UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 26 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
12 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 12
1 The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is set up under section 3 of the Act, with the Prime Minister as its Chairperson ex officio.
2 The National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) was first constituted by the Disaster Management (Amendment) Act, 2025.
3 Under section 8A of the Act, the NCMC consists of the Cabinet Secretary as Chairperson and such other members as the Central Government may notify.
4 The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) is constituted under section 44 of the Act for specialist response to a threatening disaster situation or disaster.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 3 sets up the NDMA with ‘the Prime Minister of India, who shall be the Chairperson of the National Authority, ex officio’.
Statement 2Incorrect
Section 8A, inserted by the 2025 Amendment Act, adopts the NCMC ‘constituted by the Government of India prior to the commencement’ of that Act, so the committee existed before 2025.
Statement 3Correct
Section 8A(2) names the Cabinet Secretary as Chairperson.
Statement 4Correct
Section 44 provides for the NDRF ‘for the purpose of specialist response to a threatening disaster situation or disaster’.
Analysis
The Cabinet Secretary chaired the NCMC on 26 October 2026 to review preparedness for Cyclone Arnab; the Union Home Secretary attended, with Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
Concept note
The Disaster Management Act, 2005 (Act 53 of 2005, dated 23 December 2005) is the legal frame for India’s response to disasters. Section 3 sets up the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), with the Prime Minister as Chairperson ex officio.
Section 44 provides for the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF), and section 45 vests its command in a Director General. The Disaster Management (Amendment) Act, 2025, which received assent on 29 March 2025, inserted section 8A.
It gives statutory footing to the National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) that the Government of India had already constituted, and makes it the nodal body ‘to deal with the major disasters which have serious or national ramifications’. Section 8A(2) makes the Cabinet Secretary its Chairperson, and the committee coordinates ministries, the armed forces and the States.
The trap to avoid: the NDMA is chaired by the Prime Minister and the NCMC by the Cabinet Secretary, a civil servant, not a Minister. For Cyclone Arnab, the NCMC’s review was attended by the Union Home Secretary and the NDMA, and the Cabinet Secretary directed that ‘the objective should be to ensure zero loss of life and minimise damage to property and infrastructure’.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 disaster and disaster management; GS2 statutory bodies and Centre-State coordination ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** crisis coordination, statutory footing, zero loss of life, cooperative federalism in disasters ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** thinking the NCMC was created in 2025; section 8A adopts a committee that already existed ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NDMA: section 3, Prime Minister. NCMC: section 8A, Cabinet Secretary. NDRF: section 44 ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why should a civil servant, not a Minister, chair the committee that coordinates the response to a cyclone? |
Question 2 of 12
1 A storm surge is the rise of sea water above the astronomical tide, while the storm tide is the actual water level, that is, the tide plus the surge.
2 In the India Meteorological Department’s warning ladder, a Pre-Cyclone Watch is issued 72 hours before adverse weather begins, a Cyclone Alert generally 48 hours before and a Cyclone Warning generally 24 hours before.
3 Yanam, on the coast beside Kakinada, is part of the State of Andhra Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The surge is the rise above the astronomical tide, and the storm tide is the tide plus the surge.
Statement 2Correct
This is IMD’s warning ladder, from Pre-Cyclone Watch (72 hours) to Cyclone Alert (generally 48 hours) and Cyclone Warning (generally 24 hours).
Statement 3Incorrect
Yanam is part of the Union Territory of Puducherry; IMD writes ‘Yanam (Puducherry UT)’, which is why its warnings name the ‘Andhra Pradesh & Yanam coasts’.
Analysis
IMD’s bulletin of 26 October 2026 said Cyclone Arnab was likely to cross the coast between Bapatla and Visakhapatnam, close to Yanam, as a very severe cyclonic storm by the forenoon of 28 October, with a storm surge of 1.0 to 1.5 m above the astronomical tide.
Concept note
Cyclones in the north Indian Ocean are named by the Regional Specialised Meteorological Centre (RSMC), New Delhi, once their winds reach 34 knots, the cyclonic storm stage; naming in the region began in September 2004. The current list, adopted by the WMO/ESCAP Panel member countries in April 2020, holds 13 names from each of 13 countries, used column by column; a name is never used twice and has eight letters at most.
‘Arnab’, pronounced ‘Ornab’, is Bangladesh’s entry in column 3 of the list. IMD’s rainfall terms are also examinable: heavy to very heavy rain means 7 to 20 cm, and extremely heavy rain means 21 cm or more.
On the map, the forecast landfall stretch runs from south to north through Bapatla (15.9° N), Machilipatnam (16.2° N), Yanam (16.7° N), Kakinada (17.0° N) and Visakhapatnam (17.7° N). Yanam’s status as part of a Union Territory explains why Puducherry sat in the national crisis review with four States.
IMD’s forecast placed the maximum peak surge over east Godavari district, near Kakinada, and Yanam.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 important geophysical phenomena (cyclones) and physical geography of the east coast; GS3 disaster management ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** storm surge, early warning ladder, landfall, coastal vulnerability ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** treating Yanam as part of Andhra Pradesh; it belongs to the Union Territory of Puducherry ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Watch 72 hours, Alert 48 hours, Warning 24 hours; surge above the tide, storm tide equals tide plus surge ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What saves more lives in a cyclone: an early warning, or the evacuation and shelters that must follow it? |
Question 3 of 12
1 The Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989 are amended by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, while the National Policy on Biofuels, 2018 was notified by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
2 The National Policy on Biofuels, 2018 classes second-generation (2G) ethanol as a 'basic' biofuel.
3 A flex-fuel vehicle runs on a range of ethanol-petrol blends from a single fuel tank, with engine controls that adjust automatically to the fuel.
4 A vehicle compatible with E20 fuel is, for that reason alone, suitable for E85.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The vehicle rules are MoRTH’s, and MoPNG notified the biofuel policy in June 2018.
Statement 2Incorrect
The policy classes first-generation (1G) bioethanol as a ‘basic’ biofuel and 2G ethanol as an ‘advanced’ biofuel.
Statement 3Correct
That is the definition of a flex-fuel vehicle.
Statement 4Incorrect
The Ministry says compatibility with E10 or E20 alone does not establish that a vehicle is suitable for E85.
Analysis
MoRTH’s amendment to the CMV Rules, announced through PIB on 26 October 2026, makes the emission certification provisions expressly include E100 alongside E85; only vehicles specifically designed and certified for these fuels are covered.
Concept note
In fuel names, E stands for ethanol and the number for its share by volume: E20 is petrol with 20 per cent ethanol, E85 holds up to 85 per cent ethanol, and E100 is a fuel consisting predominantly of ethanol. An electrified flex-fuel vehicle (FFV-SHEV) pairs a flex-fuel engine with an electric powertrain.
High blends need purpose-built vehicles: ethanol holds less energy per litre (the US Department of Energy estimate, cited by IE, is about 30% less energy per gallon for E100), and it can affect certain metals, plastics and rubber seals. Its high-octane rating, on the other hand, helps resist engine knocking.
The policy timeline matters: the 2022 amendment advanced the E20 target to ESY 2025-26 from 2030; from April 2026 all petrol sold in India must be E20 with a minimum Research Octane Number of 95; and E85 fuel was launched on 5 June 2026 at 48 public sector oil marketing company outlets. MoPNG plans 500 E85 outlets by December 2026 and about 5,000 by December 2027; these are targets, not results.
Owners of existing vehicles are not required to switch fuel or modify their vehicles, ‘either at present or in the future’.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 energy security and infrastructure; GS3 environment (cleaner fuels); GS2 delegated legislation (Rules versus an Act) ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** ethanol blending, energy security, food-fuel trade-off, vehicle certification, consumer protection ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** assuming an E20-ready vehicle can take E85; E85 and E100 are only for vehicles designed and certified for them ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Vehicle rules: MoRTH (CMV Rules, 1989). Biofuel policy: MoPNG (2018). 1G is basic, 2G is advanced ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Ethanol saves imported crude but uses cane, grain and water. How would you balance energy security against food and water security? |
Question 4 of 12
1 The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting sought the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India’s recommendations on the subject under Section 11(1)(a) of the TRAI Act, 1997.
2 TRAI’s recommendations on ALTD bind service providers from the date TRAI releases them.
3 TRAI has recommended an authorisation fee and a bank guarantee for ALTD providers.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The MIB sought the recommendations under Section 11(1)(a) of the TRAI Act, 1997, on Free Ad-Supported Streaming Television (FAST) services.
Statement 2Incorrect
These are recommendations; TRAI says the terms should be notified as Rules under Section 56 of the Telecommunications Act, 2023, which is for the Government to do.
Statement 3Incorrect
TRAI recommended an application processing fee of ₹10,000 and a one-time entry fee of ₹1 lakh, ‘with no authorisation fee, bank guarantee or security deposit’.
Analysis
TRAI released the recommendations on 26 October 2026. It proposes ALTD as a distinct sub-category under Television Channel Distribution Services, within the broadcasting authorisation framework under Section 3(1)(a) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
Concept note
TRAI’s role in this case is to recommend; the Government decides. The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (MIB) made its reference on 15 December 2025, on Free Ad-Supported Streaming Television (FAST) services.
TRAI then issued a consultation paper on 6 April 2026, received 207 comments and 11 counter-comments, and held an Open House on 10 June 2026. Its recommendations propose that application-based linear TV be a distinct sub-category under Television Channel Distribution Services, inside the broadcasting authorisation framework of Section 3(1)(a) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
The proposed terms are a national service area, an initial validity of 20 years renewable for successive periods of 10 years, a processing fee of ₹10,000 and an entry fee of ₹1 lakh, with no authorisation fee, bank guarantee or security deposit. TRAI also proposes that the MIB maintain a ‘Master ALTD app repository’, that device makers and operating system providers make only authorised ALTD applications available, and that ALTD viewership be integrated under the TV Ratings Policy, 2026.
Remember the sequence: reference, consultation, recommendation, and then notification of Rules by the Government under Section 56.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 regulatory bodies and statutory frameworks; GS3 communication networks and media ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** light-touch authorisation, regulatory parity, recommendation versus rule-making, digital broadcasting ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** treating a TRAI recommendation as binding; it binds only after the Government notifies Rules ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Reference under Section 11(1)(a), TRAI Act, 1997; authorisation under Section 3(1)(a) and Rules under Section 56, Telecommunications Act, 2023 ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should streaming channels that look like television be regulated like television? What would light-touch regulation look like? |
Question 5 of 12
1. Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE) : Its survey period at present runs from April to March
2. Annual Survey of Incorporated Services Sector Enterprises (ASISSE) : Covers incorporated services sector enterprises
3. Mega project in MoSPI’s monitoring of central sector infrastructure projects : Cost of ₹1,000 crore and above
4. PAIMANA-CRIP : Central Repository of Infrastructure Projects
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Pair 1Incorrect
ASUSE now follows the calendar year (January to December); MoSPI has only proposed that ASUSE 2027-28 run from April 2027 to March 2028, ‘aligning the survey period with the financial year’.
Pair 2Correct
ASISSE covers incorporated services sector enterprises, while ASUSE covers unincorporated sector enterprises.
Pair 3Correct
Mega projects cost ₹1,000 crore and above, and Major projects less than that.
Pair 4Correct
PAIMANA-CRIP is the Central Repository of Infrastructure Projects, launched by MoSPI in July 2026.
Analysis
MoSPI made the ASUSE proposal on 26 October 2026 and invited comments by 15 November 2026.
Concept note
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has conducted ASUSE since 2021-22, and its findings also appear in the Quarterly Bulletin of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (QBUSE). The proposal would move ASUSE from the calendar year to the financial year, as in other enterprise surveys such as the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) and ASISSE; MoSPI says this helps the National Accounts.
There would be no gap: the January to March 2027 quarter would still be surveyed on the existing ASUSE 2026 schedule. New questions are proposed on the gender-specific constraints of female entrepreneurs, asked ‘for the first time’, on sources of electricity and on investment in fixed assets.
MoSPI also tracks central sector infrastructure projects of ₹150 crore and above. Its flash report tracks 1,853 such projects worth ₹37.56 lakh crore as of September 2026, 780 of them Mega and 1,073 Major, across 17 central ministries and departments; the Buxar Thermal Power Project (1,320 MW) was commissioned during September.
The monitoring interface earlier called PAIMANA is now PAIMANA-PROJ, alongside PAIMANA-CRIP. Until MoSPI takes a final decision, the financial-year schedule remains a proposal.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 Indian economy (informal sector, infrastructure); GS2 government data systems and transparency ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** unincorporated sector, data for policy, National Accounts, project monitoring, cost and time overruns ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** confusing ASUSE (unincorporated sector) with ASISSE (incorporated services sector) ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Mega project: ₹1,000 crore and above; projects of ₹150 crore and above are tracked ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why does the informal sector matter so much for India’s GDP estimates, and why is it so hard to measure? |
Question 6 of 12
1 The Restatement of Values of Judicial Life was adopted by the Full Court of the Supreme Court and is not a statute enacted by Parliament.
2 The Restatement says a judge shall not express his views in public on matters that are pending or are likely to arise for judicial determination.
3 Article 121 bars discussion in Parliament of a judge’s conduct in the discharge of duties, except on a motion for removal.
4 Article 50, which asks the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State, is a Directive Principle of State Policy.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Supreme Court’s Full Court adopted the Restatement on 7 May 1997; it is an in-house code, and the Law Commission (Report 195) only recommended that it serve as the code of conduct until a statutory code is made.
Statement 2Correct
This is clause 8.
Statement 3Correct
Article 121 allows such discussion only on a removal motion.
Statement 4Correct
Article 50 is a Directive Principle.
Analysis
A Text & Context column in The Hindu of 26 October 2026 asks where judicial restraint should begin, after a debate over remarks by a sitting Supreme Court judge on voter deletions.
Concept note
Clause 8 of the Restatement reads: ‘A Judge shall not enter into public debate or express his views in public on political matters or on matters that are pending or are likely to arise for judicial determination.’ Clause 1 says justice ‘must not merely be done but it must also be seen to be done’, and clause 9 says: ‘A Judge is expected to let his judgments speak for themselves. He shall not give interview to the media.’ The Law Commission (Report 195) described the Restatement as ‘not meant to be exhaustive but illustrative’ and recommended that its breach be treated as ‘misbehaviour’.
Accountability runs through three channels. Removal under Article 124(4) needs an address by each House of Parliament, by a special majority, on ‘proved misbehaviour or incapacity’.
Article 121 bars discussion of a judge’s conduct in Parliament except on such a motion. And the in-house procedure, adopted by the Full Court on 15 December 1999, deals with complaints against judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Article 50, a Directive Principle, frames the larger value: ‘The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.’
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 structure, organisation and functioning of the judiciary; GS4 codes of conduct and probity ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** judicial independence, judicial accountability, in-house procedure, separation of powers ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** calling the Restatement a law; it is an in-house code adopted by the Full Court ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Restatement 7 May 1997; in-house procedure 15 December 1999; Article 50 is a DPSP; Article 121 bars debate on a judge’s conduct ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should judges speak in public at all? Where would you draw the line between explaining the law and taking a side? |
Question 7 of 12
Statement-I: Under the Bangalore Principles of Judicial Conduct, a judge may write, lecture and teach on the law, the legal system and the administration of justice.
Statement-II: The Bangalore Principles bar a judge from making any public comment on any matter pending in any court.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Principle 4.11 lets a judge ‘write, lecture, teach and participate in activities concerning the law, the legal system, the administration of justice or related matters’.
Statement IIIncorrect
Principle 2.4 is narrower; a judge shall not knowingly, while a proceeding is before or could come before the judge, make ‘any comment that might reasonably be expected to affect the outcome of such proceeding or impair the manifest fairness of the process’. Its second sentence adds that a judge shall not ‘make any comment in public or otherwise that might affect the fair trial of any person or issue’.
Both limbs turn on the effect of a comment; neither bars every comment on a pending matter.
Analysis
The UNODC Commentary on the Bangalore Principles appeared in September 2007. India’s own Restatement of 1997 uses broader words in its clause 8.
Concept note
The Bangalore Principles of Judicial Conduct, with the UNODC Commentary of September 2007, are the main international benchmark for judicial ethics. They draw a calibrated line.
Principle 2.4 restrains comment that might reasonably be expected to affect the outcome of a proceeding that is before, or could come before, the judge, or impair the manifest fairness of the process, and any public comment that might affect the fair trial of any person or issue. Principle 4.11 positively allows a judge to write, lecture, teach and take part in activities concerning the law, the legal system and the administration of justice.
Read together, the two principles let a judge explain an issue while avoiding the appearance of having already answered it. India’s Restatement of Values of Judicial Life (1997) is broader: clause 8 bars public views on political matters and on matters pending or likely to arise for judicial determination, and clause 9 says a judge should let judgments speak for themselves and give no interviews to the media.
Clause 1 states the value underneath both: justice must not merely be done but must also be seen to be done. The ethical question is about how justice is seen as much as how it is done.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS4 ethics in public institutions, codes of conduct; GS2 judiciary ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** impartiality, propriety, extra-judicial speech, appearance of bias, recusal ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** reading Bangalore 2.4 as a total ban on speech; it restrains comment that might affect a proceeding, its fairness or a fair trial ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 2.4 restrains prejudicial comment; 4.11 permits writing, lecturing and teaching on law ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** If a judge speaks at a university on voting rights, when does education become pre-judgment? |
Question 8 of 12
Statement-I: A person who files a special leave petition in the Supreme Court has no right to have the appeal heard; the petition only asks the Court for leave to appeal.
Statement-II: Under Article 136, the Supreme Court 'may, in its discretion, grant special leave to appeal' from any court or tribunal in India, except those under laws relating to the Armed Forces.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
A special leave petition is a request for leave, not an appeal as of right; the petitioner has no right to be heard, only a right to ask.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
Because Article 136 makes the grant of special leave a matter of the Court’s discretion, a petitioner can only seek it.
Analysis
An Explained piece in The Indian Express of 26 October 2026 asks whether more judges can clear the Supreme Court’s backlog, and argues for a filter on special leave petitions; 92,101 cases were pending on 1 January 2026.
Concept note
Article 136(1) reads: ‘Notwithstanding anything in this Chapter, the Supreme Court may, in its discretion, grant special leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order in any cause or matter passed or made by any court or tribunal in the territory of India.’ Clause (2) excludes courts and tribunals constituted by or under a law relating to the Armed Forces. The power reaches any court or tribunal, not only High Courts, and it is discretionary.
Appeals under Articles 132 to 134 lie mainly when the High Court certifies the case under Article 134A, though two kinds of death-sentence cases need no certificate. Article 32 guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
The Court’s size is set by Parliament: Article 124(1) provides for judges ‘until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number’, and the sanctioned strength rose from 34 to 38, including the Chief Justice, with effect from 16 May 2026. In Mathai @ Joby v George (2010), a two-judge Bench warned that the Court had been ‘converted practically into an ordinary appellate Court’; in January 2016 a five-judge Bench declined to restrict the power.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 Supreme Court: jurisdiction, pendency, judicial reforms ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** special leave, docket explosion, access to justice, discretionary jurisdiction, judicial capacity ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** treating an SLP as an appeal as of right; the Court first decides whether to grant leave at all ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 136(2) excludes Armed Forces courts and tribunals; Article 134A is the certificate route ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the Supreme Court hear fewer cases so that it can decide the important ones better? Who loses if it does? |
Question 9 of 12
1 Under the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) scheme, phosphatic and potassic fertilisers get a fixed subsidy per kg of nutrient, and companies fix their MRP.
2 Urea is covered under the NBS scheme.
3 The N:P:K ratio of 4:2:1 is a statutory norm for fertiliser use.
4 The Soil Health Card reports on 12 parameters, including pH, electrical conductivity and organic carbon.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
NBS, in force since 1 April 2010, gives P&K fertilisers a fixed subsidy per kg of nutrient, and companies fix the MRP.
Statement 2Incorrect
Urea stays outside NBS; it is sold at a statutorily notified MRP of Rs 242 per 45 kg bag, excluding neem-coating charges and taxes, unchanged since 1 March 2018.
Statement 3Incorrect
4:2:1 is a widely quoted benchmark, not a statutory norm, and ICAR holds that no single ideal ratio fits the whole country.
Statement 4Correct
The card covers macro-nutrients, micro-nutrients, and pH, electrical conductivity and organic carbon.
Analysis
In a Rajya Sabha reply of 24 March 2026, the Government put the national N:P:K ratio at about 9.8:3.7:1.
Concept note
Nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P) and potassium (K) are the three main fertiliser nutrients. Urea supplies nitrogen; DAP (di-ammonium phosphate) is a phosphatic fertiliser and MOP (muriate of potash) a potassic one.
India runs two pricing regimes: urea at a fixed, statutorily notified MRP, and P&K fertilisers under NBS, where the subsidy is fixed per kg of nutrient and companies set the price. The Soil Health Card, launched on 19 February 2015 from Suratgarh, Rajasthan, reports 12 parameters: N, P, K and sulphur (macro-nutrients); zinc, iron, copper, manganese and boron (micro-nutrients); and pH, electrical conductivity and organic carbon.
PM-PRANAM (PM Programme for Restoration, Awareness Generation, Nourishment and Amelioration of Mother-Earth), approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs on 28 June 2023, gives a State or UT that uses less chemical fertiliser than its previous three-year average a grant of 50 per cent of the subsidy saved; 95 per cent goes to the State or UT. Excess nitrogen matters for the environment: nitrous oxide has a global warming potential 273 times that of carbon dioxide over 100 years (IPCC AR6), and nitrate above the BIS limit of 45 mg per litre carries the risk of ‘blue baby syndrome’ (methemoglobinemia).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 agriculture: input subsidies, soil health; GS3 environment (nitrous oxide, groundwater nitrate) ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** nutrient imbalance, price distortion, balanced fertilisation, soil organic carbon, subsidy rationalisation ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** assuming urea is under NBS; NBS covers only P&K fertilisers ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NBS since 1 April 2010; urea MRP Rs 242 per 45 kg bag; Soil Health Card has 12 parameters ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the price of urea rise to correct the nutrient imbalance? If so, how would you protect the farmer’s income? |
Question 10 of 12
1 It is conducted by the Labour Bureau.
2 It covers only persons in the age group of 15 to 59 years.
3 It records each person’s activities over the 24 hours starting at midnight.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
The survey is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) of MoSPI, ‘to measure participation of men and women in paid and unpaid activities’.
Statement 2Incorrect
It covers every household member aged 6 and above; 15 to 59 is only an age band used in analysing the results.
Statement 3Incorrect
The 24 hours run from 4:00 AM the previous day to 4:00 AM on the day of the interview, in half-hour slots.
Analysis
Two all-India rounds have been held, in 2019 and 2024. In 2024, 41 per cent of women aged 15-59 took part in caregiving for household members, against 21.4 per cent of men.
Concept note
The Time Use Survey captures what labour surveys miss: unpaid caregiving, unpaid domestic services and volunteer work, as well as learning, socialising, leisure and self-care. Every household member aged 6 and above reports what they did in each half-hour of the 24 hours from 4:00 AM the previous day.
In the 2024 round, activities were coded to ICATUS 2016, the International Classification of Activities for Time Use Statistics, endorsed by the UN Statistical Commission in March 2017. The two all-India rounds covered 2019 and 2024; the 2024 report, Time Use in India, 2024, came out on 28 March 2025.
The participation rate is the share of persons who did an activity during the day, while time per participant counts only those who did it. The official results show paid work rising from a low base: women aged 15-59 taking part in employment and related activities rose from 21.8 per cent in 2019 to 25 per cent in 2024, and men from 70.9 to 75 per cent; women who took part in caregiving spent about 140 minutes a day on it, men 74.
State free-bus schemes for women include Karnataka’s Shakti (11 June 2023) and Telangana’s Mahalakshmi (9 December 2023).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 role of women and social empowerment; GS2 welfare schemes for vulnerable sections; GS3 inclusive growth ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** unpaid care work, time poverty, female labour force participation, gender budgeting, mobility ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** confusing the participation rate with time per participant ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NSO, MoSPI; aged 6 and above; half-hour slots from 4:00 AM; ICATUS 2016 ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Free bus travel for women is called a freebie by some and an investment by others. Which is it, and how would you measure it? |
Question 11 of 12
Zokhawthar is an Indo-Myanmar border trading town in Mizoram, one of the locations of Operation Trident. The tempting distractor is Manipur, which figured in the same operation: its location there was Churachandpur, while the Assam leg was the Cachar transit corridor.
Analysis
Operation Trident, led by the Narcotics Control Bureau, mobilised 38 multi-agency teams across 38 pre-identified locations in Assam, Mizoram and Manipur, the Ministry of Home Affairs said on 25 October 2026.
Concept note
Zokhawthar is a trading town on Mizoram’s border with Myanmar, and it was one of the 38 locations of Operation Trident. The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) led the operation in the early hours of 23 October 2026, working with the Mizoram Police and the Enforcement Directorate (ED).
The Ministry of Home Affairs said ‘38 multi-agency composite teams were mobilised concurrently across 38 pre-identified locations’ in Assam, Mizoram and Manipur, among them Aizawl, Champhai, Zokhawthar, Churachandpur in Manipur and the Cachar transit corridor in Assam. PIB placed the operation in line with the Vision Document on Narcotics Control (2026-2029) and a ‘shift from a seizure-centric to a network-centric and financial disruption approach’.
The idea matters for Mains: a seizure removes one consignment, while following the money and the people behind it aims at the network that sends the next one; the ED’s part in the operation fits that financial approach. The Home Minister spoke of the goal of ‘eradicating every drug network by 31 December 2029’.
For the map, place Zokhawthar in Mizoram on the India-Myanmar border and Churachandpur in Manipur, and remember that Cachar, the transit corridor named in the operation, is in Assam.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 security challenges in border areas, organised crime and drug trafficking; GS1 map of the Northeast ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** drug trafficking networks, network-centric enforcement, border management, financial disruption ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** placing Zokhawthar in Manipur; it is in Mizoram ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Zokhawthar: Mizoram, on the India-Myanmar border ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How do you choke a drug network without choking the border trade that the local economy depends on? |
Question 12 of 12
The eight Dialogue Partners of the ADMM-Plus are India, the US, China, Russia, Japan, South Korea, Australia and New Zealand. Canada is not among them. Each of the other options, New Zealand, South Korea and Russia, is a Dialogue Partner, so an aspirant who misses Russia or New Zealand on the list falls for the distractor.
Analysis
The 13th ADMM-Plus is scheduled in Cebu, the Philippines, on 28 and 29 October 2026; Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh will lead the Indian delegation, PIB said.
Concept note
The ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting (ADMM) is, in PIB’s words, ‘the highest defence consultative and cooperative mechanism in ASEAN’. The ADMM-Plus brings in its eight Dialogue Partners: India, the United States, China, Russia, Japan, South Korea, Australia and New Zealand.
The inaugural ADMM-Plus was held in Hanoi on 12 October 2010, and its ministers have met every year since 2017. The Philippines chairs the ADMM-Plus for 2026, and the 13th meeting is scheduled in Cebu, the Philippines, on 28 and 29 October, with Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh leading the Indian delegation.
India co-chairs the Experts Working Group on Counter-Terrorism with Malaysia for the 2024-2027 cycle, which gives it a working role inside the forum and not only a seat at the ministers’ table. Exam questions on groupings usually test membership, so learn the eight Dialogue Partners as a set and check each option against it.
A distractor will often be a country that sounds plausible but is not on the list, such as Canada, or a grouping such as the European Union. Remember also the three numbers in this item: eight partners, a first meeting in 2010, and annual meetings since 2017.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 regional groupings and India’s Act East Policy; GS3 security cooperation ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** ASEAN centrality, defence diplomacy, counter-terrorism cooperation, Indo-Pacific security ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** adding Canada or the EU to the ADMM-Plus; it has exactly eight Dialogue Partners ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** ADMM-Plus: ASEAN plus eight; first meeting in Hanoi, 2010; annual since 2017 ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What does India gain from a defence forum that ASEAN chairs and that China also attends? |
Performance
Question-wise Result