UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 23 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
13 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 13
1 The Governor is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
2 Before entering office, the Governor makes an oath or affirmation in the presence of the Chief Justice of India.
3 The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 155 says ‘The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.’
Statement 2Incorrect
Under Article 159, the oath or affirmation is made in the presence of the Chief Justice of the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to the State or, in his absence, the senior most Judge of that Court available, not the Chief Justice of India.
Statement 3Correct
Article 156(1) says ‘The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.’
Analysis
A State’s new Governor was sworn in on 23 October 2026, and the oath was administered by the Chief Justice of the State’s High Court, as Article 159 provides. The usual trap is to name the Chief Justice of India; for a Governor, Article 159 points to the State’s own High Court.
Concept note
Three Articles frame a Governor’s entry into office. Article 155 provides that ‘The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.’ Article 156(1) makes the tenure one held ‘during the pleasure of the President’.
Article 159 fixes the oath: before entering office, the Governor makes an oath or affirmation in the presence of the Chief Justice of the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to the State or, in his absence, the senior most Judge of that Court available. Appointments are announced by a communique of the President’s Secretariat.
The communique behind the latest change said the appointments ‘will take effect from the dates they will assume charge of their respective offices’, so the date of appointment and the date of taking charge can differ, and an aspirant should keep the two apart. For Mains, the pleasure clause in Article 156(1) is the starting point for any discussion of the Governor’s independence and of Centre-State relations, and the oath under Article 159 ties the office to the State’s own High Court.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 Constitution (the executive in the States), GS2 Centre-State relations ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** pleasure clause, Article 155, Article 156(1), Article 159 oath ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** naming the Chief Justice of India for a Governor’s oath; Article 159 names the Chief Justice of the State’s High Court ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** memorise the trio: Article 155 appointment, Article 156 term, Article 159 oath ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should a Governor’s tenure depend on the pleasure of the President? |
Question 2 of 13
1 The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is compiled by the Office of the Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.
2 In the IIP series with base year 2022-23, mining and quarrying carries the largest weight.
3 The industries covered by the Index of Core Industries together carry more than half of the weight in the IIP.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
The IIP is compiled by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI); it is the Index of Core Industries (ICI) that the Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA), DPIIT, compiles.
Statement 2Incorrect
Manufacturing carries 76.062 of the new IIP’s 100 weight points; mining and quarrying is one of its four sectors.
Statement 3Incorrect
In the new series the nine core industries have a combined weight of 32.88 per cent in the IIP; the figure of about 40 per cent belonged to the 2011-12 series.
Analysis
The Hindu’s editorial of 23 October 2026, ‘Canary in the coal mine’, reads the September 2026 core-sector data as an early warning for industry. The ICI is a lead indicator: it comes out on the 20th of the following month, about ten days before the IIP, but it covers only about a third of the IIP’s weight.
Concept note
India measures industry in three ways, and the exam tests which body runs which. The IIP is a monthly index of industrial output compiled by MoSPI.
Its new series, with base year 2022-23 (earlier 2011-12), was first released in June 2026 and has four sectors: mining and quarrying; manufacturing; electricity and gas supply; and water supply, sewerage and waste management. Manufacturing carries 76.062 of its 100 weight points.
The ICI is ‘a monthly production volume index’ of key infrastructure industries, compiled by the OEA in DPIIT. Its new series has nine industries, iron ore having been added, with a combined weight of 32.88 per cent in the IIP.
Within the ICI the largest weights are electricity (30.932), refinery products (22.572) and steel (17.584). Gross Value Added (GVA), estimated each quarter by MoSPI’s National Statistics Office, tracks value added, while the two indices track output.
Because the ICI comes about ten days before the IIP, it is read as an early signal, but it covers only about a third of the IIP’s weight.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 Indian economy (growth and industrial output), GS3 infrastructure ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** lead indicator, base-year revision, core sector, industrial slowdown ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** crediting the OEA with the IIP or MoSPI with the ICI; MoSPI compiles the IIP, the OEA in DPIIT compiles the ICI ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** new series: IIP base 2022-23 with four sectors; ICI with nine industries weighing 32.88 per cent of the IIP; electricity is the heaviest ICI component ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is a core-sector slowdown a reliable early warning for the whole economy? |
Question 3 of 13
1 The Prasar Bharati (Broadcasting Corporation of India) Act, 1990 provides for a Parliamentary Committee of 22 Members of Parliament, 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha.
2 The Chairman of the Prasar Bharati Board is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
3 The Act places no limit on the grounds on which the Central Government may issue directions to the Corporation.
4 In the Cricket Association of Bengal case, the Supreme Court held that the airwaves are public property.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 13 provides for a Parliamentary Committee of 22 MPs, 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha, elected by single transferable vote.
Statement 2Correct
Under Section 4, the President appoints on the recommendation of a committee of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the Chairman of the Press Council of India and a nominee of the President.
Statement 3Incorrect
Section 23 allows directions only in the interests of the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, the security of the State or the preservation of public order, and each direction is laid before each House of Parliament.
Statement 4Correct
In Secretary, Ministry of Information and Broadcasting vs Cricket Association of Bengal (9 February 1995), the Court held that ‘The airwaves or frequencies are a public property’.
Analysis
Writing in The Hindu on 23 October 2026, Suhas Borker argues that Prasar Bharati is not a public service broadcaster. Parliament’s Standing Committee on Information Technology recorded on 10 December 2010 that Sections 10, 11, 13 and 14 ‘were never implemented’; their present-day status is the author’s claim, not an official record.
Concept note
Prasar Bharati is India’s public service broadcaster, in existence since 23 November 1997, with Akashvani (All India Radio) and Doordarshan as its constituents; it also operates DD Freedish. It was set up under the Prasar Bharati (Broadcasting Corporation of India) Act, 1990 (Act No. 25 of 1990), which came into force on 15 September 1997, and has its headquarters in New Delhi.
Section 12 sets its duty: to organise and conduct public broadcasting services ‘to inform, educate and entertain the public’. Its Board has a Chairman, an Executive Member who is the Chief Executive, Members for Finance and Personnel, six part-time members, the two Directors-General, a Ministry nominee and two elected staff representatives.
The Act builds in oversight: a Parliamentary Committee (Section 13), a Broadcasting Council to consider complaints (Sections 14 and 15) and Recruitment Boards (Section 10). The idea of an autonomous broadcaster goes back to the Working Group chaired by B.G. Verghese, which reported on 24 February 1978 and recommended an ‘Akash Bharti’, or National Broadcasting Trust.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 statutory bodies, GS2 media and the restrictions under Article 19(2) ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** public service broadcasting, autonomy, airwaves as public property, parliamentary oversight ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** reading Section 23 as an open power over content; it is limited to three grounds, and every direction goes before Parliament ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 4 committee: Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, Chairman of the Press Council of India and a nominee of the President ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can a broadcaster funded by the government be truly autonomous? |
Question 4 of 13
Statement-I: When the delivered cost of urea rises, the price a farmer pays for it stays unchanged and the subsidy grows.
Statement-II: Urea is sold at a statutorily notified Maximum Retail Price, and the Government pays manufacturers and importers the difference between the delivered cost and the market realisation as subsidy.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
A farmer buys neem-coated urea at a fixed MRP of Rs 242 per 45 kg bag, excluding neem-coating charges and taxes, so a rise in cost does not change the farmer’s price.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
Because the MRP is notified by statute, the Government pays the gap between the delivered cost and the market realisation, and that gap is the subsidy; so when costs rise, the subsidy grows.
Analysis
The tempting confusion is with phosphatic and potassic (P&K) fertilisers such as DAP. Under the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) scheme, in force since 1 April 2010, the subsidy is fixed per nutrient and companies set the MRP under government oversight, so there the subsidy, not the price, is the fixed element. Harish Damodaran argues in The Indian Express of 23 October 2026 that Indian agriculture faces a polycrisis; the column’s figures are his.
Concept note
Fertiliser subsidy in India runs on two different designs, and the difference is a common Prelims trap. For urea, the price is fixed: farmers buy at a statutorily notified Maximum Retail Price of Rs 242 per 45 kg bag of neem-coated urea, excluding neem-coating charges and taxes, and the Government pays manufacturers and importers the difference between the delivered cost and the market realisation as subsidy.
When costs rise, the farmer’s price stays put and the subsidy grows. For phosphatic and potassic fertilisers such as DAP, the subsidy is fixed: under the Nutrient Based Subsidy scheme, in force since 1 April 2010, the Government gives a fixed subsidy, revised annually or biannually, linked to the content of nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium and sulphur in each grade, and companies set the MRP at reasonable levels under government oversight.
Twenty-eight grades were covered in the Kharif 2026 round (1 April to 30 September 2026). For Mains, the two designs explain why a global price shock lands on the exchequer for urea, while for P&K fertilisers it depends on how far the fixed subsidy is revised.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 agriculture (input subsidies), GS3 Indian economy (subsidies and fiscal policy) ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** fixed MRP, Nutrient Based Subsidy, subsidy burden, balanced fertiliser use ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** thinking DAP has a fixed MRP like urea; under NBS the subsidy is fixed and the companies set the MRP ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** urea: price fixed, subsidy varies; P&K under NBS since 1 April 2010: subsidy fixed, price set by companies ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should urea be brought under the Nutrient Based Subsidy scheme? |
Question 5 of 13
1 Under Section 6(1), the Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the process of recognising forest rights.
2 Section 3(1)(e) recognises rights including community tenures of habitat and habitation for primitive tribal groups and pre-agricultural communities.
3 The Act recognises the forest rights of Scheduled Tribes only, and not those of other traditional forest dwellers.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 6(1) says ‘The Gram Sabha shall be the authority to initiate the process’.
Statement 2Correct
Section 3(1)(e) recognises ‘rights including community tenures of habitat and habitation for primitive tribal groups and pre-agricultural communities’.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Act covers both Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers, as its full name says.
Analysis
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs held the Third Regional Review Conference on the Act in Srinagar on 23 October 2026, concluding its regional review series. Habitat rights have so far been recognised for only 11 of the country’s 75 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), and States were urged to expedite them.
Concept note
The Forest Rights Act (FRA), in full the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, covers two groups: Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers. Its process begins in the village: Section 6(1) says ‘The Gram Sabha shall be the authority to initiate the process’.
Among the rights the Act recognises, Section 3(1)(e) provides for ‘rights including community tenures of habitat and habitation for primitive tribal groups and pre-agricultural communities’, the basis of habitat rights for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). Progress on these has been slow: habitat rights have been recognised for only 11 of the country’s 75 PVTGs, and guidelines on PVTG habitat rights are dated 5 January 2026.
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs reviewed implementation in three regional conferences: Bengaluru on 10 September 2026, Kolkata on 9 October 2026 and Srinagar on 23 October 2026. For Mains, link the Gram Sabha’s role under Section 6(1) to tribal self-governance, and PVTG habitat rights to the protection of the most vulnerable tribal groups.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 welfare of vulnerable sections (Scheduled Tribes), GS1 tribal society, GS3 forest conservation ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Gram Sabha, habitat rights, PVTGs, community tenure ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** thinking the FRA covers only Scheduled Tribes; it covers other traditional forest dwellers too ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 6(1): the Gram Sabha initiates the process; Section 3(1)(e): habitat rights for primitive tribal groups ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why have habitat rights reached so few PVTGs two decades after the Act? |
Question 6 of 13
1 The Emissions Gap Report is an annual report of the United Nations Environment Programme, published since 2010.
2 The Fund for responding to Loss and Damage was both agreed and operationalised at COP28 in Dubai.
3 India’s updated Nationally Determined Contribution sets a target of reducing the emissions intensity of its GDP by 47 per cent by 2035 from the 2005 level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Emissions Gap Report is UNEP’s annual report, published since 2010, co-produced with the UNEP Copenhagen Climate Centre (UNEP-CCC) and partners and launched every year ahead of the COP.
Statement 2Incorrect
The Fund was agreed at COP27 (2022, Egypt) and operationalised at COP28 (2023, Dubai).
Statement 3Correct
India’s NDC for 2031-2035, approved by the Union Cabinet on 25 March 2026, targets a 47 per cent cut in the emissions intensity of GDP by 2035 from the 2005 level; it is an intensity target, not a cut in absolute emissions.
Analysis
The 2026 report, The Point of Return, is the seventeenth edition. It puts the cuts needed, relative to 2025, at 18, 45 and 69 per cent by 2030, 2035 and 2040, while full NDCs deliver only 5-8 per cent by 2030 and 11-15 per cent by 2035. COP31 will be held in Antalya, Türkiye, from 9 to 20 November 2026.
Concept note
The Emissions Gap Report, published by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) every year since 2010, measures the gap between where global greenhouse gas emissions are heading if countries carry out their climate pledges and where they should be to avoid the worst impacts of climate change. It is launched ahead of each UN Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP) to inform the negotiations, and is co-produced by UNEP, the UNEP Copenhagen Climate Centre and partners.
The pledges it assesses are Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs): each country’s own climate pledge under the Paris Agreement, whose goal is to limit warming to well below 2°C and to pursue 1.5°C. India’s NDC for 2031-2035 targets a 47 per cent cut in the emissions intensity of GDP by 2035 from the 2005 level, 60 per cent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil sources by 2035, and a carbon sink of 3.5 to 4.0 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through forest and tree cover by 2035, in line with net zero by 2070. Watch the base year: the 2026 report measures cuts against 2025 levels, not 2019.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 environment (climate change and international agreements), GS2 international institutions ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** emissions gap, overshoot, NDC ambition, climate finance ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** reading India’s 47 per cent as a cut in absolute emissions; it is a cut in the emissions intensity of GDP ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Loss and Damage Fund: agreed at COP27 (Egypt), operationalised at COP28 (Dubai); COP31 will be held in Antalya, Türkiye ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is an intensity target a fair pledge for a developing country, or a way to avoid absolute cuts? |
Question 7 of 13
1 It applies, mutatis mutandis, to medical devices as well.
2 An appeal against the decision of an industry association’s Ethics Committee lies with an Apex Committee headed by the Secretary, Department of Pharmaceuticals.
3 It was issued by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
4 A company’s Chief Executive Officer is responsible for its compliance with the Code.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Code applies, mutatis mutandis, to medical devices.
Statement 2Correct
Appeals go to the Apex Committee for Pharma Marketing Practices (ACPMP), headed by the Secretary, Department of Pharmaceuticals (DoP), with a Joint Secretary and a Finance Officer; its decision is ‘final and binding on both the parties’.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Code is issued by the DoP, which is part of the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, not the Health Ministry.
Statement 4Correct
A company’s Chief Executive Officer is responsible for compliance and files a self-declaration within two months of the end of each financial year.
Analysis
PIB announced on 23 October 2026 that the DoP has constituted a three-member committee, chaired by Dr M. Srinivas, Member, NITI Aayog, to examine the regulatory framework governing pharmaceutical marketing practices and recommend measures to curb unethical practices.
Concept note
Two sets of rules govern the meeting point of drug companies and doctors. For doctors, clause 6.8 of the Indian Medical Council (Professional Conduct, Etiquette and Ethics) Regulations, 2002 says ‘A medical practitioner shall not receive any gift from any pharmaceutical or allied health care industry and their sales people or representatives’, and also covers travel, hospitality and cash or monetary grants.
For companies, the Department of Pharmaceuticals issued the Uniform Code for Pharmaceutical Marketing Practices, first in 2015 as ‘a voluntary, industry-led self-regulatory mechanism’, and then as UCPMP 2024, which superseded the 2015 version and is currently in operation. The 2024 Code bars gifts, travel, hospitality and cash grants to healthcare professionals and their families.
Complaints go to the Ethics Committee for Pharma Marketing Practices of each industry association, chaired by its Chief Executive Officer, which should decide within 90 days. Penalties include suspension or expulsion from the association, a published reprimand, a corrective statement or recovery of the money or items given; statutory action goes to the agency concerned through the Department of Pharmaceuticals.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 health governance, GS4 conflict of interest in professional relationships ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** self-regulation, conflict of interest, quasi-fiduciary relationship, ethical marketing ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** placing pharmaceuticals under the Health Ministry; the Department of Pharmaceuticals is in the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** two tiers: the association’s Ethics Committee (90 days), then the Apex Committee under the Secretary, DoP (six months) ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can a code enforced through industry associations curb unethical drug promotion? |
Question 8 of 13
Facts
The PLFS is run by the National Statistics Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), and has been since 2017. The tempting distractor is the Labour Bureau, because the survey is about labour; but the PLFS is the NSO’s survey.
Analysis
On 23 October 2026 the NSO proposed to modify the PLFS sampling design from January 2027, when fresh samples for the two-year period 2027-2028 are drawn. The design was last revamped from January 2025 to give monthly, quarterly and annual estimates.
Concept note
Labour statistics are among the most quoted numbers in Mains answers, so the source matters. The PLFS has been run by the NSO in MoSPI since 2017.
Its sampling design was revamped from January 2025 to give monthly, quarterly and annual estimates, and information on digital platform workers, ‘a subset of gig workers’, has been collected on an experimental basis since January 2026. MoSPI also compiles the Index of Industrial Production, and its NSO estimates Gross Value Added each quarter.
The NSO has now proposed a new sampling design from January 2027, when fresh samples for the two-year period 2027-2028 are drawn; it remains a proposal until it is adopted. When an answer quotes an unemployment figure, it should name the survey, the kind of estimate (monthly, quarterly or annual) and the period it covers.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 Indian economy (employment), GS2 government policies on labour ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** labour force, unemployment rate, gig and platform workers, statistical system ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** crediting the PLFS to the Labour Bureau or NITI Aayog; it is the NSO’s survey in MoSPI ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** PLFS since 2017; revamped from January 2025 for monthly, quarterly and annual estimates ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should India count gig and platform workers in its labour statistics? |
Question 9 of 13
1 India’s Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) was promulgated at the East Asia Summit.
2 MAHASAGAR stands for Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions.
3 INDRA is a bilateral naval exercise series between India and France.
4 The Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue is the Indian Navy’s annual apex-level international outreach conference.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
India’s Prime Minister promulgated the IPOI at the 14th East Asia Summit in Bangkok in November 2019.
Statement 2Correct
MAHASAGAR is Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions, and the IPOI is said to provide ‘first-order specificity’ to that maritime vision.
Statement 3Incorrect
INDRA is the naval exercise series between the Indian Navy and the Russian Federation Navy, which began in 2003.
Statement 4Correct
The Indian Navy conducts the IPRD as its annual apex-level international outreach conference.
Analysis
INS Sahyadri departed Vladivostok on 20 October 2026 after INDRA 2026, and the Navy will conduct IPRD-2026 at the Manekshaw Centre, New Delhi, on 3, 4 and 5 November 2026, with the National Maritime Foundation as knowledge partner.
Concept note
India’s maritime outreach in the Indo-Pacific rests on a vision, an initiative and a set of platforms. The vision is MAHASAGAR, Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions.
The initiative is the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative, promulgated by India’s Prime Minister at the 14th East Asia Summit in Bangkok in November 2019; the official release says it ‘provides first-order specificity to India’s maritime vision of MAHASAGAR’. The platforms include the Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue, the Indian Navy’s annual apex-level international outreach conference, with the National Maritime Foundation as knowledge partner and principal organiser.
Its 2026 theme is ‘Science, Technology and Academic Cooperation in the Indo-Pacific’, and experts from 18 countries will take part. Bilateral exercises are the operational side.
INDRA, the series between the Indian Navy and the Russian Federation Navy since 2003, had a harbour phase and a sea phase in its 2026 edition; the sea phase covered coordinated manoeuvring, integrated communications, helicopter operations and medical evacuation drills.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 India and the Indo-Pacific, bilateral relations; GS3 maritime security ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Indo-Pacific, MAHASAGAR, naval diplomacy, maritime cooperation ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** pairing INDRA with France or another partner; INDRA is the India-Russia naval series ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** IPOI: 14th East Asia Summit, Bangkok, November 2019 ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can India hold naval exercises with Russia and still deepen its Indo-Pacific partnerships? |
Question 10 of 13
Statement-I: The East India Company took over Kittur under the Doctrine of Lapse only after Lord Dalhousie made the doctrine official in 1848.
Statement-II: Under the Doctrine of Lapse, a princely state would be annexed if its ruler died without a male heir.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement IIncorrect
According to a PIB feature on Rani Chennamma, Kittur was taken over in 1824 by imposing the doctrine ‘even before it was officially articulated by Lord Dalhousie’; the PIB feature on Rani Chennamma says Dalhousie ‘merely made it official in 1848’.
Statement IICorrect
Under the doctrine, a princely state would be annexed automatically if the ruler was either manifestly incompetent or died without a male heir. In Kittur, the East India Company refused to accept Rani Chennamma’s adopted heir, Shivalingappa.
Analysis
The birth anniversary of Kittur Rani Chennamma and the 202nd Victory Celebration, marking the victory of 23 October 1824 against British rule, were commemorated at Prerana Sthal in the Parliament premises, New Delhi, on 23 October 2026.
Concept note
Chennamma, the queen of Kitturu, was born in Kakati, in today’s Belagavi district of Karnataka, and married Raja Mallasarja of the Desai family. After her son died in 1824, she adopted Shivalingappa and made him heir.
The British East India Company did not accept this under the Doctrine of Lapse, under which a princely state would be annexed if its ruler was manifestly incompetent or died without a male heir. Kittur was taken over in 1824 by imposing the doctrine even before Lord Dalhousie officially articulated it; in the words of a PIB feature of 2016, Dalhousie ‘merely made it official in 1848’.
In the first battle, in October 1824, British forces lost heavily, and the Collector and political agent, St. John Thackeray, was killed by the Kitturu forces. Chennamma was ultimately captured and imprisoned at Bailhongal Fort, where she died on 21 February 1829.
Her lieutenants included Sangolli Rayanna and Gurusiddappa. For Prelims, keep the doctrine’s application to Kittur in 1824 apart from Dalhousie’s formal policy of 1848.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 modern Indian history (expansion of British power and early resistance), GS1 women in the freedom struggle ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Doctrine of Lapse, princely states, annexation, early resistance ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** dating the Doctrine of Lapse only from Dalhousie; it was imposed on Kittur in 1824 ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Kittur: taken over in 1824; St. John Thackeray killed in October 1824; Chennamma died at Bailhongal Fort on 21 February 1829 ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why are early resistances like Kittur’s less known than the revolt of 1857? |
Question 11 of 13
1 The Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) was constituted by a Government of India notification after its announcement in a Union Budget, and replaced the High Level Coordination Committee on Financial Markets.
2 The FSDC Sub-Committee is chaired by the Union Finance Secretary.
3 The Computer Security Incident Response Team-Finance Sector (CSIRT-Fin) functions as a unit of CERT-In within the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
4 The Department of Financial Services works as the Secretariat of the FSDC.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Announced in the Union Budget 2010-11, the FSDC was constituted by a Government of India notification dated 30 December 2010 and replaced the High Level Coordination Committee on Financial Markets (HLCCFM).
Statement 2Incorrect
The FSDC Sub-Committee is chaired by the Governor, Reserve Bank of India.
Statement 3Correct
CSIRT-Fin was set up on 15 May 2020 as a unit of CERT-In within MeitY; CERT-In calls it ‘a nodal sectoral CSIRT’.
Statement 4Incorrect
The Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) works as the FSDC’s Secretariat, and no funds are separately allocated to the Council.
Analysis
The Union Finance Minister chaired the 30th FSDC meeting on 23 October 2026, which reviewed the cyber resilience of the Indian financial sector and took note of the Financial Sector Cyber Security Strategy formulated by an Inter-Ministerial Group.
Concept note
The FSDC is an apex-level council of the Union government and India’s financial sector regulators. It was announced in the Union Budget 2010-11, constituted by a Government of India notification dated 30 December 2010, held its first meeting on 31 December 2010, and replaced the High Level Coordination Committee on Financial Markets.
The Union Finance Minister chairs it; members include the Minister of State for Finance, the heads of the financial sector regulators and the Secretaries of the relevant Ministries and Departments. Its remit covers financial stability, financial sector development, inter-regulatory coordination, financial literacy, financial inclusion and macro-prudential supervision of the economy, including the functioning of large financial conglomerates.
The Budget speech set it up ‘Without prejudice to the autonomy of regulators’, so it coordinates rather than commands. On cyber security, CERT-In serves under Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 as ‘the national agency for performing the following functions in the area of cyber security’, and CSIRT-Fin is its sectoral unit for the financial sector.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 Indian economy (financial sector regulation), GS3 internal security (cyber security) ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** financial stability, inter-regulatory coordination, macro-prudential supervision, cyber resilience ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** assuming the Finance Ministry chairs every tier; the Finance Minister chairs the Council, but the RBI Governor chairs its Sub-Committee ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** FSDC Secretariat: Department of Economic Affairs; CERT-In: Section 70B of the IT Act; CSIRT-Fin: set up on 15 May 2020 ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can a coordinating council secure a financial sector whose regulators keep their autonomy? |
Question 12 of 13
1 The Civil Defence Act, 1968 extends to the whole of India.
2 Disaster management was added as a role of Civil Defence by an amendment to the Act in 2009.
3 The Directorate General of Fire Services, Civil Defence & Home Guards functions under the Ministry of Defence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Civil Defence Act, 1968 (Act 27 of 1968) extends to the whole of India and authorised the raising of Civil Defence Corps.
Statement 2Correct
The Civil Defence (Amendment) Act, 2009 added disaster management as an additional role.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Directorate General of Fire Services, Civil Defence & Home Guards (DGFSCDHG) is under the Ministry of Home Affairs; the Indian Army is its partner in the new training pilot.
Analysis
PIB said on 23 October 2026 that the DGFSCDHG and the Indian Army are undertaking ‘a first-of-its-kind pilot initiative’ to train Civil Defence Master Trainers: 600 trainers, 50 from each of 12 States/UTs, are proposed to be trained by the second week of November 2026 through a three-day programme at Indian Army training establishments.
Concept note
According to the DGFSCDHG, the Chinese aggression of 1962 and the Indo-Pak conflict of 1965 led to a re-think of Civil Defence policy, and Parliament passed the Civil Defence Act, 1968 (Act 27 of 1968) in May 1968. The Act extends to the whole of India and authorised the raising of Civil Defence Corps.
The Civil Defence (Amendment) Act, 2009 added disaster management as an additional role. Civil Defence ‘is primarily organised on voluntary basis’.
The Directorate General of Fire Services, Civil Defence & Home Guards is under the Ministry of Home Affairs. The new pilot follows the Prime Minister’s Independence Day address from the Red Fort on 15 August 2026, in which, PIB says, he ‘announced the vision of building a vibrant Civil Defence network’.
Under the pilot, Master Trainers from 12 States and UTs will go through a three-day programme at designated Indian Army training establishments. For Mains, Civil Defence links internal security with disaster management: a largely voluntary body, set up by law after the wars of the 1960s, that the 2009 amendment gave a disaster role.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 disaster management, GS3 internal security ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** community preparedness, volunteer force, civil-military coordination, disaster response ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** placing Civil Defence under the Ministry of Defence; the DGFSCDHG is under the Ministry of Home Affairs ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Civil Defence Act, 1968 (Act 27 of 1968); disaster management role added by the Civil Defence (Amendment) Act, 2009 ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should Civil Defence remain voluntary, or become a trained reserve with defined duties? |
Question 13 of 13
Statement-I: The Ganga Waters Treaty between India and Bangladesh shares the flow of the Ganga at Farakka during the lean season by 10-day periods.
Statement-II: Under the treaty, if the flow at Farakka falls below 50,000 cusecs in any 10-day period, the two governments enter into immediate consultations.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The treaty, signed in New Delhi on 12 December 1996, shares the flow at Farakka from 1 January to 31 May by 10-day periods.
Statement IICorrectDoes not explain Statement I
The 50,000 cusecs clause is a low-flow trigger for consultations; it does not explain why the lean-season flow is shared by 10-day periods.
Analysis
The treaty runs 30 years from signature, to 12 December 2026, and is ‘renewable on the basis of mutual consent’. Writing in The Hindu on 23 October 2026, Mohammed Ayoob argues that India and Bangladesh are tied by geography but divided by politics. The two countries share 54 common rivers, handled through the Joint Rivers Commission set up in June 1972.
Concept note
India and Bangladesh share a 4,096.7 km border and 54 common rivers, and a set of agreements manages both. The Joint Rivers Commission, set up in June 1972, is the bilateral river mechanism.
The Ganga Waters Treaty, signed in New Delhi on 12 December 1996, shares the Ganga’s flow at Farakka from 1 January to 31 May by 10-day periods; if the flow falls below 50,000 cusecs in any 10-day period, the two governments enter into immediate consultations. It runs 30 years from signature and is renewable on the basis of mutual consent.
On the Teesta, a draft interim sharing agreement was agreed in January 2011 but was not concluded as of the Joint Statement of 27 March 2021. On land, the Land Boundary Agreement of 16 May 1974 and its Protocol of 6 September 2011 led, after Parliament passed the Constitution (One Hundredth Amendment) Bill, 2015, to the exchange on 31 July 2015 of 111 Indian enclaves in Bangladesh for 51 Bangladeshi enclaves in India.
Of the border, 3,232.218 km was fenced by February 2025.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 India and its neighbourhood, GS1 river systems (the Ganga basin) ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** water diplomacy, lean-season flow, treaty renewal, Joint Rivers Commission ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** treating the treaty as permanent; it runs 30 years and is renewable on the basis of mutual consent ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Ganga Waters Treaty: signed in New Delhi on 12 December 1996; shares the flow at Farakka from 1 January to 31 May ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What should India seek in a renewed Ganga Waters Treaty? |
Performance
Question-wise Result