UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 31 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
10 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 10
1 NavIC is a regional system covering India and a region up to 1,500 km beyond its boundary, whereas GPS and Galileo serve the whole globe.
2 In NavIC’s design, all seven satellites of the constellation are placed in geostationary orbit.
3 A minimum of four operational satellites is required in orbit for NavIC to provide basic positioning service.
4 The CE-7.5, which powers the cryogenic upper stage of the GSLV, burns liquid hydrogen with liquid oxygen.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation), formerly IRNSS, covers India and a region extending 1,500 km around its boundary, while GPS (United States), GLONASS (Russia), Galileo (European Union) and BeiDou (China) are global.
Statement 2Incorrect
Three satellites are in geostationary orbit, at 32.5°E, 83°E and 129.5°E, and four are in inclined geosynchronous orbit with an inclination of 29°, two in each plane.
Statement 3Correct
The Department of Space told the Lok Sabha that a minimum of four operational satellites is required for basic positioning, which is why a three-satellite constellation could not give standalone positioning, though its timing service worked.
Statement 4Correct
The CE-7.5, India’s first cryogenic engine, developed by the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre, burns liquid hydrogen with liquid oxygen in a staged combustion cycle.
Analysis
GSLV-F18 has placed NVS-03, the third second-generation NavIC satellite, in a geosynchronous transfer orbit. It counts toward the four-satellite threshold only after it raises its orbit and enters service.
Concept note
NavIC offers two services: a Standard Position Service for civilian users and a Restricted Service for strategic users. A receiver finds its position from how long each satellite’s signal takes to arrive, so every satellite carries atomic clocks, and clock failures have been NavIC’s main weakness: IRNSS-1F’s procured clock stopped in March 2026, days after its 10-year design life ended.
The second generation, NVS-01 to NVS-05, adds an indigenous atomic clock alongside procured ones and a new civilian L1 signal (1575.42 MHz), interoperable with other GNSS signals, on top of the existing L5 and S signals. NVS-01, launched by GSLV-F12 in May 2023, flew the first indigenous atomic clock.
The GSLV in its F18 form has three stages: an S139 solid core with four L40H liquid strap-ons, the GL40HT second stage and the CUS15 cryogenic upper stage. ISRO says the GSLV can launch communication satellites of up to the 2 tonne class, while the LVM3 handles the 4 tonne class.
A geostationary satellite flies at about 35,786 km above the equator; it is first placed in an elongated transfer orbit and then raised from apogee.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 space technology and its applications; GS3 security, the strategic value of an independent navigation system. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** strategic autonomy, PNT, constellation continuity, indigenous atomic clocks. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** treating NavIC as a global system, or as fully geostationary; it is regional, with 3 GEO and 4 inclined geosynchronous satellites in its design. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** reaching a transfer orbit is not reaching the slot: the satellite must still raise its orbit and be brought into service. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** why should India keep an independent navigation system when GPS is free to use? |
Question 2 of 10
1 The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas is a statutory body constituted under an Act of Parliament.
2 PAVAN, the Integrated Command and Control Centre for air quality in the NCR, is a platform of the Central Pollution Control Board.
3 The Air Quality Index has six categories, and the pollutant with the worst sub-index determines the overall AQI.
4 The revised target of the National Clean Air Programme is framed as a cut in PM2.5 concentrations.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The CAQM is a statutory body under an Act of Parliament, Act No. 29 of 2021.
Statement 2Incorrect
PAVAN (Platform for Air quality Vigilance and Analytics for NCR) is CAQM’s Integrated Command and Control Centre (I3C), not the CPCB’s; the CPCB, IMD and the State Pollution Control Boards install the monitoring stations that feed it.
Statement 3Correct
The AQI runs from Good, Satisfactory and Moderately polluted to Poor, Very Poor and Severe, covers eight pollutants, and the worst sub-index sets the overall value.
Statement 4Incorrect
NCAP’s revised target is a cut of up to 40% in PM10, or a level of 60 µg/m³, by 2025-26; it is a PM10 target.
Analysis
The Union Environment Minister, visiting PAVAN-I3C, said construction and demolition across the NCR would be halted from 5 to 20 November, a region-wide curb announced alongside a tool meant to make targeted enforcement possible.
Concept note
PAVAN-I3C is described as a single-window digital nerve centre. It integrates more than 30 APIs and data streams, data from 111 Continuous Ambient Air Quality Monitoring Stations (CAAQMS) in Delhi-NCR, over 2,300 industries and more than 3,200 active construction sites, and works on the principle of ‘Detect, Analyse, Act’: a deviation from norms or Statutory Directions triggers an alert and escalation to the agency concerned.
Its modules draw on OCEMS emission data from industry, satellite data on crop-residue burning from IARI, ISRO and FIRMS, landfill feeds, VAHAN data and citizen complaints through the Green Delhi and SAMEER apps, with a State Action Plan module for Delhi, Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. Alongside it sits the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP): four stages, each added on top of the lower ones.
GRAP Stage I was invoked across the NCR on 21 October 2026, and the revised schedule of September 2026 has 48 actions (25, 8, 10 and 5 across the four stages). NCAP was launched by the Environment Ministry in January 2019 for 131 non-attainment and million-plus cities.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 environmental pollution and conservation; GS2 statutory and regulatory bodies, inter-State coordination. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** airshed governance, hyper-local data, alert-based compliance, graded response. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** crediting PAVAN-I3C to the CPCB, or reading NCAP as a PM2.5 target; it is CAQM’s platform and NCAP’s target is PM10. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** AQI has six categories; GRAP has four stages, and its stages are cumulative. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** will a control room clean Delhi’s air if State boards and local bodies do not act on its alerts? |
Question 3 of 10
1 Priority sector lending targets for domestic commercial banks are set as a share of Adjusted Net Bank Credit or the Credit Equivalent of Off-Balance Sheet Exposures, whichever is higher.
2 Regional Rural Banks have a lower overall priority sector lending target than domestic commercial banks.
3 The Lead Bank Scheme was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India, and its apex tier is the State Level Bankers' Committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Under the RBI’s Master Directions, targets are computed on ANBC or CEOBSE, whichever is higher.
Statement 2Incorrect
The overall target is 40% for domestic commercial banks (and foreign banks with 20 branches and above), but 75% for Regional Rural Banks and 60% for urban co-operative banks.
Statement 3Correct
The RBI introduced the Lead Bank Scheme in December 1969; it works through the Block Level Bankers’ Committee at the base, the District Consultative Committee and District Level Review Committee in the middle, and the State Level Bankers’ Committee (or UT Level Bankers’ Committee) at the apex.
Analysis
The Centre’s new High Level Committee on Banking for Viksit Bharat is to ‘review the Priority Sector Lending framework and Lead Bank Scheme to assess their relevance, effectiveness, and coordination’. It has made no recommendations; it is to review and suggest.
Concept note
Priority sector lending obliges banks to lend a set share of credit to sectors such as agriculture and micro enterprises. For domestic commercial banks the sub-targets are agriculture 18% (14% for non-corporate farmers, of which 10% for small and marginal farmers), micro enterprises 7.5% and weaker sections 12%.
The current Master Directions are dated 24 March 2025 and came into effect on 1 April 2025. The Lead Bank Scheme followed the Gadgil Study Group (October 1969) and the Nariman Committee (November 1969): the RBI designates a commercial bank as the Lead Bank in each district to coordinate banks, government and NABARD so that credit reaches the priority sectors.
As on 31 March 2025, 12 public sector banks and two private sector banks were lead banks in 782 districts, and the RBI issued revised guidelines on 19 June 2026. The new committee, chaired by former Central Vigilance Commissioner Suresh N. Patel with a six-month tenure, was proposed in paragraph 42 of the Budget speech of 1 February 2026; its terms also cover prudential norms, capital needs, the cost of capital and AI in banking.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 inclusive growth and mobilisation of resources; GS2 government policies and the RBI as regulator. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** directed credit, financial inclusion, ANBC, district credit planning. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** assuming RRBs carry a lighter PSL burden; their 75% target is far above the commercial banks' 40%. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** the LBS tiers run block (BLBC), district (DCC and DLRC), State (SLBC or UTLBC). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** are rule-based lending shares from 1969-era thinking still the best route to inclusion in a digital banking system? |
Question 4 of 10
1. 'Police' and 'Public order' are entries in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule.
2 The requirements laid down by the Supreme Court in PUCL v State of Maharashtra (2014) are binding as law declared under Article 141.
3 Under the PUCL requirements, the independent investigation of an encounter death must be carried out by an agency outside the state police.
4 Section 196 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which replaced Section 176 of the CrPC, requires a Magistrate’s inquiry, in addition to the police investigation, when a person dies or disappears in police custody.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
‘Public order’ and ‘Police’ are entries 1 and 2 of List II, the State List, so police is a State subject.
Statement 2Correct
The Court directed that its requirements ‘must be strictly observed in all cases of death and grievous injury in police encounters by treating them as law declared under Article 141’.
Statement 3Incorrect
PUCL asks for an investigation by the CID or a police team of another police station, supervised by an officer at least a level above the head of the police party; an agency outside the state police is a proposal made in the column, not the Court’s rule.
Statement 4Correct
Section 196 of the BNSS took the place of Section 176 of the CrPC and requires a Magistrate’s inquiry when a person dies or disappears in police custody.
Analysis
After two accused died in police firing in West Bengal, Jhuma Sen argues in The Indian Express that the law is settled but compliance ‘has become paperwork’.
Concept note
Article 21 provides that no person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law, and a death at the hands of the police tests it directly, because the state is both the party that fired and the agency that investigates. In PUCL v State of Maharashtra (23 September 2014), a Bench of Chief Justice R.M. Lodha and Justice Rohinton Fali Nariman laid down sixteen requirements: an FIR forwarded to the court, an independent investigation, a magisterial inquiry in every death in police firing, information to the NHRC or the State Human Rights Commission without delay, compensation, and no out-of-turn promotion or instant gallantry reward.
The NHRC, set up on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, has required since May 2010, under its guidelines (first issued in 2003 and modified on 12 May 2010), that every death in police action be reported to it within 48 hours. In Arif Md.
Yeasin Jwadder v State of Assam (2025), the Court entrusted the inquiry into alleged encounters in Assam to the Assam Human Rights Commission. Prakash Singh v Union of India (2006) ordered structural reform, including State Security Commissions and a minimum two-year tenure for the DGP.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 fundamental rights (Article 21), the judiciary and statutory bodies (NHRC); GS4 ends and means, accountability of public servants. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** extra-judicial killing, rule of law, independent investigation, police reform. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** placing police in the Concurrent List, or reading PUCL as requiring an outside agency; police is a State subject and PUCL asks for the CID or another police station’s team. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** pair the provisions: Article 21 (the right), Article 141 (why PUCL binds), BNSS Section 196 (the Magistrate’s inquiry), NHRC’s 48-hour reporting rule. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** as District Magistrate, what would you do in the first 48 hours after an accused dies in police firing? |
Question 5 of 10
Statement-I: The Agreement on the Political Parameters and Guiding Principles for the Settlement of the India-China Boundary Question was signed in New Delhi during the visit of Chinese Premier Wen Jiabao.
Statement-II: Article I of that agreement provides that neither side shall use or threaten to use force against the other by any means.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
On the MEA’s record, the agreement was signed in New Delhi on 11 April 2005, during Premier Wen Jiabao’s visit, a visit that also named a ‘Strategic and Cooperative Partnership for Peace and Prosperity’.
Statement IICorrectDoes not explain Statement I
Article I reads ‘Neither side shall use or threaten to use force against the other by any means’, a term of the agreement that says nothing about where or during whose visit it was signed; Article VII adds that the two sides shall safeguard due interests of their settled populations in the border areas.
Analysis
Writing in The Hindu, former National Security Adviser M.K. Narayanan places the agreement ‘under President Hu Jintao’ and cites Articles I and VII as evidence that China ‘knows when to bend’. Hu Jintao was then China’s President, but the agreement belongs to the Premier’s visit.
Concept note
The boundary between India and China is not settled. Under the agreement signed at Beijing on 7 September 1993, the two sides ‘shall strictly respect and observe the line of actual control’ pending an ultimate solution, and references to the LAC ‘do not prejudice their respective positions on the boundary question’.
The 1996 agreement on confidence-building measures in the military field followed, signed on 29 November 1996. The Special Representatives mechanism on the boundary question was established in 2003 and has held 25 rounds, the latest in Beijing on 25 August 2026.
The Working Mechanism for Consultation and Coordination (WMCC) came from an agreement at the 15th round of SR talks in January 2012 and has held 36 meetings, the latest in New Delhi on 6 August 2026. Ties were set back by incidents in Eastern Ladakh in April-May 2020 and the violence at Galwan on 15 June 2020, in which 20 Indian military personnel lost their lives; an agreement on patrolling arrangements in October 2024 led to disengagement from all the friction points of 2020.
India’s position stands: Aksai Chin and Arunachal Pradesh are integral parts of India.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 India and its neighbourhood, bilateral agreements; GS3 security challenges in border areas. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** managed coexistence, confidence-building measures, peace and tranquillity, dialogue mechanisms. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** dating the 2005 agreement to a visit by President Hu Jintao; it was signed during Premier Wen Jiabao’s visit, in New Delhi. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** sequence the texts and channels: 1993 (respect the LAC), 1996 (military CBMs), 2003 (SR mechanism), 2005 (political parameters), 2012 (WMCC). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** can engagement with China and preparedness along the LAC be pursued together, or does each undercut the other? |
Question 6 of 10
1 The tax revenue counted among the Centre’s receipts is net of the States' share of taxes devolved to them.
2 Interest payments are a component of the Centre’s capital expenditure.
3 Major subsidies are booked as revenue expenditure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The monthly accounts show tax revenue ‘net to Centre’ and record the devolution of the States’ share of taxes separately, ₹6,99,409 crore up to September 2026.
Statement 2Incorrect
Interest payments are part of revenue spending; up to September they took ₹6,46,010 crore of revenue expenditure, nearly as much as the ₹6,54,547 crore spent on the capital account.
Statement 3Correct
Major subsidies, ₹2,22,905 crore up to September, sit within revenue spending.
Analysis
The Ministry of Finance’s review of accounts to September 2026 shows receipts of ₹18,35,422 crore, 50.3% of the Budget Estimates for 2026-27, and expenditure of ₹25,49,835 crore, 47.7% of the BE.
Concept note
The Centre’s receipts in the monthly accounts have three parts: tax revenue net to the Centre, non-tax revenue and non-debt capital receipts. Up to September 2026 these were ₹12,76,088 crore, ₹4,80,732 crore and ₹78,602 crore, adding up to ₹18,35,422 crore.
Expenditure is split between the revenue account (₹18,95,288 crore) and the capital account (₹6,54,547 crore). Revenue expenditure creates no assets and includes the two largest committed items, interest payments and major subsidies; capital expenditure is the spending that builds assets, which is why its share of total spending is watched as a measure of the quality of expenditure.
Tax devolution is the transfer of the States’ share of central taxes, ₹67,658 crore more in the first half of 2026-27 than a year earlier. The gap between what the Centre spends and what it receives without borrowing is the fiscal deficit.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 government budgeting, mobilisation of resources; GS2 fiscal federalism. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** quality of expenditure, committed expenditure, tax devolution, fiscal consolidation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** counting interest payments as capital spending because they relate to borrowing; they are revenue expenditure. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** receipts = net tax revenue + non-tax revenue + non-debt capital receipts; spending = revenue account + capital account. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** interest payments nearly match capital spending; what does that say about the room for public investment? |
Question 7 of 10
1 The India AI Governance Guidelines are anchored in seven guiding sutras, including 'Trust is the Foundation' and 'People First'.
2. 'Restraint over Innovation' is one of the seven guiding sutras of the India AI Governance Guidelines.
3. 'Understandable by Design' and 'Accountability' are among the seven guiding sutras.
4 Guidelines that the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India releases in draft for stakeholders' comments are binding on telecom service providers from the date of release.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The India AI Governance Guidelines of February 2026 rest on seven guiding sutras, the first two being Trust is the Foundation and People First.
Statement 2Incorrect
The sutra runs the other way, ‘Innovation over Restraint’.
Statement 3Correct
Accountability and Understandable by Design are sutras, along with Fairness & Equity and Safety, Resilience & Sustainability.
Statement 4Incorrect
A draft released for comments is a consultation, not a binding rule; TRAI’s draft Guidelines on Responsible Use of AI in telecommunication networks invite written comments by 27 November 2026.
Analysis
TRAI said AI is increasingly being integrated into telecom networks and services, and it chose to frame sector guidelines so that the national guidelines are implemented consistently and responsibly in telecom.
Concept note
TRAI released the draft Guidelines on Responsible Use of Artificial Intelligence (AI) in Telecommunication Networks and Provision of Telecommunication Services for stakeholders’ comments through Press Release No. 145 of 2026. The draft builds on the India AI Governance Guidelines of February 2026, whose seven guiding sutras are: Trust is the Foundation; People First; Innovation over Restraint; Fairness & Equity; Accountability; Understandable by Design; and Safety, Resilience & Sustainability.
The order matters for the exam: the national framework puts innovation ahead of restraint, so the sector guidelines translate broad principles into consistent practice rather than add a separate licensing regime. A draft open for comments is the consultative stage of regulation: the regulator publishes, stakeholders respond, and only the final instrument binds.
The same distinction, draft against final, runs through the day’s news, from TRAI’s guidelines to mediation in the courts.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 science and technology, AI and its governance; GS2 statutory and regulatory bodies (TRAI). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** responsible AI, principle-based regulation, consultative rule-making, sectoral guidelines. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** reversing 'Innovation over Restraint', or treating a consultation draft as an enforceable rule. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** learn the seven sutras in order; the first is 'Trust is the Foundation'. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** should India regulate AI sector by sector, as TRAI proposes for telecom, or through one horizontal law? |
Question 8 of 10
1 The Nataraja idol is in the Ananda Tandava posture, with four arms.
2 The Sivagami idol is in the Tribhanga posture, with two arms.
3 The excavation that yielded them is being carried out by the Archaeological Survey of India.
4 On the basis of their physical structure, iconography, ornaments and pedestals, the idols are estimated to date to about the 12th century AD.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Nataraja is in the Ananda Tandava posture with four arms, 110 cm high and 100 cm wide.
Statement 2Correct
The Sivagami is in the Tribhanga posture with two arms, 82 cm high and 23 cm wide.
Statement 3Incorrect
The excavation is by the Tamil Nadu State Department of Archaeology (TNSDA), a State body, not the Archaeological Survey of India.
Statement 4Correct
The idols, found with their pedestals at a depth of one metre, are dated to the Chola period, about the 12th century AD, from their physical structure, iconography, ornaments and pedestals.
Analysis
Dating here rests on style and form, the method art historians use when a piece carries no date of its own.
Concept note
The Nagapattinam finds, as The Hindu reported, are bronze alloy idols of Lord Nataraja and Goddess Sivagami, unearthed with their pedestals during ongoing excavations by the Tamil Nadu State Department of Archaeology. Nataraja, Shiva as the lord of dance, is shown here in the Ananda Tandava posture with four arms; Sivagami, his consort, stands in the Tribhanga posture with two arms.
Both are assigned to the Chola period and estimated to date to the 12th century AD, on the evidence of their physical structure, iconography, ornaments and pedestals. For the exam, three habits help with such items: tie the posture name to the deity it describes, note who excavated (a State department of archaeology or the ASI), and see how a date is reached, here from iconography and style rather than an inscription or a record.
Bronze icons of this kind are among the best-known achievements of Chola art.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 Indian art forms and culture from ancient to modern times; GS1 heritage conservation. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Chola bronzes, iconography, stylistic dating, State archaeology departments. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** crediting every excavation to the ASI; State archaeology departments such as the TNSDA run their own digs. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** pair postures with figures: Nataraja in Ananda Tandava, Sivagami in Tribhanga. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** should excavated temple bronzes stay in a local museum near the find spot or go to a national collection? |
Question 9 of 10
Place in the news : State
1. Namsai : Arunachal Pradesh
2. Joshimath : Uttarakhand
3. Dhuliyan : West Bengal
4. Nagapattinam : Tamil Nadu
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
Namsai, with Tawang and Bomdila, is one of the three Arunachal Pradesh venues of the exposition of the Holy Relics of Shakyamuni Buddha (the Piprahwa relics), from 31 October to 21 November 2026.
Pair 2Correct
A helicopter flying from Badrinath crashed near Chai village, Joshimath, in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.
Pair 3Correct
Dhuliyan is in Murshidabad district of West Bengal, where, news reports said, one of the two accused named in the day’s Indian Express editorial died in police firing.
Pair 4Correct
Nagapattinam, where Chola bronzes were unearthed, is in Tamil Nadu, and the excavation is by the Tamil Nadu State Department of Archaeology.
Analysis
All four pairs are right; map questions reward placing each place in the news, not just recognising its name.
Concept note
Places in the day’s news run across India. In Arunachal Pradesh, the Ministry of Culture, with the State government, the International Buddhist Confederation and the National Museum, is holding an exposition of the Holy Relics of Shakyamuni Buddha at Tawang (1 to 7 November), Bomdila (8 to 13 November) and Namsai (14 to 20 November); the relics are to return to the National Museum on 21 November.
In Uttarakhand, the crash near Joshimath killed all six on board a helicopter flying from Badrinath towards the Sahastradhara helipad in Dehradun, The Hindu reported, and the State’s civil aviation authority, UCADA, grounded the operator’s fleet. In West Bengal, Gaighata (North 24 Parganas) and Dhuliyan (Murshidabad) were, news reports said, the sites of the two deaths in police firing that the Indian Express editorial discusses.
In Tamil Nadu, the State Department of Archaeology found the Nataraja and Sivagami bronzes at Nagapattinam. Marking such places on a blank outline map, with their districts, is the best preparation for the map questions Prelims asks.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 political geography of India; GS1 art and culture (Buddhist relics, Chola bronzes); GS3 disaster management. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** hill aviation safety, Buddhist heritage circuit, cultural diplomacy. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** placing Namsai or Bomdila in Sikkim or Assam; both are in Arunachal Pradesh, with Tawang. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** mark Tawang, Bomdila and Namsai together on a map of Arunachal Pradesh, and Joshimath, Badrinath and Dehradun on Uttarakhand. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** should helicopter services to hill shrines be suspended during weather alerts, even when the weather at the helipad looks clear? |
Question 10 of 10
Statement-I: Rashtriya Ekta Diwas is observed every year to commemorate the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
Statement-II: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played a central role in the integration of the princely states into the Union of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
‘Rashtriya Ekta Diwas is observed every year on 31 October to commemorate the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel’, PIB says.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
The same release describes Patel, the ‘Iron Man of India’, as the leader ‘who played a central role in the integration of the princely states into the Union of India’, which is why his birth anniversary is marked as a day of national unity (ekta).
Analysis
31 October 2026 is Patel’s 151st birth anniversary. The tempting choice is (b), treating his role in integration as an unrelated fact; the day’s name ties the two together.
Concept note
Rashtriya Ekta Diwas (National Unity Day) falls on 31 October, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel’s birth anniversary; 2026 marks the 151st. PIB, in a release of the Legislative Department, explains the day by Patel’s part in nation-building: he ‘played a central role in the integration of the princely states into the Union of India’, and is remembered as the ‘Iron Man of India’.
The integration of the princely states is a core theme of post-independence consolidation in GS1 Modern Indian History: at independence a large part of the subcontinent lay under princely rulers, and bringing those territories into the Union was among the first tasks of the new state. Observances on the day include the Ekta Parade; an earlier edition reported a police motorcycle rally, ‘Fight Against Drugs’, set to join it this year.
For the exam, link the day to its person and the person to the process: Ekta Diwas, Patel, integration.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 post-independence consolidation and the integration of princely states; GS4 lessons from the lives of leaders. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** national integration, princely states, nation-building, Iron Man of India. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** confusing Rashtriya Ekta Diwas (31 October, Patel) with other national days tied to other leaders. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Ekta Diwas, 31 October, Sardar Patel’s birth anniversary; the day’s name points to the integration of the princely states. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** what does national unity demand of the State today, seven decades after the princely states were integrated? |
Performance
Question-wise Result