Monthly Prelims Practice
July 2026
Question Bank with Full Solutions & Explanations
🎯 Monthly Prelims Question Bank
July 2026: Monthly Prelims Practice
Polity & Governance
Consider the following statements: 1. The number of judges of the Supreme Court, other than the Chief Justice, is fixed by Parliament by law. 2. As originally enacted, the Constitution provided for a Chief Justice and not more than seven other judges. 3. An ordinance ceases to operate at the expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament unless disapproved earlier. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
All three are correct. (1) Article 124(1) lets Parliament prescribe a larger number of judges by law, which it does through the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956. (2) The original Article 124(1) provided for the CJI and not more than seven other judges. (3) Under Article 123(2), an ordinance ceases to operate six weeks after Parliament reassembles, or earlier if both Houses disapprove it. ANALYSIS: In July 2026 the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026 was introduced to raise the number of judges other than the CJI from 33 to 37, replacing an ordinance of May 16, 2026; Parliament passed it in August.
📌 Strength of the Supreme Court: 8 (1950), 11 (1956), 14 (1960), 18 (1978), 26 (1986), 31 (2009), 34 (2019), 38 (2026). A Constitution Bench needs at least five judges (Article 145(3)).
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A Union Minister can be removed from office even while the Council of Ministers enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha. Statement-II: Under Article 75(2), Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President, which is exercised on the advice of the Prime Minister. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Both are correct and II explains I. Collective responsibility to the Lok Sabha (Article 75(3)) decides whether the government as a whole survives, but an individual Minister holds office during the President's pleasure (Article 75(2)), exercised on the Prime Minister's advice, so a Minister can be dropped or asked to resign while the government stays in office. This is the constitutional basis of individual ministerial responsibility. ANALYSIS: The Education Minister's resignation on July 25, 2026, after the NEET-UG leak, revived the debate on individual responsibility.
📌 Precedents of resignation on individual responsibility: Lal Bahadur Shastri (Ariyalur rail accident, 1956) and Nitish Kumar (Gaisal rail disaster, 1999).
With reference to the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, consider the following statements: 1. Offences under the Act are cognisable, non-bailable and non-compoundable. 2. The Act covers examinations conducted by the UPSC, the Staff Selection Commission and the National Testing Agency. 3. The Act treats candidates appearing in an examination as the principal targets of its penal provisions. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
Statements 1 and 2 are correct; 3 is incorrect. The 2024 Act makes its offences cognisable, non-bailable and non-compoundable, and covers the UPSC, SSC, Railway Recruitment Boards, IBPS, the NTA and central departments. It is aimed at organised networks, service providers and insiders; bona fide candidates are not its targets. ANALYSIS: The amendment passed by Parliament on July 29 and 30, 2026 raised the punishment for a person using unfair means to 5 to 10 years and a fine of up to Rs 50 lakh, and set a minimum of 7 years and a fine of at least Rs 10 crore for organised crime.
📌 Education is in the Concurrent List (Entry 25), moved there by the 42nd Amendment (1976); police and public order are State subjects.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 protects the National Flag and the Constitution of India. 2. Article 51A(a) names the National Song along with the National Flag and the National Anthem. 3. On 24 January 1950 the Constituent Assembly adopted Jana Gana Mana as the National Anthem and accorded equal status to Vande Mataram. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 2 and 3 only
- C 1 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The 1971 Act protects the National Flag, the Constitution and the singing of the National Anthem. Article 51A(a) asks citizens to respect the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem; it does not name the National Song, so 2 is wrong. The Constituent Assembly's declaration of 24 January 1950 gave Vande Mataram equal status with the Anthem. ANALYSIS: In July 2026 Parliament passed an amendment extending the 1971 Act's protection to Vande Mataram.
📌 Vande Mataram: written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, published in Bangadarshan (1875) and in Anandamath (1882). Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala (1986): standing respectfully without singing does not violate the law.
Consider the following statements: 1. Article 22(1) gives an arrested person the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest. 2. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860. 3. A Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court must consist of at least seven judges. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
Only statement 1 is correct. The BNSS replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973; the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita replaced the IPC, so 2 is wrong. Article 145(3) requires a minimum of five judges for a substantial question of constitutional interpretation, so 3 is wrong. ANALYSIS: In July 2026 the Supreme Court indicated it might refer to a larger bench whether written grounds of arrest must be given in every case (see Pankaj Bansal, 2023, and Prabir Purkayastha, 2024).
📌 The three new criminal laws (BNS, BNSS and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam) came into force on 1 July 2024. Section 356 BNSS allows trial of an absconding proclaimed offender in absentia.
Consider the following statements: 1. Article 326 provides that elections to the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies shall be on the basis of adult suffrage. 2. The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 years by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment. 3. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 is the law that deals with the preparation of electoral rolls. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
Only statement 1 is correct. The voting age was lowered to 18 by the 61st Amendment Act, 1988, not the 42nd. Electoral rolls are governed by the Representation of the People Act, 1950; the 1951 Act deals with the conduct of elections. ANALYSIS: On July 17, 2026 the Supreme Court held, in the West Bengal Special Intensive Revision case, that deletion from the electoral roll is not loss of citizenship, since the ECI assesses citizenship only for preparing rolls.
📌 Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections, including preparation of rolls, in the Election Commission. Citizenship is governed by the Citizenship Act, 1955.
Consider the following pairs: 1. Article 83 : Duration of the Houses of Parliament 2. Article 172 : Duration of State Legislatures 3. Article 324 : Superintendence of elections vested in the Election Commission 4. Article 327 : Power of Parliament to make provision for elections to Legislatures How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C Only three
- D All four
All four pairs are correctly matched. The Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill, 2024 on simultaneous elections proposes a new Article 82A and amendments to Articles 83, 172 and 327. ANALYSIS: On July 29, 2026 the Lok Sabha extended the tenure of the Joint Parliamentary Committee examining the Bill to the last week of the Winter Session.
📌 Simultaneous elections were held in 1951-52, 1957, 1962 and 1967. The Kovind Committee (report March 2024) proposed a two-step synchronisation, with local bodies following within 100 days.
Economy & Development
Consider the following statements about the Viksit Bharat Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025: 1. It replaced the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005. 2. It was brought in by an executive notification rather than by an Act of Parliament. 3. It guarantees 125 days of wage employment to a rural household in a year. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. VB-G-RAM-G is a statute, the Viksit Bharat Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025, so 2 is wrong; like MGNREGA, it makes the guarantee a legal entitlement. ANALYSIS: The Act took effect on July 1, 2026, raising the guarantee from MGNREGA's 100 days to 125 days; work must be provided within 15 days of demand, failing which an unemployment allowance is due.
📌 MGNREGA was enacted in 2005 and came into force on 2 February 2006. A statutory guarantee lets a worker claim an unemployment allowance if work is not provided on time.
Consider the following statements about the Goods and Services Tax Council: 1. It is constituted under Article 279A of the Constitution. 2. The Centre's vote carries one-third of the weight of the votes cast, and the States together carry two-thirds. 3. A decision requires a simple majority of the weighted votes of members present and voting. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 2 and 3 only
- C 1 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Article 279A creates the Council, chaired by the Union Finance Minister; decisions need a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of members present and voting, so 3 is wrong. ANALYSIS: GST completed nine years on July 1, 2026; the 101st Amendment Act, 2016 introduced it, and GST 2.0 (2025) moved to two main slabs of 5 and 18 per cent plus a 40 per cent demerit rate.
📌 Article 246A gives the Centre and the States concurrent power to levy GST; Article 269A covers inter-State supply (IGST).
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: If CPI inflation rises from 3.9 per cent to 4.4 per cent in a month, the Reserve Bank of India has not failed its inflation target. Statement-II: The inflation target notified under the RBI Act, 1934 is 4 per cent with a tolerance band of plus or minus 2 per cent. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Both are correct and II explains I. The target is 4 per cent CPI inflation within a band of 2 to 6 per cent; the RBI is deemed to have failed only if average inflation stays outside the band for three consecutive quarters. ANALYSIS: CPI inflation for June 2026 was 4.38 per cent, above the 4 per cent midpoint for the first time in over a year but inside the band; the repo rate was 5.25 per cent.
📌 Flexible inflation targeting was put on a statutory footing by the 2016 amendment to the RBI Act (Section 45ZA). The Monetary Policy Committee has six members, three from the RBI.
With reference to the India-UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement and the accompanying Double Contribution Convention, consider the following statements: 1. A Double Contribution Convention exempts workers temporarily posted in the other country from paying that country's social-security contributions for a specified period. 2. The agreement gives Indian exports duty-free access on about 99 per cent of UK tariff lines. 3. India kept its dairy sector out of the tariff concessions. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
All three are correct. The DCC exempts Indian professionals on temporary UK postings from UK social-security contributions for up to five years. The CETA gives zero-duty access on about 99 per cent of UK tariff lines, while agriculture and dairy stay protected on the Indian side. ANALYSIS: Signed in London on July 24, 2025, the CETA and the DCC entered into force on July 15, 2026.
📌 Totalisation (social-security) agreements protect workers from paying contributions in two countries; India has such agreements with several European countries, Japan and others.
Under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the design, form and material of bank notes are:
- A decided by the Reserve Bank's Central Board alone
- B prescribed by Parliament by law
- C notified by the Ministry of Finance without reference to the Reserve Bank
- D approved by the Central Government after considering the recommendations of the Reserve Bank's Central Board
Section 25 of the RBI Act provides that the design, form and material of bank notes shall be approved by the Central Government after considering the recommendations of the Central Board. ANALYSIS: In July 2026 the government approved an RBI field trial of polymer notes, 1 billion notes each in the Rs 10 and Rs 20 denominations, with paper notes continuing alongside.
📌 Section 22 of the RBI Act gives the RBI the sole right to issue bank notes; one-rupee notes and coins are issued by the Government of India.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India is headquartered in Mumbai. 2. IRDAI was established under the Insurance Act, 1938. 3. The foreign direct investment limit in insurance companies was raised to 49 per cent in 2021. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
None is correct. IRDAI is headquartered in Hyderabad. It was established under the IRDA Act, 1999 (the Insurance Act, 1938 is the principal law it administers). The FDI cap rose to 49 per cent in 2015 and to 74 per cent in 2021; 100 per cent was later permitted. ANALYSIS: In July 2026 Aviva agreed to buy the remaining 26 per cent of its Indian joint venture, set to become India's first fully foreign-owned life insurer.
📌 Insurance penetration in India is about 4 per cent of GDP. The sector goal is "Insurance for All by 2047".
International Relations
Consider the following statements about BIMSTEC: 1. It was set up through the Bangkok Declaration of 1997. 2. Its permanent Secretariat is in Dhaka. 3. Nepal and Bhutan are members. 4. Its Charter, which gives it legal personality, entered into force in 2024. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C Only three
- D All four
All four are correct. BIMSTEC has seven members: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand. The Charter entered into force on 20 May 2024, and the grouping works through seven sectors, one led by each member, with India leading security. ANALYSIS: On July 16, 2026 NSA Ajit Doval chaired the 5th meeting of BIMSTEC National Security Chiefs in New Delhi.
📌 BIMSTEC links the Neighbourhood First and Act East policies. The 6th BIMSTEC Summit was held in Bangkok in April 2025.
With reference to the WTO Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies, consider the following statements: 1. It prohibits subsidies to illegal, unreported and unregulated fishing. 2. It entered into force in 2022. 3. The WTO Ministerial Conference, which adopted it, normally meets once every four years. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
Only statement 1 is correct. The Agreement was adopted at the 12th Ministerial Conference in Geneva in 2022 but entered into force on 15 September 2025, after two-thirds of members accepted it. The Ministerial Conference meets at least once every two years. ANALYSIS: India deposited its instrument of acceptance on July 20, 2026.
📌 The Agreement also bars subsidies for fishing overfished stocks and for fishing on the unregulated high seas; developing countries get special and differential treatment.
Consider the following statements: 1. The 2016 South China Sea award was delivered by an arbitral tribunal constituted under Annex VII of UNCLOS. 2. The Permanent Court of Arbitration at The Hague served as the registry in that case. 3. The United States has ratified UNCLOS. 4. The exclusive economic zone extends up to 200 nautical miles from the baselines. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C Only three
- D All four
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. The United States has signed the 1994 Agreement on Part XI but has not ratified UNCLOS, so 3 is wrong. The tribunal in Philippines v. China held that China's nine-dash line and claims of historic rights had no legal basis. ANALYSIS: July 12, 2026 marked ten years of the award; at the EAS Foreign Ministers' meeting in Manila, India backed a legally binding Code of Conduct consistent with UNCLOS.
📌 UNCLOS: adopted 1982, in force 1994. Territorial sea 12 nm; contiguous zone 24 nm; EEZ 200 nm. India ratified UNCLOS in 1995.
The Strait of Hormuz connects:
- A the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman
- B the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden
- C the Gulf of Aden and the Arabian Sea
- D the Caspian Sea and the Persian Gulf
The Strait of Hormuz lies between Iran to the north and Oman's Musandam exclave and the UAE to the south, linking the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea. The Bab-el-Mandeb joins the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden. ANALYSIS: Fresh US strikes near Bandar Abbas and Kish on July 29, 2026 choked traffic through the Strait again, exposing India's crude and LNG imports.
📌 About a fifth of global oil trade passes through Hormuz. India holds strategic petroleum reserves at Visakhapatnam, Mangaluru and Padur.
Consider the following statements: 1. India received a waiver from the Nuclear Suppliers Group in 2008. 2. India is a signatory to the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons. 3. The International Atomic Energy Agency is headquartered in Geneva. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
Only statement 1 is correct. India has never signed the NPT, and the IAEA is headquartered in Vienna. The 2008 NSG waiver opened civil nuclear trade with India. ANALYSIS: In July 2026 India and Australia signed an Administrative Arrangement operationalising uranium supply under their 2014 civil nuclear agreement, while the US and Saudi Arabia signed a civil nuclear deal without an enrichment renunciation.
📌 NPT: opened for signature 1968, in force 1970. The NSG was formed in 1974 after India's first nuclear test.
Environment & Ecology
Consider the following pairs of species and their IUCN Red List status: 1. Great Indian Bustard : Critically Endangered 2. Greater one-horned rhinoceros : Vulnerable 3. Pygmy hog : Vulnerable 4. Snow leopard : Endangered How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C Only three
- D All four
Pairs 1 and 2 are correct. The pygmy hog is Endangered, and the snow leopard was moved from Endangered to Vulnerable in 2017. ANALYSIS: In July 2026 the NBWL Standing Committee discussed including the pygmy hog in the Species Recovery Programme and a rhino strategy built on the RhoDIS DNA database, and three captive-bred bustard chicks entered India's first rewilding tunnel at Ramdevra, Jaisalmer.
📌 All four are in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. The pygmy hog, the world's smallest wild pig, survives mainly in the Manas grasslands of Assam.
Consider the following statements: 1. Biodiversity Heritage Sites are declared by State Governments under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. 2. Biodiversity Management Committees are constituted by local bodies. 3. The National Biodiversity Authority is headquartered in Chennai. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 2 and 3 only
- C 1 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct. Section 37 of the Act lets a State Government, in consultation with local bodies, notify areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites. The Act sets up a three-tier structure: the NBA (Chennai), State Biodiversity Boards and local Biodiversity Management Committees. ANALYSIS: In July 2026 Assam's Borjuli habitat of wild rice (Oryza rufipogon) became India's first Biodiversity Heritage Site dedicated to wild rice.
📌 Oryza rufipogon is the wild progenitor of cultivated rice, a gene pool for pest and flood tolerance.
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Western Ghats are both a global biodiversity hotspot and a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Statement-II: Eco-Sensitive Areas in the Western Ghats are notified under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I is correct; Statement-II is incorrect. The Western Ghats (with Sri Lanka) form a biodiversity hotspot and were inscribed as a World Heritage Site in 2012. Eco-Sensitive Areas are notified by the Centre under Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. ANALYSIS: On July 27, 2026 MoEFCC issued its seventh draft notification, proposing 56,825.7 sq km across six States as the Western Ghats ESA.
📌 The Gadgil panel (2011) treated the whole range as ecologically sensitive; the Kasturirangan panel (2013) proposed about 37 per cent.
Science & Technology
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: HFO-1234yf is replacing HFC-134a as the refrigerant in vehicle air-conditioning. Statement-II: HFO-1234yf has a far lower global warming potential than HFC-134a. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Both are correct and II explains I. HFC-134a has a GWP of about 1,430; HFO-1234yf's is in single digits, and neither depletes ozone. The switch is driven by the HFC phase-down under the Kigali Amendment. ANALYSIS: In July 2026 CSIR-IICT, Hyderabad, announced India's first indigenous process technology to make HFO-1234yf.
📌 Montreal Protocol (1987); Kigali Amendment (2016), ratified by India in 2021, with India's HFC phase-down starting in 2032.
Consider the following statements: 1. Rabies is caused by a virus. 2. Anthrax is caused by a virus. 3. Leptospirosis is caused by a bacterium. 4. Japanese encephalitis is transmitted mainly by Aedes mosquitoes. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C Only three
- D All four
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Anthrax is caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis, and Japanese encephalitis is spread mainly by Culex mosquitoes, with pigs and water birds as hosts. ANALYSIS: On World Zoonoses Day (July 6, 2026) the NCDC's national priority list of zoonoses was led by zoonotic influenza, anthrax, Japanese encephalitis, leptospirosis and brucellosis.
📌 World Zoonoses Day marks Louis Pasteur's first successful rabies vaccination on 6 July 1885. India targets zero dog-mediated human rabies deaths by 2030.
Social Issues
Consider the following statements about dengue: 1. It is transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes. 2. The dengue virus has four serotypes. 3. A second infection with a different serotype generally carries a higher risk of severe dengue than a first infection. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
All three are correct. Antibody-dependent enhancement makes secondary infection with a different serotype more likely to cause dengue haemorrhagic fever or shock. ANALYSIS: In July 2026 an ICMR-linked study found all four serotypes co-circulating in at least eight States, a hyper-endemic pattern, and the regulator approved the Qdenga vaccine.
📌 Dengue control falls under the National Centre for Vector Borne Diseases Control; integrated vector management relies on source reduction.
Security & Defence
Consider the following pairs: 1. Astra : Beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile 2. Pinaka : Multi-barrel rocket launcher system 3. BrahMos : Subsonic cruise missile 4. Project Kusha : Long-range surface-to-air missile system How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C Only three
- D All four
Pairs 1, 2 and 4 are correct. BrahMos, an India-Russia joint venture named after the Brahmaputra and the Moskva, is a supersonic cruise missile of about Mach 3. ANALYSIS: In July 2026 Indonesia placed the first export order for the Astra Mk1, DRDO tested the Pinaka long-range guided rocket to 60 km, and Project Kusha had its maiden flight test.
📌 Astra is designed by DRDL and produced by Bharat Dynamics Limited. Pinaka is named after the bow of Shiva and developed by ARDE, Pune.
History, Art & Culture
Consider the following statements about Sarnath: 1. The Buddha delivered his first sermon here. 2. The Dhamek Stupa is located here. 3. The Lion Capital adopted as India's State Emblem was found here. 4. It lies near Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C Only three
- D All four
All four are correct. The first sermon, the Dhammacakkappavattana Sutta, set the Wheel of Dharma in motion. The Ashokan Lion Capital, of polished Chunar sandstone, is kept in the Sarnath Museum. ANALYSIS: On July 25, 2026 the World Heritage Committee, meeting in Busan, inscribed the Ancient Buddhist Site of Sarnath as India's 45th World Heritage property.
📌 The four great Buddhist sites: Lumbini (birth), Bodh Gaya (enlightenment), Sarnath (first sermon), Kushinagar (mahaparinirvana).
Consider the following statements about the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution: 1. Santhali was added by the 92nd Amendment. 2. Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment. 3. It originally listed 18 languages. 4. English is one of the languages in it. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C Only three
- D All four
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Schedule originally had 14 languages and now has 22; English is not among them. The 92nd Amendment (2003) added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali, and the 71st (1992) added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali. ANALYSIS: In July 2026 Shabdalok, a language museum, opened at the National Library in Kolkata, and Angen became the first Santhali film honoured in the Non-Feature section of the National Film Awards.
📌 Santhali is written in the Ol Chiki script, devised by Pandit Raghunath Murmu.
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw bombs in the Central Legislative Assembly in April 1929. Statement-II: The bombs were meant to kill members of the Assembly who had supported repressive Bills. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I is correct; Statement-II is incorrect. On 8 April 1929 the two threw low-intensity bombs into empty benches to protest the Public Safety Bill and the Trade Disputes Bill; the HSRA leaflet said the aim was "to make the deaf hear", not to kill. ANALYSIS: July 20, 2026 was the death anniversary of Batukeshwar Dutt (1965), and July 23 the birth anniversaries of Chandrashekhar Azad and Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
📌 The HRA was reorganised as the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association in 1928. Jatin Das died after a 63-day hunger strike in Lahore jail in 1929.
Geography
Consider the following statements: 1. El Nino is associated with warmer-than-normal sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific. 2. A positive Indian Ocean Dipole generally favours the Indian summer monsoon. 3. The Madden-Julian Oscillation moves westward across the tropics. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The MJO is an eastward-moving pulse of cloud and rainfall with a cycle of about 30 to 60 days, so 3 is wrong. ANALYSIS: June 2026 closed about 40 per cent below normal rainfall amid a strengthening El Nino, and the WMO's late-July update forecast a strong El Nino.
📌 The southwest monsoon brings about 75 per cent of India's annual rainfall; its normal onset over Kerala is around 1 June.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Brahmaputra is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibet. 2. It is known as the Jamuna in Bangladesh. 3. The Teesta joins the Brahmaputra (Jamuna) in Bangladesh. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 2 and 3 only
- C 1 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct. The Tsangpo enters India through Arunachal Pradesh as the Siang, becomes the Brahmaputra in Assam and, in Bangladesh, the Jamuna, which the Teesta joins. ANALYSIS: In July 2026 the Brahmaputra flooded parts of Kaziranga, and a methane burst in the tunnel of NHPC's Teesta Stage-VI project in Sikkim killed all 25 workers trapped inside.
📌 Kaziranga: National Park 1974, World Heritage Site 1985. The Teesta rises near Cho Lhamo in North Sikkim.
