence of attempted suicide; it presumed, unless proved otherwise, that a person who attempts suicide has severe stress, and barred trial and punishment. Section 115(2) placed a duty on the appropriate Government to provide care, treatment and rehabilitation.
Section 24(1) bars the release to the media, without consent, of a photograph or other information about a person with mental illness undergoing treatment at a mental health establishment. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which repealed the IPC, has no general offence of attempted suicide; its Section 226 punishes only an attempt made to compel or restrain a public servant from discharging official duty, and abetment of suicide remains a serious offence.
The NCRB recorded 14,488 student suicides in 2024, 8.5% of all suicides. In Amit Kumar v. Union of India (24 March 2025) the Supreme Court reminded institutions of their obligation to promptly lodge an FIR after a campus suicide, and set up a National Task Force on the mental health of students.
The National Suicide Prevention Strategy (2022) aims to cut suicide mortality by 10% by 2030, and Tele-MANAS (14416) is a free 24x7 helpline.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (health, vulnerable sections, education); GS4 (media ethics, empathy); GS1 (social issues). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** decriminalisation by presumption, duty of care, responsible reporting, student mental health. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying the MHCA repealed Section 309 IPC; it overrode it through a presumption of severe stress. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** MHCA 2017: Section 115 (presumption, duty of care), Section 24 (media confidentiality); BNS Section 226. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the media be legally barred from naming a cause when reporting a suicide? |
Question 11 of 12
1 Slab avalanches account for most of the damage caused by avalanches.
2 Most avalanches of dangerous size originate on slopes inclined between 30 degrees and 45 degrees.
3 Convex slopes are more prone to avalanches than concave slopes.
4 In India, the Defence Research and Development Organisation is a national-level agency for avalanche forecasting.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Of the two basic types, loose snow and slab, slab avalanches cause most of the damage.
Statement 2Correct
The NDMA guidelines say most avalanches of dangerous size originate on slopes of between 30 and 45 degrees.
Statement 3Correct
Convex slopes are more prone than concave ones.
Statement 4Correct
The DRDO is a national level agency for avalanche forecasting, and its DGRE, Chandigarh, is the nodal agency for studying and developing avalanche mitigation technologies.
Analysis
The Indian Express column argues for a Himalayan Cryosphere Observatory Network, starting with 100 high-risk locations, shared across borders and open to civilians.
Concept note
The NDMA’s guidelines of June 2009 define a snow avalanche as a rapid, down slope movement of a large detached mass of snow, ice and associated debris such as rock fragments, soil and vegetation. There are two basic types, loose snow avalanches and slab avalanches, and slab avalanches account for most of the damage.
Terrain decides much of the risk. Most avalanches of dangerous size originate on slopes of between 30 and 45 degrees, and convex slopes are more susceptible than concave ones.
India’s institutional answer sits with the DRDO, a national level agency for avalanche forecasting. Its Defence Geoinformatics Research Establishment (DGRE) at Chandigarh runs snow-meteorological observatories and automatic weather stations, issues forecasts at least 24 hours ahead and, the government says, has installed an avalanche monitoring radar in North Sikkim.
The column by Maloo and Sutaria in The Indian Express places this against a changing cryosphere: ICIMOD’s Snow Update 2026 found snow cover across the Hindu Kush Himalaya 27.8% below the long-term average, and the HiAVAL database records 681 avalanches between 1972 and 2022. They argue for an open, cross-border observatory network, starting with 100 high-risk locations, whose warnings reach civilians as well as soldiers.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (geomorphology, Himalayan geography); GS3 (disaster management, climate change). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** cryosphere monitoring, early warning systems, last-mile dissemination, climate-induced hazards. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking concave slopes are more prone; the NDMA guidelines rate convex slopes as more susceptible. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NDMA avalanche guidelines 2009; DRDO’s DGRE, Chandigarh; slab avalanches most destructive; 30 to 45 degrees. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should avalanche warnings in the Himalaya be run by a civilian agency rather than a defence laboratory? |
Question 12 of 12
1. World Development Report : World Bank Group
2. World Investment Report : United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
3. Accidental Deaths and Suicides in India : National Crime Records Bureau
4. Snow Update Report : International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
The World Development Report 2026, on artificial intelligence, is a World Bank Group report.
Pair 2Correct
The World Investment Report is published by UNCTAD.
Pair 3Correct
Accidental Deaths and Suicides in India is the NCRB’s annual report.
Pair 4Correct
The Snow Update Report on the Hindu Kush Himalaya is published by ICIMOD.
Analysis
All four reports appear in this edition: the WDR 2026 launch in New Delhi, the WIR in the investment op-ed, the ADSI in the student-suicide column and the Snow Update in the avalanche column.
Concept note
Report-and-publisher pairs are a regular Prelims format, and the trap is usually a plausible swap between bodies of the same family. The World Development Report comes from the World Bank Group; its 2026 edition, The Promise of Artificial Intelligence, was launched in New Delhi by the Union Minister for Electronics and Information Technology with the IndiaAI Mission, and its framework runs through adoption, adaptation and advancement.
The World Investment Report comes from UNCTAD, the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development, not from the World Bank or the WTO; the 2026 edition is cited in The Hindu op-ed as ranking India 11th among FDI destinations. Accidental Deaths and Suicides in India is the annual report of the National Crime Records Bureau, which recorded 14,488 student suicides in 2024.
The Snow Update Report comes from ICIMOD, the International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development, whose 2026 report found Hindu Kush Himalaya snow cover 27.8% below the long-term average. Learn the publisher with the report, not with the news.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international institutions); GS3 (investment, technology, disaster risk); GS1 (Himalayan cryosphere). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** evidence-based policy, global benchmarks, data institutions, regional cooperation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Crediting the World Investment Report to the World Bank; it is UNCTAD’s. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** WDR = World Bank Group; WIR = UNCTAD; ADSI = NCRB; Snow Update = ICIMOD. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India rely on global rankings, or build its own indicators for investment and AI readiness? |
Performance
Question-wise Result