UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 14 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
15 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 15
1 The Reserve Bank of India categorises it as a private sector bank for regulatory purposes.
2 Its strategic sale has been run through a decision-making mechanism that includes the Inter-Ministerial Group, the Core Group of Secretaries on Disinvestment and the Alternative Mechanism.
3 Once the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approves a Strategic Buyer, the transfer of management control is complete and no further regulatory assessment of the buyer is required.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The RBI categorised IDBI Bank as a private sector bank for regulatory purposes from January 2019, after LIC acquired 51% of its paid-up equity capital.
Statement 2Correct
The sale ran through the Inter-Ministerial Group, the Core Group of Secretaries on Disinvestment and the Alternative Mechanism, the machinery DIPAM describes for CPSEs.
Statement 3Incorrect
The CCEA has approved 10955230 Canada Inc. (parent Fairfax Financial Holdings) as the Strategic Buyer, but the buyer must still go through the RBI’s Fit and Proper assessment and submit a roadmap for regulatory compliance, so the sale is not yet complete.
Analysis
The question separates an approval from a completed transaction, the commonest error in reporting disinvestment.
Concept note
IDBI Bank’s poor financial health required repeated infusions of capital, first by the Government of India and later by LIC. The RBI placed it under the Prompt Corrective Action framework in May 2017 and lifted the restrictions in March 2021.
After LIC acquired 51% of its paid-up equity capital, the RBI categorised it as a private sector bank for regulatory purposes from January 2019, and in May 2021 the CCEA gave in-principle approval for strategic disinvestment with transfer of management control. Now the CCEA has approved 10955230 Canada Inc., whose parent is Fairfax Financial Holdings, as the Strategic Buyer of a 60.72% stake (30.48% from the Government and 30.24% from LIC) for Rs 52,878.08 crore, at Rs 81 per share against a benchmark of Rs 75.99.
The Government will keep 15% and LIC 19%, and both will withdraw their nominees from the Board. The buyer must still clear the RBI’s Fit and Proper assessment, so this is an approval, not a completed sale.
The Government says that, once completed, it will be the largest FDI in the financial sector so far.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (banking, disinvestment, foreign investment); GS2 (role of regulators). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** strategic disinvestment, transfer of management control, price discovery, fit and proper test. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Writing that Fairfax has acquired IDBI Bank; the CCEA has only approved the Strategic Buyer. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** IMG, CGD and the Alternative Mechanism are the layers of the decision process; RBI’s Fit and Proper test comes after. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the Government exit banking altogether, or keep a residual stake as it does here? |
Question 2 of 15
1 The National Social Assistance Programme was launched to fulfil the Central Government’s responsibility under the Directive Principle in Article 41 of the Constitution.
2 Under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, a person with benchmark disability is a person with not less than forty per cent of a specified disability.
3. 'Relief of the disabled and unemployable' is an entry in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
NSAP was launched in August 1995 to assist poor households and fulfil the Central Government’s responsibility under the Directive Principles of State Policy in Article 41.
Statement 2Correct
The RPwD Act defines a person with benchmark disability as one with not less than forty per cent of a specified disability.
Statement 3Incorrect
‘Relief of the disabled and unemployable’ is entry 9 of the State List; the Concurrent List’s entry 24 is the one that includes invalidity and old age pensions.
Analysis
The renamed scheme now aligns its disability pension with the 40% benchmark of the 2016 Act.
Concept note
The Union Cabinet has approved the continuation of the National Social Assistance Programme for five years, 2026-27 to 2030-31, with an outlay of Rs 53,428 crore, and renamed it the Pradhan Mantri Samajik Sahayata Yojana. The old-age, widow and disability pension schemes become the PM Vridhavastha, PM Vidhawa and PM Divyangjan Pension Yojanas, and the family benefit scheme becomes the PM Parivar Labh Yojana.
The real change is in the disability pension. Eligibility was tied to 80% disability; it now moves to the 40% benchmark disability of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, and the pension will be available from birth.
The 2016 Act also requires assistance under such schemes to be at least 25% higher than similar schemes for others. The approval reaches 3.20 crore beneficiaries across 36 States and UTs, but the new criteria and rates take effect through guidelines due within three months.
Keep the constitutional map straight: Article 41 is the Directive, relief of the disabled is State List entry 9, and old age pensions sit in Concurrent List entry 24.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (welfare schemes for vulnerable sections, Directive Principles); GS1 (social empowerment). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** rights-based approach, benchmark disability, social pension, cooperative federalism. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the 40% rule and the new rates as already in force; they await guidelines due within three months. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NSAP: launched 1995 under Article 41; now PM Samajik Sahayata Yojana; disability benchmark 40% (RPwD Act, 2016). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Who should carry the cost of social pensions, the Centre or the States, and why? |
Question 3 of 15
Statement-I: In the case of six AIADMK legislators who resigned, the Madras High Court upheld the Speaker’s acceptance of their resignations but did not itself decide the disqualification petitions pending against four of them, directing the Speaker to decide them within a fixed time.
Statement-II: Under paragraph 6(1) of the Tenth Schedule, a question of disqualification on the ground of defection is decided by the Speaker of the House.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The Bench upheld the acceptance of the six resignations and, in a passage quoted by SCC Online, ‘opted to leave the issue of disqualification’ to the Speaker, issuing a time-bound mandamus to decide the pleas against four MLAs within two months.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
Paragraph 6(1) makes the Speaker the authority who decides disqualification, and in Kihoto Hollohan (1992) the Speaker acts as a Tribunal whose final decision remains open to review under Articles 136, 226 and 227; so the court set a deadline instead of deciding the pleas.
Analysis
Resignation and disqualification are two separate constitutional routes, both of which pass through the Speaker.
Concept note
The Madras High Court ruling keeps two routes out of a legislature apart. Under Article 190(3)(b), a State legislator’s seat falls vacant when a written resignation is accepted by the Speaker; the proviso, inserted by the Constitution (Thirty-third Amendment) Act, 1974, bars acceptance if the Speaker is satisfied that the resignation is not voluntary or genuine.
The Tenth Schedule is a different process: under paragraph 2 a member is disqualified for voluntarily giving up membership, or for voting against the party’s direction unless that is condoned within fifteen days, and under paragraph 6(1) the Speaker decides. Kihoto Hollohan (1992) held that the Speaker acts as a Tribunal and that finality does not exclude review under Articles 136, 226 and 227.
On 13 October the First Division Bench upheld the acceptance of six resignations and, as Verdictum reports, held that acceptance does not make the pending pleas ‘academic or infructuous’. It directed the Speaker to decide the pleas against four MLAs within two months.
The court did not disqualify anyone.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (State Legislature, anti-defection law, judicial review). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Speaker as Tribunal, constitutional morality, time-bound adjudication, judicial review. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying the High Court disqualified the four MLAs; it directed the Speaker to decide within two months. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 190(3)(b) = resignation accepted by the Speaker; Tenth Schedule paragraph 6 = disqualification decided by the Speaker. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should an independent tribunal, and not the Speaker, decide defection cases? |
Question 4 of 15
1 It was set up by the Bangkok Declaration, and its founding members were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand.
2 Its permanent Secretariat is located in Kathmandu.
3 India leads its Security sector, whose sub-sectors include counter-terrorism and transnational crime, disaster management and energy.
4 The BIMSTEC Charter, now in force, paves the way for the admission of observers and new members.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
BIMSTEC was established in June 1997 by the Bangkok Declaration as BIST-EC, with Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand as its founders.
Statement 2Incorrect
The Secretariat was set up in Dhaka in 2014, after a decision at the Third Summit.
Statement 3Correct
After the 2021 reorganisation of sectors, India leads the Security sector, covering counter-terrorism and transnational crime, disaster management and energy.
Statement 4Correct
The Charter entered into force in May 2024 and paves the way for external partnerships and the admission of observers and new members.
Analysis
India, which leads the Security sector, hosted the first meeting of BIMSTEC Home Ministers in New Delhi.
Concept note
BIMSTEC was established in June 1997 by the Bangkok Declaration as BIST-EC, with Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand as founders. Myanmar joined in December 1997, and Bhutan and Nepal in 2004, giving the present seven members.
Its Secretariat was set up in Dhaka in 2014 after a decision at the Third Summit. The BIMSTEC Charter, signed at the Fifth Summit held virtually in Colombo in March 2022, entered into force in May 2024 once all members had ratified it.
After the 2021 reorganisation of sectors, India leads the Security sector: counter-terrorism and transnational crime, disaster management and energy. India hosted the first BIMSTEC Home Ministers’ Meeting in New Delhi, chaired by Union Home Minister Amit Shah.
The Fourth Summit, in 2018, had decided to convene meetings at this level. The Ministers adopted the Delhi Declaration, which sets out principles for security cooperation, and approved five instruments: one Convention, three Plans of Action and one MoU.
Note the verbs: the declaration was adopted and the instruments approved, and PIB gives no date for them to take effect.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (regional groupings, Neighbourhood First, Act East); GS3 (terrorism, organised crime, disaster management). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Bay of Bengal community, zero tolerance for terrorism, Whole of Region approach, capacity building. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the BIMSTEC Secretariat anywhere but Dhaka, or counting Myanmar among the founders. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Founders four (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand); members seven; Secretariat Dhaka; Charter in force 2024. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can BIMSTEC build the regional cooperation that South Asia has struggled to achieve? |
Question 5 of 15
1 It is compiled and released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
2 In the series with base year 2022-23, Manufactured Products carry the largest weight among the major groups.
3 The WPI Food Index combines Food Articles from Primary Articles with Manufacture of Food Products from Manufactured Products.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
The WPI is compiled and released by the Office of the Economic Adviser in the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce and Industry; it is not a MoSPI index.
Statement 2Correct
Manufactured Products carry a weight of 63.13, against 22.76 for Primary Articles and 14.11 for Fuel and Power.
Statement 3Correct
The WPI Food Index (weight 24.99%) combines Food Articles with Manufacture of Food Products.
Analysis
The Consumer Price Index is MoSPI’s, which is why the compiler of the WPI is a favourite trap.
Concept note
WPI inflation rose to 11.39% (provisional) in September 2026 from 9.92% in August. Among the major groups, Fuel and Power stood at 25.85%, Manufactured Products at 9.76% and Primary Articles at 8.67%.
The index is compiled and released by the Office of the Economic Adviser in the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It is not a MoSPI index: the Consumer Price Index and the Consumer Food Price Index are MoSPI’s, and confusing the two compilers is a standard trap.
The series in use has base year 2022-23. Its weights show where the pressure points lie: Manufactured Products 63.13, Primary Articles 22.76 and Fuel and Power 14.11, so a broad rise in manufactured prices moves the headline more than a spike in a single primary commodity.
The WPI Food Index, with a weight of 24.99%, joins Food Articles from Primary Articles to Manufacture of Food Products from Manufactured Products. Remember also that the RBI’s inflation target is defined in terms of the CPI, not the WPI.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (inflation, price indices, monetary policy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** wholesale inflation, input costs, cost-push pressure, WPI-CPI gap. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying MoSPI compiles the WPI; it is the Office of the Economic Adviser, DPIIT. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** WPI base 2022-23; weights Manufactured 63.13, Primary 22.76, Fuel and Power 14.11. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why can wholesale and retail inflation move so far apart in the same month? |
Question 6 of 15
1 The Southern Indian Ocean Fisheries Agreement (SIOFA) manages highly migratory species such as tuna.
2 India is a Contracting Party to the Indian Ocean Tuna Commission (IOTC).
3 India is at present a Contracting Party to SIOFA.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
SIOFA excludes the highly migratory species listed in Annex I of UNCLOS and covers non-migratory stocks; tuna and tuna-like species fall under the IOTC.
Statement 2Correct
India is a Contracting Party to the IOTC, having accepted its Agreement on 13 March 1995 (IOTC members list).
Statement 3Incorrect
India has been a Cooperating Non-Contracting Party (CNCP) of SIOFA since 2022; its accession has been approved but not completed.
Analysis
Approval of accession is a decision to join, not membership.
Concept note
The Government has approved India’s accession to the Southern Indian Ocean Fisheries Agreement (SIOFA). SIOFA was signed in Rome in July 2006 and has been in force since June 2012, with ten Contracting Parties and its headquarters at La Reunion.
It covers non-migratory stocks and excludes the highly migratory species listed in Annex I of UNCLOS. Tuna and tuna-like species are regulated by the Indian Ocean Tuna Commission (IOTC), the other regional fisheries management organisation in these waters, which India joined by accepting its Agreement on 13 March 1995.
India has been a Cooperating Non-Contracting Party of SIOFA since 2022, with limited participation in decision-making, including in key bodies such as the Scientific Committee. On accession it would become a Contracting Party, and Indian-flagged fishing vessels and enterprises would be able to undertake authorised fishing of squids, toothfish, alfonsino and other non-migratory fish stocks within SIOFA’s jurisdiction.
Until the accession is completed, India remains a CNCP, and SIOFA’s own website still lists it as one.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (fisheries, blue economy); GS2 (international agreements, UNCLOS). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** high seas fisheries, regional fisheries management organisation, sustainable harvest, deep-sea fleet. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating approval of accession as membership; India remains a CNCP until accession is completed. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** IOTC = tuna (India accepted its Agreement on 13 March 1995); SIOFA = non-migratory high-seas stocks (India a CNCP since 2022). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should India balance deep-sea fishing ambitions with conservation duties on the high seas? |
Question 7 of 15
1 States other than those where it first came into force adopt the Clinical Establishments (Registration and Regulation) Act, 2010 under Article 252(1) of the Constitution.
2 The 'Choosing Wisely' campaign against tests and treatments that lack strong supporting evidence was launched by the World Health Organization.
3 In Jacob Mathew v State of Punjab, the Supreme Court required a very high degree of negligence to hold a doctor criminally liable.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Act came into force in March 2012 in Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim and all Union Territories except Delhi, and other States adopt it under Article 252(1).
Statement 2Incorrect
Choosing Wisely is the ABIM Foundation’s campaign, begun in 2012 with nine national specialty societies.
Statement 3Correct
The Court in Jacob Mathew (2005) required a very high degree of negligence for criminal liability.
Analysis
The editorial names defensive medicine as one driver of overtreatment, despite that protection.
Concept note
The Hindu’s lead article on overtreatment and overmedication asks why Indian patients receive tests and medicines they do not need. Public health is a Directive under Article 47, and the main regulatory law is the Clinical Establishments (Registration and Regulation) Act, 2010, passed to register and regulate clinical establishments and to prescribe minimum standards of facilities and services.
It came into force in March 2012 in Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim and all Union Territories except Delhi, and other States adopt it under Article 252(1). Among the drivers the article lists is defensive medicine, even though the Supreme Court in Jacob Mathew v State of Punjab (2005) required a very high degree of negligence for criminal liability.
Abroad, the ABIM Foundation’s Choosing Wisely campaign began in 2012 with nine national specialty societies, which offered examples of tests or treatments commonly used in their fields that lacked strong supporting evidence. Choosing Wisely is not a WHO programme, and that is the trap in this question.
Regulation, professional guidance and patient awareness together are the editorial’s terrain.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (health, regulation of private providers); GS4 (medical ethics, conflict of interest). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** low-value care, defensive medicine, rational prescribing, minimum standards. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Crediting Choosing Wisely to the WHO; it is the ABIM Foundation’s campaign. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Clinical Establishments Act, 2010: in force March 2012; other States adopt it under Article 252(1). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** As a district health officer, how would you curb unnecessary tests in private hospitals? |
Question 8 of 15
Statement-I: Green crackers are pollution-free fireworks.
Statement-II: CSIR-NEERI developed formulations for green crackers.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement IIncorrect
A green cracker is a reduced-emission cracker, not a pollution-free one; its formulations claim a reduction in particulate matter, not zero emissions.
Statement IICorrect
CSIR-NEERI developed the formulations, among them SWAS, SAFAL and STAR.
Analysis
The Supreme Court’s approach since Arjun Gopal (2018) rests on that distinction.
Concept note
The Hindu’s editorial on green crackers revisits a long judicial experiment. In Arjun Gopal v Union of India (2018) the Supreme Court allowed only reduced-emission and green crackers, banned joined crackers (laris) and barium salts, and barred online sale.
CSIR-NEERI developed the green cracker formulations, among them the safe water releaser (SWAS), safe minimal aluminium (SAFAL) and safe thermite cracker (STAR), each claimed to cut particulate emissions, and added a green logo and QR coding to curb counterfeit products. With the Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO), the CPCB and the Environment Ministry, it set a definition of green crackers and baseline values for benchmarking them.
The point to carry into the exam is in the name: a green cracker is a reduced-emission cracker, not a pollution-free one, so Statement-I fails while Statement-II stands. In September 2026 the Court declined a total ban.
The editorial’s call for testing, coordination and awareness draws on Article 21, Article 48A and the fundamental duty in Article 51A(g).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (air pollution, environmental regulation); GS2 (judicial intervention, Article 21). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** reduced-emission crackers, enforcement gap, counterfeit products, behaviour change. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Equating green crackers with zero emissions; they are reduced-emission products. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NEERI formulations SWAS, SAFAL, STAR; Arjun Gopal (2018) limited sales to reduced-emission and green crackers. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can a festival tradition and clean air both be protected without a total ban? |
Question 9 of 15
1 Under Section 45ZA of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the inflation target is determined by the Monetary Policy Committee.
2 The inflation target is set in terms of the Consumer Price Index.
3 The Consumer Price Index is released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
4 The Marginal Standing Facility rate is set above the policy repo rate.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
Under Section 45ZA, ‘The Central Government shall, in consultation with the Bank, determine the inflation target’, so the Centre sets it, not the MPC.
Statement 2Correct
The target is determined ‘in terms of the Consumer Price Index’.
Statement 3Correct
MoSPI releases the CPI, now on base 2024=100.
Statement 4Correct
The MSF and Bank Rate stand at 5.75% against a repo rate of 5.50%, with the Standing Deposit Facility below at 5.25%.
Analysis
Who sets the target and who acts on it is the distinction UPSC tests.
Concept note
The Hindu’s editorial on spiralling food prices sits on a clear legal frame. Under Section 45ZA of the RBI Act, 1934, ‘The Central Government shall, in consultation with the Bank, determine the inflation target in terms of the Consumer Price Index, once in every five years’.
The target is set by the Centre, then, not by the Monetary Policy Committee. It is 4% with a band of ±2%, and a Gazette notification renewed it for five more years, through March 2031.
The CPI, rebased from 2012=100 to 2024=100, is released by MoSPI; inflation was 5.54% (provisional) in September, the fourth month in a row above the 4% target, and the Consumer Food Price Index was 7.74%. The rates after the October 2026 policy: repo 5.50%, Standing Deposit Facility 5.25%, and Marginal Standing Facility and Bank Rate 5.75%.
So the MSF sits above the repo rate and the SDF below it. The editorial’s point is that inflation targeting works best when trade, supply-side and fiscal policies share the load.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (inflation, monetary policy, food management). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** flexible inflation targeting, supply-side inflation, inflation expectations, policy corridor. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying the MPC sets the inflation target; the Central Government does, in consultation with the RBI. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 45ZA: target set by the Centre once every five years, CPI-based, 4% with a ±2% band. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should monetary policy respond to food inflation, or leave it to supply-side measures? |
Question 10 of 15
1 The PERM labour certification is a step towards an employer-sponsored green card and is separate from the H-1B temporary work visa.
2 The framework for the India-US Major Defence Partnership runs for five years.
3 The additional 10% US duty on Indian goods has been imposed under Section 301 of the US Trade Act of 1974.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
PERM is a step towards an employer-sponsored green card, after which the employer files Form I-140 with USCIS; the H-1B is a separate, temporary work visa.
Statement 2Incorrect
The defence framework signed in October 2025 runs ten years.
Statement 3Correct
An additional 10% ad valorem duty under Section 301 of the US Trade Act of 1974 has applied to Indian goods since July 2026.
Analysis
Rajeev Agarwal reads these actions as a pattern of American unilateralism.
Concept note
In The Hindu, retired colonel Rajeev Agarwal argues that a run of US actions in 2026 shows American unilateralism straining India-US ties. One trigger is the US suspension of eight employers from the PERM green-card process.
PERM is a labour certification step towards an employer-sponsored green card, after which the employer files Form I-140 with USCIS; the H-1B is a separate, temporary work visa. As reported, the action names eight employers, four of them not Indian, and India’s Ministry of External Affairs was reported as saying it does not by itself affect existing H-1B visas.
On trade, an additional 10% ad valorem duty under Section 301 of the US Trade Act of 1974 has applied to Indian goods since July 2026, and a February 2026 framework for an interim trade agreement has not ended the friction. On defence, the framework for the US-India Major Defence Partnership was signed in October 2025 and runs ten years.
Technology initiatives such as iCET and TRUST raised hopes, but the challenge, the column says, is translating declarations into measurable outcomes.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (India-US relations, Indian diaspora, effect of policies of developed countries); GS3 (trade). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** strategic autonomy, unilateral tariffs, technology partnership, skilled mobility. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating PERM as part of the H-1B process; it leads to an employer-sponsored green card. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 301 of the US Trade Act of 1974 is the basis of the additional 10% duty; the defence framework runs ten years. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should India respond when a strategic partner acts unilaterally on trade and visas? |
Question 11 of 15
1 Article 39A on equal justice and free legal aid was inserted by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976.
2 The right of an arrested person to consult, and be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice under Article 22(1) is a Directive Principle of State Policy.
3 Prison Statistics India is published by the Bureau of Police Research and Development.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 39A was inserted by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976, with effect from January 1977.
Statement 2Incorrect
Article 22(1) sits in Part III; it is a Fundamental Right, while Article 39A is the Directive Principle.
Statement 3Incorrect
Prison Statistics India is published by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB).
Analysis
The question tests three things the syllabus keeps apart: a Directive, a Fundamental Right and the data source.
Concept note
The Hindu’s Data Point on legal aid for undertrials brings together three things the syllabus keeps apart: a Directive Principle (Article 39A), a Fundamental Right (Article 22(1)) and the economics of keeping poor people in jail before trial. Article 39A, ‘Equal justice and free legal aid’, was inserted by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976, with effect from January 1977.
It directs the State to provide free legal aid so that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities. Article 22(1) sits in Part III, the Fundamental Rights: a person who is arrested must be informed of the grounds of arrest and cannot be denied the right to consult, and be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice.
Undertrial figures of this kind are usually drawn from Prison Statistics India, which is published by the National Crime Records Bureau, not by the Bureau of Police Research and Development. In an answer on undertrials, cite all three: the Directive, the right and the data.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (judiciary, access to justice, prisons, vulnerable sections). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** undertrial incarceration, access to justice, free legal aid, legal services institutions. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling Article 22(1) a Directive Principle; it is a Fundamental Right in Part III, while Article 39A is the Directive. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 39A (42nd Amendment, 1976); Article 22(1) in Part III; Prison Statistics India by NCRB. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What would you change first to make legal aid reach undertrials in time? |
Question 12 of 15
1 Russia was formally expelled from the G8 by a vote of the other members.
2 General License 135, which authorises transactions in Russian-origin diesel, was issued by the US Department of State.
3 A general licence of this kind lifts the underlying sanctions permanently.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
In the Hague Declaration, the G7 leaders said they would suspend their participation in the G-8 until Russia changes course; Russia was not voted out.
Statement 2Incorrect
General License 135 was issued by the US Treasury’s OFAC.
Statement 3Incorrect
It is a time-limited licence, valid until April 2027, not a lifting of sanctions.
Analysis
Each statement turns on a precise legal or institutional term that columns often blur.
Concept note
C. Raja Mohan’s column in The Indian Express reads a thaw between the US and Russia as ‘the other G2’. The trigger was a Trump-Putin telephone call earlier this month, after which the US Treasury’s OFAC issued General License 135, authorising transactions in Russian-origin diesel until April 2027.
Read it precisely: the licence covers sale, delivery and offloading as well as imports, and it is a time-limited licence, not a lifting of sanctions. History also counsels caution.
After the Crimea crisis, the Hague Declaration of G7 leaders said: ‘We will suspend our participation in the G-8 until Russia changes course’. Russia was not expelled, and a column’s shorthand that the G8 ‘suspended Russia’ should be written in an answer as the G7 suspending its participation.
Trump has long sought better ties with Moscow: he pressed for Russia’s return to the G8 in his first term and held a joint press conference with Putin at Helsinki in July 2018. For a Prelims answer, the institution that issues a licence and the legal effect of that licence are the two things to get right.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (great-power relations, effect of policies of developed countries on India’s interests). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** sanctions regime, strategic autonomy, multipolarity, great-power bargain. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying Russia was expelled from the G8; the G7 suspended their participation. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** OFAC sits in the US Treasury; a general licence carves out time-limited permission, it does not lift sanctions. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does a US-Russia thaw widen or narrow India’s room for strategic autonomy? |
Question 13 of 15
1 Under Article 356, the President may act on a report from the Governor of a State or otherwise.
2 Under the President’s Rule imposed in Manipur after its Chief Minister resigned, the State Legislative Assembly was dissolved.
3 Article 371C allows the President to provide for a committee of the Manipur Legislative Assembly made up of members elected from the Hill Areas.
4 Article 371C was inserted by the Constitution (Twenty-seventh Amendment) Act, 1971.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 356 applies when the President, ‘on receipt of a report from the Governor of a State or otherwise’, is satisfied that the State’s government cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution.
Statement 2Incorrect
The Assembly was kept in suspended animation, not dissolved, until President’s Rule was revoked.
Statement 3Correct
Article 371C provides for a committee of the Assembly of members elected from the Hill Areas.
Statement 4Correct
It was inserted by the Twenty-seventh Amendment, 1971, with effect from February 1972.
Analysis
Suspended animation versus dissolution is the classic Article 356 trap.
Concept note
The Indian Express editorial on the work of peace in Manipur asks for sustained dialogue with community bodies, use of the Hill Areas Committee under Article 371C to give hill-area legislators a voice, and relief for the displaced alongside security operations. The constitutional terms matter.
Under Article 356, the President may act ‘on receipt of a report from the Governor of a State or otherwise’ if satisfied that the State’s government cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution. In Manipur, President’s Rule was imposed in February 2025 after the Chief Minister resigned and was revoked in February 2026.
Throughout, the Assembly was in suspended animation: not dissolved, keeping its term but unable to act while President’s Rule lasted. Article 371C is a special provision for Manipur: the President may provide for a committee of the Legislative Assembly made up of members elected from the Hill Areas, and the Governor reports to the President on the administration of the Hill Areas annually, or whenever so required.
It was inserted by the Constitution (Twenty-seventh Amendment) Act, 1971, with effect from February 1972.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (federalism, emergency provisions, special provisions for States); GS3 (internal security in the North East). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** President’s Rule, suspended animation, Hill Areas Committee, reconciliation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Writing that Manipur’s Assembly was dissolved; it was kept in suspended animation. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 356: Governor’s report 'or otherwise'; Article 371C: Hill Areas committee (27th Amendment, 1971). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What should come first in Manipur: security, relief or dialogue? |
Question 14 of 15
Statement-I: Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 requires companies above set thresholds to spend on Corporate Social Responsibility.
Statement-II: Schedule VII of the Companies Act, 2013 lists the activities that count as Corporate Social Responsibility.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, in effect from April 2014, requires companies above set thresholds to spend on CSR.
Statement IICorrectDoes not explain Statement I
Schedule VII lists the activities that count as CSR, such as education, health and environment; the obligation to spend comes from Section 135, not from the list.
Analysis
One provision creates the duty, the other defines what qualifies.
Concept note
Purvi Mehta’s column in The Indian Express asks where India’s CSR money goes. The mandate is Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, which took effect in April 2014 and requires companies above set thresholds to spend a share of their profits on CSR.
Schedule VII lists the activities that count as CSR, such as education, health and environment. Spending follows that list unevenly.
CSR spending stood at Rs 34,908.75 crore in 2023-24, and the Ministry of Corporate Affairs’ sector table in a Lok Sabha answer puts education (Rs 12,134.57 crore) and health care (Rs 7,150.81 crore) well ahead of environmental sustainability, rural development projects and livelihood enhancement projects. The column’s first concern is geographic concentration.
The pairing in this question tests a distinction examiners like: Section 135 creates the obligation, while Schedule VII defines what qualifies. Both statements are true, but knowing what qualifies does not explain why a company must spend.
In a Mains answer, cite the section for the duty and the schedule for the scope.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (corporate governance, inclusive growth); GS4 (corporate ethics, philanthropy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** mandated CSR, geographic concentration, outcome measurement, corporate citizenship. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating Schedule VII as the source of the CSR obligation; the obligation is in Section 135. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 135 (in effect April 2014) = the mandate; Schedule VII = the list of eligible activities. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should CSR remain a legal mandate, or become voluntary with stronger disclosure? |
Question 15 of 15
Facts
The Siang is the name the Yarlung Tsangpo takes when it enters Arunachal Pradesh from Tibet. None of the other options is the Siang’s name in Tibet.
Analysis
Trans-boundary rivers change names at the border, and map questions test exactly that switch.
Concept note
The Siang Valley is in the news over protests against a proposed 11,200 MW hydropower project in the region. Arunachal Pradesh Chief Minister Pema Khandu agreed in principle to reduce the number of security personnel deployed in the valley and to withdraw FIRs registered during the protests, PTI reported in The Hindu.
He agreed after a meeting with the Adi Baane Kebang Youth Wing and the Adi Students’ Union, describing the steps as ‘confidence-building measures to facilitate dialogue’. The step is in principle, not yet a withdrawal, and the wider disagreement remains unresolved.
For the map, fix the river’s names: it rises in Tibet as the Yarlung Tsangpo and enters Arunachal Pradesh as the Siang. Questions on trans-boundary rivers often turn on exactly this change of name at the border, so learn each river as a pair of names, one on each side.
In a Mains answer on large dams in the eastern Himalaya, the same river appears in debates on water security and on the rights of the communities who live along it.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (drainage systems of India, physical geography); GS3 (hydropower, infrastructure and displacement). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** trans-boundary rivers, free, prior and informed consultation, confidence-building measures, water security. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Mixing up the Tibetan and Indian names of trans-boundary rivers. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Yarlung Tsangpo (Tibet) = Siang (Arunachal Pradesh). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should a State balance a large hydropower project against the concerns of the people who live in the valley? |
Performance
Question-wise Result