UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 16 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
15 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 15
1 Under Article 16(4), the State may make provision for the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State.
2 According to the Supreme Court’s ruling on religious conversion and Article 16(4), a certificate issued by a Jamath that a person has embraced Islam conclusively determines that person’s Backward Class status.
3 Under paragraph 3 of the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950, as amended, a person professing Sikhism or Buddhism can be deemed a member of a Scheduled Caste.
4 The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 was made by the President under Article 342 of the Constitution.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
This is the text of Article 16(4), which speaks of ‘any backward class of citizens’ not adequately represented in the services under the State.
Statement 2Incorrect
The court held that ‘A Jamath may certify that a person has embraced Islam. However, it cannot, merely by issuing a testimonial, conclusively determine a statutory Backward Class status.’
Statement 3Correct
Paragraph 3 of the 1950 Order bars only a person who professes a religion different from the Hindu, the Sikh or the Buddhist religion; Sikhs were brought in by Act 63 of 1956 and Buddhists by Act 15 of 1990.
Statement 4Incorrect
The 1950 Order (S.R.O. 385) was made under Article 341(1).
Analysis
Article 16(4) is about public employment, while Article 15(4) is about special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes; Scheduled Caste status under the 1950 Order is a separate field again.
Concept note
The Supreme Court’s ruling on converts turned on Article 16(4), the clause that allows the State to reserve appointments or posts for a backward class of citizens that is not adequately represented in the services under the State. It is distinct from Article 15(4), which allows special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes and for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Scheduled Caste status is governed separately. The President made the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 (S.R.O. 385, dated 10 August 1950) under Article 341(1).
Its paragraph 3 says that no person who professes a religion different from the Hindu, the Sikh or the Buddhist religion shall be deemed a member of a Scheduled Caste. Sikhs were brought in by Act 63 of 1956 and Buddhists by Act 15 of 1990.
The bench cited paragraph 3 only in support, adding that it ‘operates specifically in the field of Scheduled Caste status and cannot, by itself, determine every question arising under Article 16(4)’. On certificates, the court held that a Jamath may certify a conversion but cannot conclusively decide Backward Class status.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (fundamental rights, reservation in public employment); GS1 (caste and religion in Indian society). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** backward class of citizens, adequate representation, Scheduled Castes Order 1950, Article 341. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating Article 16(4) and Article 15(4) as the same clause; 16(4) is about appointments or posts in State services. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** SC Order 1950, paragraph 3: Hindu from the start, Sikh added in 1956, Buddhist added in 1990. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should Scheduled Caste status depend on religion? State the law first, then weigh the arguments. |
Question 2 of 15
1. Soosai v. Union of India (1985) : Scheduled Caste status extended to converts to Christianity
2. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992) : Reservations under Article 16(4) should not exceed 50%
3. State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh (2024) : Sub-classification of Scheduled Castes struck down
4. Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) : Selection of the CEC and ECs by a committee of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition and a Union Cabinet Minister
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Incorrect
In Soosai (30 September 1985) an Adi-Dravida convert to Christianity challenged the 1950 Order, and the petitions were dismissed; showing that the caste continued after conversion was held not to be enough.
Pair 2Correct
Indra Sawhney (16 November 1992) held that ‘The reservations contemplated in Clause (4) of Article 16 should not exceed 50%’ and directed the Government of India to specify the basis for excluding the creamy layer.
Pair 3Incorrect
A seven-judge bench in Davinder Singh (1 August 2024) permitted sub-classification of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Pair 4Incorrect
Anoop Baranwal (2 March 2023) set an interim committee of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition and the Chief Justice of India; the Union Cabinet Minister in place of the Chief Justice comes from Section 7(1) of the 2023 Act.
Analysis
Each wrong pair turns on one swapped element: extended for denied, struck down for permitted, Cabinet Minister for Chief Justice.
Concept note
Two of this edition’s pieces lean on the same family of cases. The ruling on converts and Article 16(4) cited Soosai v. Union of India (1985), in which an Adi-Dravida convert to Christianity challenged the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 for deeming only Hindu or Sikh members of the listed castes to be Scheduled Castes; the petitions were dismissed.
Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992) held that reservations under Article 16(4) should not exceed 50% and directed the Government of India to specify the basis for excluding the creamy layer. State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh (2024), decided by a seven-judge bench, permitted sub-classification of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
On the Election Commission, a unanimous five-judge Constitution Bench in Anoop Baranwal v Union of India (2 March 2023) held that, until Parliament made a law, the CEC and ECs would be selected by a committee of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition and the Chief Justice of India. The 2023 Act is that law: under Section 7(1) the committee is the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (reservation jurisprudence; appointment to constitutional bodies). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** 50% ceiling, creamy layer, sub-classification, interim selection committee, Article 324(2). ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the Anoop Baranwal interim committee and the 2023 Act’s committee as the same; the Act replaced the Chief Justice with a Union Cabinet Minister. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Soosai 1985 (converts and the SC Order); Indra Sawhney 1992 (50%, creamy layer); Davinder Singh 2024 (sub-classification, seven judges); Anoop Baranwal 2023 (PM, LoP, CJI). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the judiciary have a say in selecting election commissioners? |
Question 3 of 15
1 India’s large merchandise trade deficit is partly offset by a surplus in its services trade.
2 The Foreign Trade Policy 2023 seeks to take India’s exports to US$ 2 trillion by 2030.
3 The Foreign Trade Policy 2023 has no end date and is to be revised as and when required.
4 India’s monthly trade data report exports other than petroleum products and gems and jewellery as a separate category.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
In April to September 2026-27 the merchandise trade deficit was US$ 177.64 billion and the services trade surplus US$ 102.71 billion.
Statement 2Correct
The Policy, announced on 31 March 2023, ‘seeks to take India’s exports to 2 trillion dollars by 2030’.
Statement 3Correct
It states, ‘Hereafter, the revisions of the FTP shall be done as and when required.’
Statement 4Correct
The Ministry’s release has a line for ‘Non-petroleum & Non-Gems & Jewellery exports’ (often called core exports), which stood at US$ 34.81 billion in September 2026 against US$ 28.53 billion a year earlier.
Analysis
Statement 3 is the one most likely to be marked wrong by habit; the 2023 Policy itself says it has no end date.
Concept note
India’s external trade has a familiar shape: a large merchandise deficit partly offset by a services surplus. In the first half of 2026-27 (April to September), total exports were US$ 476.20 billion (up 13.84%), merchandise exports US$ 259.89 billion (up 18.51%), the merchandise trade deficit US$ 177.64 billion and the services trade surplus US$ 102.71 billion.
In 2025-26, merchandise exports were US$ 441.78 billion, and total exports of goods and services were estimated at US$ 860.09 billion in the Ministry’s April 2026 release; a later figure given to Parliament put the total at about US$ 863.1 billion, a reminder that these numbers get revised. The policy frame is the Foreign Trade Policy 2023, announced on 31 March 2023.
Its four pillars are incentive to remission; export promotion through collaboration with exporters, States, districts and Indian Missions; ease of doing business, reduction in transaction cost and e-initiatives; and emerging areas. Commerce Secretary Rajesh Agrawal expressed the hope that merchandise exports would cross US$ 500 billion if the trend continued, The Hindu reported; that is a hope voiced at a briefing, not a government target.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (external sector, trade policy); GS2 (government policies and interventions). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** services surplus offset, export diversification, Foreign Trade Policy 2023, core exports. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the Commerce Secretary’s US$ 500 billion hope as a government target. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** FTP 2023: announced 31 March 2023; US$ 2 trillion of exports by 2030; no end date; four pillars. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can the services surplus keep offsetting the goods deficit if the oil import bill keeps rising? |
Question 4 of 15
Statement-I: In India’s provisional monthly trade data, the growth rate of total exports of goods and services can be much lower than the growth rate of merchandise exports for the same month.
Statement-II: When services exports fall while goods exports rise, the combined growth of total exports is pulled below the growth of goods exports.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
For September 2026 the Ministry of Commerce and Industry put total exports at US$ 80.75 billion, up 10.99%, while merchandise exports alone rose 23.04% to US$ 44.40 billion.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
On the Ministry’s estimate, services exports slipped from US$ 36.67 billion to US$ 36.35 billion, which pulled the combined growth well below the goods figure.
Analysis
Option (b) tempts those who see two true statements but miss that the services line is exactly the gap between the two growth rates. The services number is itself an estimate, since the RBI’s latest services data were for August 2026.
Concept note
India’s monthly trade release reports two kinds of trade. Merchandise (goods) figures come from trade data for the month; services figures depend on the Reserve Bank of India, so the latest month is always an estimate.
The Ministry noted: ‘The latest data for services sector released by RBI is for August 2026. The data for September 2026 is an estimation.’ In the September 2026 data, total exports were US$ 80.75 billion (up 10.99%) and total imports US$ 94.05 billion (up 8.19%), a combined trade deficit of US$ 13.30 billion.
Merchandise exports grew 23.04% to US$ 44.40 billion, led by electronic goods (up 70.44%), petroleum products (up 31.90%) and engineering goods (up 20.91%). The merchandise trade deficit narrowed year on year to US$ 30.21 billion from US$ 33.00 billion, helped by much smaller gold and silver imports, but The Hindu reported that it widened from US$ 26.86 billion in August 2026.
Year-on-year and month-on-month comparisons can therefore point in opposite directions, and the estimate for services will be revised once the RBI publishes its September numbers.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (external sector, balance of trade, effect of oil prices). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** merchandise trade, services surplus, provisional estimates, year on year, month on month. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Quoting 23.04% as India’s export growth; it is merchandise only, and the headline growth of total exports is 10.99%. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Trade balance is exports minus imports; always check whether a figure is goods, services or both. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Exports rose 23%, so why worry? Separate goods from total trade, then mention the services estimate and the oil bill. |
Question 5 of 15
1 It was adopted at Ramsar, Iran, in 1971.
2 Keoladeo National Park and Chilika were India’s first two Ramsar sites.
3 A wetland must meet at least three of the Ramsar criteria to be designated.
4 Under Criterion 5, a wetland qualifies if it regularly supports 20,000 or more waterbirds.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Convention was adopted on 2 February 1971 in Ramsar, Iran, and came into force in 1975.
Statement 2Correct
Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan) and Chilika (Odisha), both dated 1 October 1981, were India’s first two sites.
Statement 3Incorrect
A site needs to meet at least one criterion.
Statement 4Correct
Criterion 5 covers a wetland that ‘regularly supports 20,000 or more water birds’.
Analysis
Sauj Jheel’s regular count of more than 30,000 waterbirds is above the Criterion 5 mark; do not confuse it with Criterion 6, which is about 1% of the individuals in one waterbird population.
Concept note
The Convention on Wetlands was adopted on 2 February 1971 in Ramsar, Iran, and came into force in 1975; World Wetlands Day, 2 February, marks the adoption. Its aim is a framework for ‘the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources’.
The Convention entered into force for India on 1 February 1982, and India’s first two sites, Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan) and Chilika (Odisha), are both dated 1 October 1981. The Environment Ministry’s Lok Sabha reply of 20 July 2026 listed the criteria, of which a site needs to meet at least one: Criterion 1 for a representative, rare or unique wetland type; Criteria 2 to 4 for species and ecological communities, with Criterion 2 covering vulnerable, endangered or critically endangered species; Criteria 5 and 6 for waterbirds (20,000 or more regularly, or 1% of one population); and Criteria 7 and 8 for fish.
At home, wetlands are protected under the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017. India’s tally has reached 103 with Sukhna Wetland and Sauj Jheel, up from 26 sites in 2014.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (conservation, international environmental conventions); GS1 (distribution of wetlands). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** wise use, Ramsar criteria, Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules 2017, Amrit Dharohar. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking a site must meet several criteria; meeting one is enough. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Criterion 5: 20,000 or more waterbirds; Criterion 6: 1% of one waterbird population; Criteria 7 and 8: fish. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India aim for a higher Ramsar count or for deeper management of the sites it already has? |
Question 6 of 15
1 Sukhna Wetland is the first Ramsar site in the Union Territory of Chandigarh.
2 Sauj Jheel is a part of the Saman Bird Sanctuary Ramsar site.
3 Sauj Jheel is a shallow lake in the floodplain of the Ganga River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Sukhna Wetland (Ramsar Site no. 2602, 199.5 ha) is Chandigarh’s first Ramsar site.
Statement 2Incorrect
Sauj Jheel (Site no. 2603) is close to Saman Bird Sanctuary, which is itself a separate Ramsar site (Site no. 2413); Sauj is not part of its listing.
Statement 3Correct
The register calls Sauj Jheel ‘a shallow lake surrounded by farmland in the floodplain of the Ganga River.’
Analysis
Nearness is the trap; two neighbouring wetlands in Uttar Pradesh carry two separate site numbers.
Concept note
Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav announced that India’s Ramsar tally had reached 103 with Sukhna Wetland in Chandigarh and Sauj Jheel in Uttar Pradesh, taking the count from 101 (Glaw Lake, Arunachal Pradesh) straight to 103. Sukhna is a ‘peri-urban reservoir on the edge of the city of Chandigarh and at the base of the Outer Himalayas’; it regulates sediment and water flows from its catchment, serves resident waterbirds and migrants on the Central Asian Flyway, and faces two named challenges, sediment inflow and invasive species.
Sauj Jheel regularly supports more than 30,000 waterbirds, has been named an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area by BirdLife International, and is home to the vulnerable sarus crane and greater spotted eagle; its management steps (a seasonal fishing ban, limits on fine-mesh nets, control of cattle access) are still proposed. One date trap matters: 15 October 2026 is the announcement date, while the Ramsar register records earlier designation dates for both sites, so ‘designated on 15 October’ is wrong for both.
At home, Sukhna is declared a wetland under the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (biodiversity, wetland conservation); GS1 (Ganga floodplain, Outer Himalayan foothills). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** peri-urban wetland, Central Asian Flyway, Important Bird and Biodiversity Area, sediment inflow, invasive species. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating Sauj Jheel as part of Saman Bird Sanctuary; they are separate sites, nos. 2603 and 2413. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** The announcement date is not the designation date on the Ramsar register; read which one a statement uses. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does a Ramsar tag change anything on the ground at a city lake like Sukhna? |
Question 7 of 15
1 It was built by L&T Shipyard, a private shipyard.
2 It is the first of two Multi-Purpose Vessels being inducted into the Indian Navy, the second being Utkarsh.
3 Its roles include the launch and recovery of targets and operations involving unmanned systems.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Samarthak was built by L&T Shipyard, and the Ministry of Defence calls it ‘the first major warship to be built by an Indian private shipyard’.
Statement 2Correct
The Navy said ‘Samarthak is the first of two Multi-Purpose Vessels being inducted into the Indian Navy’; the second MPV, Utkarsh, was launched on 13 January 2025 at L&T, Kattupalli.
Statement 3Correct
Its roles include ‘launch and recovery of targets, operations involving unmanned systems’, besides trials and evaluation, maritime surveillance, offshore patrolling and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief.
Analysis
‘All three’ is the key; a candidate who assumes warships come only from public sector yards will wrongly reject Statement 1.
Concept note
INS Samarthak, the first of class Multi-Purpose Vessel (MPV) and the Indian Navy’s first indigenous MPV, was commissioned at Karwar, Karnataka, with Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan presiding in the presence of the Chief of the Naval Staff, Adm Krishna Swaminathan. The Ministry of Defence signed the contract with L&T for two MPVs on 25 March 2022, at Rs 887 crore, under the ‘Buy-Indian’ category, with deliveries scheduled to commence from May 2025.
Samarthak has over 75% indigenous content, and the Ministry says it incorporates ‘extensive modular construction and pre-outfitting’. At its launch in 2024 it was described as 106 m long and 16.8 m wide, with a maximum speed of 15 knots.
The ship was ‘Conceived as a versatile platform for trials and evaluation’ of new sensors and weapons, and it can undertake maritime surveillance and reconnaissance, offshore patrolling and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief operations. Its induction, the Ministry says, ‘significantly strengthens India’s ability for testing and training new sensors and weapons developed indigenously by domestic industry’.
The Vice-President said such a platform would help the Navy turn indigenous innovation into operational capability.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (security forces and their mandate, indigenisation of technology); GS2 (defence procurement). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** private shipbuilding, test-bed platform, modular construction, indigenous content, Aatmanirbhar Bharat. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing the MPV contract’s 'Buy-Indian' category (2022) with Buy (Indian-IDDM) under DAP 2020. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Samarthak and Utkarsh: two MPVs from L&T under a Rs 887 crore contract of 25 March 2022. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why does a navy need a trials ship? Link trials and evaluation to domestic industry. |
Question 8 of 15
1 The 2026 Global Hunger Index report is published jointly by Welthungerhilfe, the Institute for International Law of Peace and Armed Conflict (IFHV) at Ruhr University Bochum, and Helvetas.
2 The Food and Agriculture Organization was founded in Rome in 1945.
3 India’s score in the 2026 Global Hunger Index places it in the 'alarming' category.
4 On the Global Hunger Index scale, a higher score indicates a worse level of hunger.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The report, titled ‘No Security Without Food Security’, is published by Welthungerhilfe (WHH), IFHV at Ruhr University Bochum and the Swiss organisation Helvetas.
Statement 2Incorrect
FAO was founded in Quebec City on 16 October 1945; World Food Day is celebrated annually on 16 October.
Statement 3Incorrect
India’s score of 24.1 falls in the ‘serious’ band (20.0 to 34.9); ‘alarming’ is 35.0 to 49.9.
Statement 4Correct
The GHI combines its indicators into one score on a 100-point scale, and the higher the score, the worse the hunger.
Analysis
The 2026 publishers named in the report are Welthungerhilfe, IFHV and Helvetas; Concern Worldwide is not among them.
Concept note
The 2026 Global Hunger Index ranks India 100th of 122 countries, tied with Ethiopia, with a score of 24.1 in the serious category. India’s indicator values were undernourishment 9.8%, child wasting 19.0%, child stunting 29.3% and child mortality 2.7%; the wasting and stunting figures are survey values, used ‘due to missing official estimate’.
The report says India’s child wasting ‘climbed to 19.0 percent, the region’s highest rate’, while stunting moved ‘from a very high to a high rate for the first time’. India’s score has fallen from 38.1 in 2000 to 24.1, but only by 1.7 points since 2018.
Among neighbours, Sri Lanka ranks 53, Nepal 72, Bangladesh 84, Pakistan 106 and Afghanistan 108. The world score of 18.1 (moderate) is higher than in 2018, ‘interrupting the decline since 2000’.
Two days after the release, World Food Day was observed under the FAO banner ‘Innovate Today. Nourish Tomorrow.’, with events in more than 150 countries.
The Government of India called the index ‘an erroneous measure of hunger’ in 2022 and disputed it again in 2023.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (poverty and hunger, reports of international bodies); GS3 (food security and the PDS). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** child wasting, nutrition security, dietary diversity, survey versus administrative data, Poshan 2.0. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying India’s undernourishment worsened; it improved to 9.8%, while child wasting rose to 19.0%. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** GHI bands: serious 20.0 to 34.9, alarming 35.0 to 49.9; India 24.1, rank 100 of 122; FAO founded 16 October 1945, Quebec City. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is the Global Hunger Index fair to India? Give the Government’s objections and the index’s method. |
Question 9 of 15
Statement-I: Varunastra is an indigenous ship-launched anti-submarine torpedo.
Statement-II: Varunastra was designed and developed by Bharat Dynamics Limited.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The Ministry of Defence describes Varunastra as ‘an indigenous ship-launched anti-submarine torpedo developed by the Naval Science and Technological Laboratory’.
Statement IIIncorrect
It was developed by the Naval Science and Technological Laboratory (NSTL), a DRDO laboratory at Visakhapatnam; Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) has been associated as the production partner and holds the Rs 1,543 crore contract.
Analysis
Developer and producer are different roles: NSTL designed the torpedo, BDL builds it.
Concept note
The Ministry of Defence signed two contracts worth about Rs 4,106 crore in New Delhi. The first, worth Rs 2,563 crore, is with New Space India Limited (NSIL), Bengaluru, for the GSAT-7C communication satellite, which ‘will enhance the secure, resilient & seamless communication capabilities for the assets of the Indian Air Force’.
Only a contract was signed, and no launch date was given. NSIL is a Central Public Sector Enterprise under the Department of Space, incorporated on 6 March 2019 as its commercial arm.
The second, worth Rs 1,543 crore, is with Bharat Dynamics Limited, Hyderabad, for Varunastra heavy weight torpedoes for the Indian Navy. DRDO describes Varunastra as a ‘ship launched, heavy weight, electrically-propelled anti-submarine torpedo capable of targeting quiet submarines, both in deep and shallow waters in an intense countermeasures environment.’ It was handed over to the Navy on 29 June 2016, when PIB called it ‘DRDO’s contribution with 95 per cent of indigenous content’.
The Defence Acquisition Council accorded Acceptance of Necessity for ‘Varunastra Torpedoes (Combat)’ on 20 March 2025. The Ministry did not give the number of torpedoes or a delivery schedule.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (security, defence technology, awareness in space); GS2 (procurement policy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** anti-submarine warfare, indigenous design, Acceptance of Necessity, Defence Acquisition Council, secure communication. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Crediting BDL with developing Varunastra, or taking the 2021 GSAT-7C AoN of Rs 2,236 crore (satellite and ground hubs) as the 2026 contract value. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Varunastra: NSTL (DRDO, Visakhapatnam) developed it, BDL produces it; GSAT-7C: NSIL, for the Indian Air Force. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What does it take to turn a DRDO design into a weapon in service on time? |
Question 10 of 15
Dietary diversity is the right answer because it is not a GHI indicator. The GHI combines four indicators on a 100-point scale: undernourishment (weight 1/3), child stunting (1/6), child wasting (1/6) and child mortality (1/3). Dietary diversity figures only as a policy goal, in the call to push nutrition, not just calories, through the PDS and the Anganwadi system.
The tempting distractor is child mortality, which measures survival rather than nutrition; it is an indicator all the same, and it carries one-third of the weight.
Concept note
The GHI’s four indicators mix food supply with child outcomes. Undernourishment, measured as a share of the population, and child mortality carry one-third of the weight each; child stunting and child wasting carry one-sixth each.
Because three of the four indicators measure children’s nutrition or survival, together carrying two-thirds of the weight, the index moves a great deal with wasting and stunting. That is the core of India’s dispute with it.
On 12 October 2023 the Ministry of Women and Child Development said undernourishment ‘is based on an opinion poll conducted on a very small sample size of 3000’, and that child wasting on the Poshan Tracker was ‘consistently below 7.2%, month-on-month, as compared to the value of 18.7% used for child wasting in the Global Hunger Index 2023’. The index, for its part, uses survey values where official estimates are missing.
India’s safety net includes the National Food Security Act, 2013 (five kilograms of foodgrains per person per month; 35 kg per household for Antyodaya Anna Yojana), free foodgrains under PMGKAY to about 81.35 crore beneficiaries for five years from 1 January 2024, and Mission Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (health, nutrition, welfare schemes); GS3 (food security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** composite index, child undernutrition, Poshan Tracker, survey values, nutrition security. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Forgetting child mortality as an indicator, or giving stunting and wasting one-third each. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Four indicators: undernourishment, stunting, wasting, mortality; the three child indicators carry two-thirds of the weight. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India publish timely official estimates of wasting and stunting so that its own data enter the index? |
Question 11 of 15
1 Under Article 361(2) of the Constitution, no criminal proceedings may be instituted or continued against the President or a Governor in any court during the term of office.
2 Articles 105(2) and 194(2) protect legislators from proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given in the House or a committee.
3 Articles 105(3) and 194(3), as they now stand, equate the uncodified privileges of the Houses with those of the British House of Commons.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Under Article 361(2) and (3), no criminal proceedings and no process for arrest or imprisonment lie against the President or a Governor during the term of office; Article 361(1), on official acts, has no such time limit.
Statement 2Correct
Articles 105(2) and 194(2) bar proceedings in any court for anything said or any vote given in the House or a committee.
Statement 3Incorrect
Since the Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978, Articles 105(3) and 194(3) refer to the privileges each House had immediately before the relevant section of that Amendment came into force; the House of Commons reference no longer appears.
Analysis
Statement 3 repeats a slip in the column itself, which the editorial corrects.
Concept note
The debate over Section 16 of the 2023 Act is best read against the immunities that already exist. Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and the equal protection of the laws, and every immunity is an exception to it.
Article 361(1) says the President or a Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of office, without a time limit. Articles 361(2) and (3) bar criminal proceedings and any process for arrest or imprisonment during the term of office, and Article 361(4) allows civil proceedings over personal acts only after two months’ written notice.
For legislators, Articles 105(2) and 194(2) bar court proceedings for anything said or any vote given in the House or a committee. Rangarajan R., writing in The Hindu, argues that these exceptions are narrow and each has a reason: the dignity of high office for Article 361, actions inside the Houses for parliamentary privilege, and functional necessity and reciprocity for foreign diplomats under the Vienna Convention.
Section 16, by contrast, covers serving and former Election Commissioners, bars both civil and criminal proceedings, and has no good-faith condition or saving clause.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (fundamental rights, President and Governors, parliamentary privileges, constitutional bodies). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** equality before the law, rule of law, immunity, parliamentary privilege, reasonable classification. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying Articles 105(3) and 194(3) still refer to the British House of Commons; the Forty-fourth Amendment (1978) replaced that reference. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 361: clause (1) official acts, no time limit; clauses (2) and (3) criminal bar during the term; clause (4) two months' notice for civil suits. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should any official be immune from criminal proceedings? Run the four-question immunity test: who, from what, for how long, what check. |
Question 12 of 15
Statement-I: Section 16 of the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 bars courts from entertaining civil or criminal proceedings even against former Election Commissioners for acts done in the discharge of official duty.
Statement-II: Section 3(1) of the Judges (Protection) Act, 1985 is subject to a saving clause that preserves the power of the Central and State Governments, the Supreme Court and the High Courts to proceed against judges.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Section 16 covers ‘any person who is or was a Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner’ for acts done in the discharge of official duty, and bars courts from entertaining or continuing civil or criminal proceedings.
Statement IICorrectDoes not explain Statement I
Section 3(1) of the Judges (Protection) Act, 1985 is ‘subject to’ Section 3(2), which preserves the power of the Central Government, a State Government, the Supreme Court, any High Court ‘or any other authority’ to take proceedings against a judge. That is a contrast with Section 16, which has no saving clause, not a reason for it.
Analysis
Option (a) tempts those who link two true statements on the same theme; ask whether Statement-II gives the cause of Statement-I.
Concept note
Section 16 of the 2023 Act reads: ‘Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law for the time being in force, no Court shall entertain or continue any civil or criminal proceedings against any person who is or was a Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner for any act, thing or word, committed, done or spoken by him when, or in the course of acting or purporting to act in the discharge of his official duty or function.’ It overrides other laws, bars new and pending cases, covers serving and former holders, and has no good-faith condition and no saving clause. According to ADR’s petition, the clause was not in the Bill as introduced: it came as an official amendment, received no debate in the Rajya Sabha on 12 December 2023, and the Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha without amendment on 21 December 2023.
A Bench of Chief Justice Surya Kant, Justice Joymalya Bagchi and Justice V. Mohana has issued notice on ADR’s petition and tagged it with a similar pending petition by Lok Prahari. The Court has not ruled on the provision.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Election Commission, Article 14, judiciary). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** blanket immunity, saving clause, good faith, independence versus accountability, reasonable classification. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying judges have no statutory shield; they do, under the Judges (Protection) Act, 1985, but with a saving clause. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 16: serving and former holders; civil and criminal; official acts; no good-faith condition; no saving clause. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you design protection for election officials that does not place them above the law? |
Question 13 of 15
1 The support has been given under the Research Development and Innovation (RDI) Fund.
2 The instrument used is Optionally Convertible Debt.
3 The project aims to take its technologies from Technology Readiness Levels 4-5 towards TRL-9.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Technology Development Board (TDB) signed an agreement with QNu Labs, Bengaluru, for Rs 150 crore of support under the RDI Fund.
Statement 2Correct
The instrument is Optionally Convertible Debt (OCD).
Statement 3Correct
The technologies are to move from TRL 4-5 towards TRL-9.
Analysis
‘All three’ is the key; a candidate who expects a government technology board to give only grants will wrongly reject Statement 2.
Concept note
The Technology Development Board of the Department of Science and Technology has signed an agreement with QNu Labs Private Limited, Bengaluru, for Rs 150 crore of support under the Research Development and Innovation (RDI) Fund, as announced by PIB. The project costs Rs 300 crore in all and aims to build an indigenous technology backbone for India’s Quantum Secure and Sensing Networks (IQSN).
It has four pillars: identity security (quantum-secure physical unclonable functions and quantum-safe trusted platform modules); location integrity (compact quantum magnetometers and GPS-denied navigation); network security (chip-based and satellite-based quantum key distribution); and time integrity (atomic clock technology and QKD-authenticated time synchronisation). The support is in the form of Optionally Convertible Debt, and the technologies are to move from Technology Readiness Levels 4-5 towards TRL-9.
The agreement follows the RDI Fund’s first cohort of fund managers and TDB’s ideaForge agreement, covered in this site’s deep dive on the RDI Fund. QNu Labs also supplied the QKD device for a 5.56 km free-space link reported in an earlier roundup.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (science and technology, indigenisation of technology, cyber security); GS2 (government policies). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** quantum key distribution, quantum-safe security, technology readiness, deep-tech financing, strategic autonomy. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading Rs 150 crore as the project cost; the project costs Rs 300 crore and TDB supports half of it. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** QNu Labs: TDB, RDI Fund, OCD, Rs 150 crore of Rs 300 crore, TRL 4-5 towards 9, four IQSN pillars. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why should India build its own quantum communication technology rather than import it? |
Question 14 of 15
1 They are elected by the General Assembly for a term of two years.
2 A retiring non-permanent member is eligible for immediate re-election.
3 The distribution of elected seats among regions is laid down in the text of Article 23 of the UN Charter.
4 A candidate needs a fixed total of 129 votes to be elected.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 23 says ‘The non-permanent members of the Security Council shall be elected for a term of two years.’
Statement 2Incorrect
Article 23 says ‘A retiring member shall not be eligible for immediate re-election.’
Statement 3Incorrect
The pattern of 5 African and Asian, 1 Eastern European, 2 Latin American and 2 Western European and other States comes from General Assembly resolution 1991 (XVIII) of 17 December 1963, not from the text of Article 23.
Statement 4Incorrect
Article 18 requires a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting, which is 129 only if all 193 members vote; in the 1996 election the required majority was 120 of 180 valid ballots.
Analysis
Each wrong statement turns a practice or a special case into a rule of the Charter.
Concept note
The Security Council has 15 members: five permanent and ten elected by the General Assembly under Article 23, with ‘due regard’ to their contribution to peace and security and to ‘equitable geographical distribution’. General Assembly resolution 1991 (XVIII) of 17 December 1963, in force from 31 August 1965, raised the Council from 11 to 15 members and set the regional pattern of elected seats.
In practice candidates come through the regional groups, which agree informally, sometimes decades in advance, on who should take a seat; when that consensus breaks down, the contest goes to the whole Assembly. India has been elected eight times, the last in 2021-22, when it held the presidency in August 2021 and December 2022.
It is a candidate for 2028-29 in the vote due in June 2027, with its SHANTI vision (Securing Holistic Advancement through Norms, Trust and Integrity). Tajikistan, which has never served on the Council, seeks the same Asia-Pacific seat, backed by an OIC resolution adopted at Nouakchott in March 2023.
In June 2026, Kyrgyzstan won the Asia-Pacific seat for 2027-28 after defeating the Philippines in a run-off.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (important international institutions, India and the UN). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** equitable geographical distribution, regional groups, two-thirds majority, Global South, Security Council reform. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating 129 as a fixed threshold; it depends on how many members are present and voting. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 23: 15 members, two-year terms, no immediate re-election; Article 18: two-thirds present and voting; 1963 resolution: 5-1-2-2. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India contest a seat against a first-time candidate from the Global South? |
Question 15 of 15
1 Applicants enrolling through the SSR need not submit documents to prove citizenship.
2 The SSR is carried out through house-to-house visits by booth-level officers.
3 Draft and final electoral rolls under the SSR are put up at polling booths.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
‘Unlike the SIR, applicants do not have to submit documents to prove citizenship or be mapped with earlier electoral rolls when enrolling through the SSR,’ The Hindu reported.
Statement 2Incorrect
There are to be no house-to-house visits by booth-level officers (BLOs).
Statement 3Correct
Draft and final lists will be put up at polling booths.
Analysis
The SSR is the annual exercise to enrol new voters and update the rolls; by The Hindu’s account it requires neither proof of citizenship nor mapping with earlier rolls, unlike the special intensive revision (SIR).
Concept note
The Election Commission of India has announced a special summary revision (SSR) of electoral rolls in 17 States and Union Territories, including poll-bound Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Punjab, The Hindu reported. The SSR is the annual exercise to enrol new voters and update the rolls; the paper said it was stalled last year when the special intensive revision (SIR) was launched.
Enrolment is with reference to the qualifying date of 1 January 2027, with advance applications for the three later qualifying dates of 1 April, 1 July and 1 October 2027. The 17 are Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Goa, Gujarat, Kerala, Lakshadweep, Madhya Pradesh, Manipur, Puducherry, Punjab, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand and West Bengal.
Contesting candidates and recognised political parties are to get a ‘readable PDF’ of the alphabetically arranged rolls during elections, along with the supplementary voter lists that were earlier kept only for record. In States and UTs where the SIR is going on or has just been completed, the SSR schedule ‘will be announced later’.
The figures and quotations are as reported by The Hindu from the ECI’s order.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Election Commission, electoral rolls, conduct of elections). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** inclusion, qualifying dates, readable electoral rolls, voter verification, ease of enrolment. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the SSR and the SIR as the same exercise. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** SSR: qualifying date 1 January 2027; 17 States and UTs; no citizenship documents; no house-to-house BLO visits (The Hindu). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should the Election Commission balance accurate rolls with easy enrolment? |
Performance
Question-wise Result