UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 5 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
18 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 18
1 It is jointly steered by the Department of Science and Technology and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
2 It is implemented by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune and the Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru.
3 PARAM 8000, unveiled in 1991, marked India’s entry into indigenous supercomputing.
4 The systems deployed under the mission so far have a combined capacity of more than 100 petaflops.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The NSM is a joint mission of the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
Statement 2Correct
C-DAC, Pune and IISc, Bengaluru implement it.
Statement 3Correct
C-DAC’s PARAM 8000 of 1991, running at about 1 gigaflop, was built after imported machines were denied to India.
Statement 4Incorrect
As of September 2026 the mission has deployed 40 supercomputers with a combined 68 petaflops, against a target of 50 systems and more than 123 petaflops.
Analysis
A PIB backgrounder shows the mission at 80 per cent of its target by number of machines but only about 55 per cent by computing power.
Concept note
The NSM was launched in April 2015 with an outlay of about Rs 4,500 crore and follows a three-phase “Build approach”, moving from assembling systems with imported parts to designing and making key components in India. About 6,000 indigenous Rudra servers have been deployed and 1,500 more are in manufacture; the mission has also developed indigenous high-speed interconnects and cooling.
Systems run on the National Knowledge Network backbone and serve more than 16,000 researchers in over 400 institutions. Applications include flood early warning in the Mahanadi basin, forest-fire spread modelling in Sikkim, seismic imaging, genomics and drug discovery.
A petaflop is 10 to the power 15 floating-point operations per second; the world’s fastest machines now exceed two exaflops (an exaflop is 1,000 petaflops).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (science and technology, indigenisation); GS3 (disaster management through forecasting). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** high-performance computing, exascale, indigenous processors, AI-HPC convergence, strategic technology denial. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing the NSM with the IndiaAI Mission; the NSM builds supercomputers, IndiaAI funds AI compute and models. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NSM: 2015, DST plus MeitY, C-DAC plus IISc; PARAM 8000 (1991); 40 systems, 68 PF as of September 2026. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India build its own processors for supercomputers, or is assembling systems with imported chips enough? |
Question 2 of 18
1 It upgrades 1,000 Government ITIs in a hub-and-spoke model of 200 hubs and 800 spokes.
2 Each cluster is run by a Special Purpose Vehicle in which the Central government holds the majority stake.
3 Five National Skill Training Institutes are to be upgraded as National Centres of Excellence.
4 The scheme’s entire outlay of Rs 60,000 crore is borne by the Central government.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Component I covers 1,000 Government ITIs organised as 200 hubs and 800 spokes, about four spokes per hub.
Statement 2Incorrect
The Anchor Industry Partner holds 51 per cent of the SPV, with the Centre and the State holding 24.5 per cent each.
Statement 3Correct
Component II upgrades five NSTIs, at Bhubaneswar, Chennai, Hyderabad, Kanpur and Ludhiana.
Statement 4Incorrect
The Rs 60,000 crore outlay is shared, Rs 30,000 crore from the Centre, Rs 20,000 crore from the States and Rs 10,000 crore from industry.
Analysis
In its first year, 850 ITIs have been identified (172 hubs and 678 spokes) and 14 Strategic Investment Plans (SIPs) for ITI clusters, worth Rs 3,446 crore, approved by the National Steering Committee.
Concept note
PM-SETU was launched on 4 October 2025 under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. Its core idea is industry-led governance: the anchor industry partner holds the majority in each cluster’s SPV, so courses, equipment and placement are shaped by employers.
A National Steering Committee chaired by the Secretary, MSDE oversees it. The number of ITIs rose from 9,776 in 2014 to 13,888 in 2026, and enrolment from 9.51 lakh in 2014-15 to 14.70 lakh in 2025-26.
ITIs run the Craftsmen Training Scheme under the Directorate General of Training. Long-standing problems are vacant instructor posts, outdated trades and weak placement, which the hub-and-spoke model tries to address by pooling equipment and trainers in the hub.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (government schemes, skilling); GS3 (employment, manufacturing). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** demand-led skilling, industry-anchored governance, hub-and-spoke, apprenticeship, employability. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the government controls the SPV; the anchor industry partner holds 51 per cent. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** PM-SETU: Rs 60,000 crore (30:20:10), 1,000 ITIs (200 hubs + 800 spokes), five NSTIs as centres of excellence. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why do ITI graduates struggle to find jobs, and can industry ownership of ITIs fix it? |
Question 3 of 18
1 Up to 25 per cent of each batch of Agniveers may be enrolled in the regular cadre for a further minimum period of 15 years.
2 The Seva Nidhi package paid to an exiting Agniveer is exempt from income tax.
3 Agniveers who exit after four years are entitled to gratuity and pension.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Under the scheme approved by the Union Cabinet on 14 June 2022, Agniveers serve four years and up to 25 per cent of each batch can join the regular cadre for a minimum of 15 more years.
Statement 2Correct
The Seva Nidhi, about Rs 10.04 lakh of contributions or about Rs 11.71 lakh with interest, is exempt from income tax.
Statement 3Incorrect
There is no gratuity or pension for those who exit.
Analysis
As the first batches near the end of their four-year term from late 2026, the Services have sent the Department of Military Affairs recommendations to improve the scheme; any change in the retention percentage has only been reported, not announced.
Concept note
Agniveers are recruited between 17.5 and 21 years of age. The monthly package rises from Rs 30,000 in the first year to Rs 40,000 in the fourth; 30 per cent goes to the Seva Nidhi, matched by an equal government contribution, and the Agniveer takes home 70 per cent.
They carry Rs 48 lakh of non-contributory life cover. Ex-Agniveers have a 10 per cent reservation in the Central Armed Police Forces and Assam Rifles, with age relaxation and exemption from the physical efficiency test, and 10 per cent in the Coast Guard, MoD civilian posts and 16 Defence PSUs.
Supporters cite a younger force and lower pension bills; critics worry about training depth, unit cohesion and the future of the 75 per cent who leave.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (security, defence reforms); GS2 (welfare of ex-servicemen). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** short-service model, average age of forces, pension bill, retention, skilling for transition. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming ex-Agniveers get pension like regular soldiers; they get a tax-free Seva Nidhi instead. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Agnipath: approved 14 June 2022; age 17.5 to 21; four years; up to 25 per cent retained; Rs 48 lakh life cover. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the retention rate be raised, and what would it cost? |
Question 4 of 18
1 National Waterway-2 runs on the Brahmaputra from Dhubri, on the Bangladesh border, to Sadiya.
2 The Protocol on Inland Water Transit and Trade between India and Bangladesh was first signed in 1972.
3 Pangaon Inland Container Terminal, a destination for Indian cargo on the Protocol route, lies near Chittagong.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
NW-2 is the 891 km stretch of the Brahmaputra from Dhubri to Sadiya, declared in 1988.
Statement 2Correct
The Protocol was first signed in 1972, soon after Bangladesh’s independence; its Second Addendum of 2020 raised the number of Protocol routes from 8 to 10.
Statement 3Incorrect
Pangaon is at Keraniganj near Dhaka, on the Buriganga river.
Analysis
A consignment of methanol from Assam Petro-Chemicals Limited is scheduled to sail from the Bogibeel Terminal at Dibrugarh to Pangaon along NW-2 and the Protocol route, which the Ports, Shipping and Waterways Ministry calls the first such voyage from Dibrugarh to a foreign port since Independence.
Concept note
Before Partition, the Brahmaputra and the rivers of East Bengal carried much of Assam’s tea and jute to Calcutta. Partition turned the route into an international one, and river traffic through East Pakistan was suspended after the 1965 war; the 1972 Protocol with Bangladesh reopened it.
The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) was set up in 1986; the National Waterways Act, 2016 brought the total number of national waterways to 111. NW-1 is the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly system (Haldia to Prayagraj), NW-2 the Brahmaputra and NW-3 the West Coast Canal in Kerala.
Water transport is cheaper and less polluting per tonne-kilometre than road or rail, but on the Brahmaputra it is limited by braided channels, shifting sandbars and low winter depths.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (infrastructure, logistics); GS2 (India-Bangladesh relations, Act East). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** inland water transport, Protocol route, multimodal connectivity, North-East integration, Chicken’s Neck. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing NW-2 on the Barak; the Barak is NW-16, NW-2 is the Brahmaputra. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NW-1 Ganga (Haldia-Prayagraj), NW-2 Brahmaputra (Dhubri-Sadiya, 891 km), NW-3 West Coast Canal; IBP Protocol 1972, 10 routes since 2020. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can river transport reduce the North-East’s dependence on the Siliguri Corridor? |
Question 5 of 18
Statement-I: Article 326 of the Constitution provides that elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assemblies of States shall be on the basis of adult suffrage.
Statement-II: The Supreme Court has consistently held that the right to vote is a fundamental right guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Article 326 guarantees adult suffrage to every citizen aged 18 or above who is not otherwise disqualified by law.
Statement IIIncorrect
The Supreme Court has more often described the right to vote as a statutory right, as in Jyoti Basu v. Debi Ghosal (1982) and Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India (2006), though some judgments have treated it as a constitutional right; it has never been consistently held to be a fundamental right.
Analysis
Justice Ujjal Bhuyan, speaking at NALSAR, Hyderabad, said that any process disenfranchising millions is intrinsically arbitrary under Articles 14 and 326 and that, in his view, the right to vote is a constitutional right within the Basic Structure.
Concept note
Article 326 was amended by the 61st Amendment Act, 1988, which lowered the voting age from 21 to 18. The Representation of the People Act, 1950 governs the preparation of electoral rolls and the 1951 Act the conduct of elections.
A distinction that recurs in judgments is between the right to vote (statutory, regulated by the RP Acts), the freedom of voting, that is, the choice expressed by a voter, which PUCL v. Union of India (2003) linked to Article 19(1)(a), and the principle of free and fair elections, which is part of the Basic Structure (Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain, 1975). The PUCL judgment of 2013 on NOTA again tied the voter’s expression to free speech.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Representation of People Acts, constitutional bodies); GS2 (fundamental rights). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** universal adult franchise, statutory versus constitutional right, burden of proof, notice and hearing, Basic Structure. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling the right to vote a fundamental right; it is usually held statutory, while free and fair elections are part of the Basic Structure. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 326 adult suffrage; 61st Amendment (1988) lowered the age to 18; Jyoti Basu (1982) and Kuldip Nayar (2006) treat voting as a statutory right. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the right to vote be made a fundamental right by amendment? |
Question 6 of 18
1 It is a constitutional body under Article 279A.
2 It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
3 Its decisions require a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting, with the Centre’s vote carrying one-third of the weight.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 279A was inserted by the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.
Statement 2Correct
The Union Finance Minister chairs it, with the Union Minister of State for Finance and the Finance Ministers of the States as members.
Statement 3Correct
Decisions need three-fourths of the weighted votes; the Centre holds one-third and the States together two-thirds.
Analysis
Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has written that proposals on registration, returns, refunds, disputes and the flow of input tax credit will go before the Council on 7 October, with gross GST collections of Rs 12.46 lakh crore in April to September 2026, up 11.6 per cent.
Concept note
GST took effect on 1 July 2017, subsuming central levies such as excise duty and service tax and State levies such as VAT. Its structure has CGST and SGST on intra-State supplies and IGST on inter-State supplies and imports.
The weighting means neither the Centre alone (one-third) nor the States alone (two-thirds) can push a decision through. In Union of India v. Mohit Minerals (2022), the Supreme Court held that the Council’s recommendations are persuasive, not binding, on Parliament and the State legislatures.
The September 2025 reform reduced the main slabs to two, 5 and 18 per cent, with a higher rate for a few demerit goods; the new rates took effect on 22 September 2025.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (federalism, constitutional bodies); GS3 (taxation, government budgeting). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** cooperative federalism, weighted voting, compliance burden, input tax credit, GST 2.0. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the Council’s recommendations bind legislatures; Mohit Minerals (2022) held them persuasive. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 279A (101st Amendment, 2016); quorum one-half; Centre one-third weight, States two-thirds; three-fourths majority. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Has GST strengthened or weakened the fiscal autonomy of States? |
Question 7 of 18
Statement-I: World Habitat Day does not fall on the same date every year.
Statement-II: The United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) is headquartered in Nairobi.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
World Habitat Day is observed on the first Monday of October, so its date changes every year; in 2026 it falls on 5 October.
Statement IICorrect
UN-Habitat is based in Nairobi, Kenya. But the location of UN-Habitat’s headquarters has nothing to do with how the day is dated, so Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
Analysis
The 2026 theme is “Adequate Housing for All”, and the global observance is in Muscat, Oman, opening Urban October.
Concept note
The UN General Assembly designated World Habitat Day in 1985, and it was first observed in 1986. Urban October runs from World Habitat Day to World Cities Day on 31 October.
UN-Habitat estimates that more than 3 billion people lack adequate housing and over 1.1 billion live in slums or informal settlements. India’s responses include the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban 2.0 and Gramin), the Affordable Rental Housing Complexes scheme for migrants, and in-situ slum redevelopment.
Adequate housing, in the UN’s definition, includes security of tenure, services, affordability, habitability, accessibility, location and cultural adequacy, not just a roof.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (urbanisation); GS2 (welfare schemes); GS3 (infrastructure). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** right to adequate housing, informal settlements, rental housing, security of tenure, SDG 11. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Giving World Habitat Day a fixed date; World Cities Day (31 October) is the fixed one. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** World Habitat Day: first Monday of October (designated 1985, first observed 1986); UN-Habitat HQ Nairobi; SDG 11 is sustainable cities. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is rental housing a better answer than ownership for India’s urban migrants? |
Question 8 of 18
1 World Teachers' Day commemorates the adoption of the ILO/UNESCO Recommendation concerning the Status of Teachers.
2 World Teachers' Day is observed every year on 5 October.
3 Teachers' Day in India is observed on 5 September, the birth anniversary of Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The day marks the adoption of the ILO/UNESCO Recommendation concerning the Status of Teachers on 5 October 1966.
Statement 2Correct
It is observed annually on 5 October.
Statement 3Correct
India’s Teachers’ Day, 5 September, is the birth anniversary of Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, the second President of India.
Analysis
The 2026 observance marks the Recommendation’s 60th anniversary under the theme “Standing with teachers: 60 years of protecting the profession, advancing its status and shaping our futures”; the Recommendation is being revised.
Concept note
The 1966 Recommendation set standards on teachers’ rights and responsibilities, initial training and further education, recruitment, employment, pay and working conditions; a separate UNESCO Recommendation on higher-education teaching personnel followed in 1997. World Teachers’ Day has been celebrated since 1994.
The 2026 global event at UNESCO headquarters in Paris is co-convened by UNESCO, the ILO, UNICEF and Education International. For India, the questions are teacher vacancies, contract teachers, training quality and pupil-teacher ratios; NEP 2020 proposed a National Professional Standards for Teachers framework and a four-year integrated B.Ed.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (education); GS4 (teachers as role models). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** teacher shortage, contractualisation, professional standards, pupil-teacher ratio, teacher autonomy. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Mixing the dates: India’s Teachers' Day is 5 September, World Teachers' Day 5 October. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** World Teachers' Day: 5 October, 1966 ILO/UNESCO Recommendation; India: 5 September, Radhakrishnan. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why do so few toppers choose school teaching in India, and what would change that? |
Question 9 of 18
1 It was built in the thirteenth century by Recherla Rudra, a general of the Kakatiya ruler Ganapati Deva.
2 It is inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List.
3 It is located in the Mulugu district of Telangana.
4 It stands on a "sandbox" foundation and its superstructure uses light, floating bricks.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
All four statements are correct. The Kakatiya Rudreshwara (Ramappa) Temple was built about 1213 CE by Recherla Rudra under Ganapati Deva and is named after its sculptor, Ramappa. It was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site on 25 July 2021.
It stands at Palampet in Mulugu district, Telangana. Its foundation rests on a sandbox (a pit filled with sand, lime, jaggery and myrobalan) and its towers use light, floating bricks.
Analysis
The Kakatiya Heritage Trust has asked the Union Coal Minister to stop a proposed Singareni opencast mine about 5 km away, citing a Geological Survey of India report on faults that could let water seep towards the foundation; local officials say no decision will be taken without a safety assessment.
Concept note
The Kakatiyas ruled from Warangal (Orugallu) between the twelfth and fourteenth centuries; Ganapati Deva and Rudramadevi were among their notable rulers. Kakatiya architecture is known for star-shaped (stellate) platforms, ornate black basalt brackets and pillars, and the madanika (dancing female) figures on the Ramappa temple.
Telangana’s other Kakatiya landmarks include the Thousand Pillar Temple at Hanamkonda and the Warangal Fort’s Kakatiya Kala Thoranam, the arch on the State emblem. World Heritage sites are protected by a buffer zone and a management plan; activity near them, such as mining, raises Heritage Impact Assessment questions under the UNESCO Operational Guidelines and the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (art and architecture, Kakatiyas); GS3 (environment impact of mining). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** heritage impact assessment, buffer zone, sandbox technology, development versus heritage, community heritage. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing Ramappa in Warangal city; it is at Palampet in Mulugu district. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Ramappa: Kakatiya, 1213 CE, Recherla Rudra, UNESCO 2021 (44th session, Fuzhou), sandbox foundation, floating bricks. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should India weigh coal output against the safety of a World Heritage monument? |
Question 10 of 18
1 A social bond raises money for projects with positive social outcomes, such as water, sanitation and hygiene.
2 NABKISAN Finance Limited is a subsidiary of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development.
3 India’s first social bond for water, sanitation and hygiene was listed on the BSE.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Social bonds finance projects with social benefits, as green bonds finance environmental ones.
Statement 2Correct
NABKISAN Finance Limited is a NABARD subsidiary.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Rs 180 crore WASH social bond was listed on the National Stock Exchange.
Analysis
The five-year bond, with a coupon of 8.10 per cent, maturing in September 2031, was oversubscribed 1.8 times and rated AAA by CRISIL and CARE; Water.org was the technical adviser.
Concept note
Social, green and sustainability bonds are labelled bonds: the issuer commits to use the proceeds for defined projects and to report on them, usually following the International Capital Market Association’s principles. SEBI regulates listed labelled debt in India and has issued a framework for environment, social and governance (ESG) debt securities.
Sovereign green bonds were first issued by the Government of India in January 2023. NABARD was set up in 1982 on the recommendation of the CRAFICARD committee (B. Sivaraman) and regulates and refinances rural cooperative banks and regional rural banks.
Financing household water and toilet connections through microfinance and self-help groups is the model a WASH bond supports.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (financial markets, inclusive growth); GS2 (water and sanitation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** blended finance, labelled bonds, impact reporting, greenwashing risk, last-mile WASH credit. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating social bonds as government bonds; they can be issued by any entity that commits the proceeds to social projects. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Green (environment), social (social outcomes), sustainability (both); NABARD 1982 (CRAFICARD); sovereign green bonds from January 2023. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you check that a social bond actually delivered social outcomes? |
Question 11 of 18
Facts
Under an arrangement agreed in 2025, Turkiye holds the COP31 presidency and hosts the conference at Antalya from 9 to 20 November 2026, while Australia’s Chris Bowen serves as “President of Negotiations” and the pre-COP is held in the Pacific. Belem, Brazil hosted COP30 (2025) and Baku, Azerbaijan COP29 (2024).
Analysis
The pre-COP, co-hosted by Fiji and Tuvalu with Australia, runs from 5 to 8 October 2026.
Concept note
The UNFCCC was adopted at the Rio Earth Summit in 1992 and entered into force in 1994; COP1 was held in Berlin in 1995. The Kyoto Protocol was adopted at COP3 (1997) and the Paris Agreement at COP21 (2015).
The pre-COP is an informal ministerial meeting that prepares the agenda for the main conference. Australia and Turkiye both bid for COP31; the compromise split hosting and negotiating roles, with a Pacific pre-COP to reflect the concerns of small island states facing sea-level rise.
India offered to host COP33 in 2028.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (climate change, international environmental conventions); GS2 (international institutions). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** climate finance, NDCs, loss and damage, small island developing states, global stocktake. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming Australia hosts COP31; Turkiye hosts it at Antalya and Australia leads negotiations. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** COP29 Baku (2024), COP30 Belem (2025), COP31 Antalya (2026); Paris Agreement at COP21 (2015). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why should India care about a pre-COP held in Tuvalu? |
Question 12 of 18
1. 19th Asian Games : Hangzhou
2. 20th Asian Games : Aichi-Nagoya
3. 21st Asian Games : Doha
4. 22nd Asian Games : Riyadh
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
All four pairs are correctly matched. The 19th Games were held in Hangzhou in 2023 (postponed from 2022), the 20th in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan, closing on 4 October 2026, the 21st are allotted to Doha (2030) and the 22nd to Riyadh (2034).
Analysis
India finished fourth at Aichi-Nagoya with 85 medals (21 gold, 27 silver, 37 bronze), ahead of Uzbekistan on silver medals after both won 21 golds; at Hangzhou India won 107 medals, including 28 gold.
Concept note
The first Asian Games were held in New Delhi in 1951; India hosted again in 1982, when the Games were also held in New Delhi. The Olympic Council of Asia, headquartered in Kuwait, governs the Games.
At Aichi-Nagoya, Kumkum Mohod won the women’s individual recurve archery gold, the first by an Indian woman, and Vithya Ramraj broke P.T. Usha’s 1984 national record in the 400m hurdles with 54.75 seconds. India’s support schemes include the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS, 2014) and Khelo India (2017), and the next Olympic test is Los Angeles 2028.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (sports governance, government schemes); GS1 (society and sport). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** sports ecosystem, grassroots talent, TOPS, Khelo India, federation governance. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the 2030 Games in Riyadh; Doha hosts in 2030 and Riyadh in 2034. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** First Asian Games: New Delhi 1951; India hosted again in 1982; 2030 Doha, 2034 Riyadh; OCA HQ Kuwait. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why does India do better at the Asian Games than at the Olympics? |
Question 13 of 18
1 Under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, the Election Commission may direct a special revision of the electoral roll for any constituency or part of a constituency.
2 Under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, a revision of electoral rolls may be intensive or summary.
3 An Election Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
4 The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of a High Court.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 21(3) of the RP Act, 1950 allows the Commission, for reasons recorded, to direct a special revision for any constituency or part of one.
Statement 2Correct
Rule 25 of the 1960 Rules says a revision may be intensive, summary or partly each.
Statement 3Correct
Under the proviso to Article 324(5), an Election Commissioner can be removed only on the CEC’s recommendation.
Statement 4Incorrect
The CEC is removable like a judge of the Supreme Court, not a High Court.
Analysis
Writing in The Hindu, former Lok Sabha Secretary General P.D.T. Achary argues that a “special intensive revision” is not a category the law recognises and that Article 324 fills gaps in statute but cannot override it.
Concept note
Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of electoral rolls and elections in the Election Commission. In Mohinder Singh Gill v. CEC (1978) the Supreme Court called it a reservoir of power for situations where law is silent.
T.N. Seshan v. Union of India (1995) held that the CEC is first among equals and the Commission decides by majority, a rule now in Section 18 of the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023. Section 16 of that Act bars civil and criminal proceedings against serving or former CEC and ECs for acts done in the discharge of official duty.
A removal motion is governed by Article 124(4) and the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, under which the Speaker or Chairman may admit or refuse it.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (constitutional bodies, Representation of People Acts); GS2 (accountability of institutions). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** gap-filling power, collective decision-making, independence versus accountability, statutory clarity. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Giving Election Commissioners the CEC’s judge-like protection; they can be removed on the CEC’s recommendation. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 324(5): CEC removed like an SC judge; ECs only on CEC’s recommendation; RP Act 1950 s.21(3) special revision. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the removal of Election Commissioners need the same procedure as the CEC’s? |
Question 14 of 18
Statement-I: English is not one of the languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Statement-II: Article 348 provides that, until Parliament by law provides otherwise, all proceedings in the Supreme Court and every High Court shall be in English.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The Eighth Schedule lists 22 languages and English is not among them.
Statement IICorrect
Article 348(1) makes English the language of the Supreme Court and High Courts until Parliament provides otherwise. But the use of English in the higher judiciary does not explain its absence from the Eighth Schedule, which lists Indian languages for purposes such as the Official Language Commission and development of those languages.
Analysis
The Hindu, commenting on the CBSE three-language case, argues that English is a de facto Indian language and that a two-language policy of English and the mother tongue would serve students best.
Concept note
Article 343 made Hindi in Devanagari the official language of the Union and allowed English for 15 years; the Official Languages Act, 1963 continued English indefinitely. Article 350A directs States to provide instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage to children of linguistic minority groups, and Article 351 directs the Union to promote Hindi.
The Eighth Schedule began with 14 languages; Sindhi was added in 1967, Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali in 1992, and Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali in 2003. The three-language formula dates from the Kothari Commission (1964-66) and the National Policy on Education, 1968; NEP 2020 requires two of the three languages to be native to India.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (education, federalism); GS1 (linguistic diversity). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** link language, mother-tongue instruction, three-language formula, linguistic federalism. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming English is a scheduled language because it is an official language; it is official under the 1963 Act, not scheduled. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Eighth Schedule: 22 languages, last four added by the 92nd Amendment (2003); English is not listed. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is English an Indian language? |
Question 15 of 18
Statement-I: When the market price of an existing government bond falls, its yield rises.
Statement-II: A bond pays a fixed coupon on its face value, so a buyer who pays a lower price earns a higher effective return.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Both statements are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Because the coupon is fixed in rupees, a lower purchase price means the same coupon is a larger share of the money invested, so the yield rises as the price falls.
Analysis
The Indian Express notes that 10-year government bond yields recently reached 5.34 per cent in the US and 4.99 per cent in France, their highest since 2002, and above 3.1 per cent in Japan, the first time since 1996; India’s 10-year yield rose about 0.7 percentage points in a year to 7.21 per cent.
Concept note
The yield on government bonds is a benchmark for all borrowing: when it rises, companies, banks and households pay more. Yields rise when investors sell bonds, which happens when they expect higher inflation, higher policy rates, more government borrowing or greater risk.
Crowding out describes how heavy government borrowing pushes up rates and leaves less for private investment. India’s fiscal framework rests on the FRBM Act, 2003; the fiscal-deficit target for 2026-27 is 4.3 per cent of GDP.
Indian government bonds have been part of the JP Morgan GBI-EM index since June 2024, which brought in foreign investors but also links Indian yields more closely to global ones.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (monetary policy, government budgeting, external sector). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** cost of capital, crowding out, term premium, fiscal consolidation, capital flows. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying yields and prices move together; they move in opposite directions. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Price down, yield up; G-sec yields are the economy’s benchmark rate; FRBM Act 2003. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why should a small business in India care about American bond yields? |
Question 16 of 18
1. Japan
2. Taiwan
3. The Philippines
4. Guam
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Facts
The First Island Chain runs from the Kuril Islands and Japan through the Ryukyu Islands and Taiwan to the Philippines and Borneo, enclosing the East China Sea and the South China Sea. Guam lies farther east on the Second Island Chain, with the Northern Mariana Islands.
Analysis
Writing in The Hindu, Anil Raman notes that the 2026 US National Defense Strategy focuses deterrence of China on the First Island Chain while asking partners, including India, to contribute more.
Concept note
The island chain concept is a Cold War idea later adopted in Chinese naval thinking: the first chain marks the waters China seeks to dominate, the second (Japan’s Bonin Islands, the Marianas including Guam) its longer reach. The US National Defense Strategy of 2026 lists four goals: defend the homeland, deter China, get allies and partners to do more, and rebuild the US defence industrial base.
India’s defence ties with the US rest on the Major Defence Partner designation (2016) and the foundational agreements LEMOA (2016), COMCASA (2018) and BECA (2020). India is not a treaty ally; its strategy combines partnerships with strategic autonomy.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (India and the world, Indo-Pacific); GS1 (physical geography of the Pacific). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** burden-sharing, extended deterrence, strategic autonomy, leverage, Indo-Pacific balance. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing Guam on the First Island Chain; it is on the Second. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** First chain: Japan, Ryukyus, Taiwan, Philippines, Borneo; Second chain: Bonins, Marianas, Guam. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What does India gain, and risk, when Washington asks partners to do more? |
Question 17 of 18
1 The Central Bureau of Investigation derives its legal powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
2 The Central Vigilance Commission was given statutory status by the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.
3 The committee that recommends the appointment of the CBI Director includes the Chief Justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court nominated by the Chief Justice.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The CBI, set up by a Home Ministry resolution of 1963, draws its powers from the DSPE Act, 1946.
Statement 2Correct
The CVC, first set up by executive resolution in 1964, became statutory under the CVC Act, 2003, following the Supreme Court’s Vineet Narain judgment of 1997.
Statement 3Correct
Under Section 4A of the DSPE Act, inserted by the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the committee is the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition (or leader of the single largest Opposition party) and the Chief Justice of India or a judge nominated by the CJI.
Analysis
Writing in The Indian Express, a serving IPS officer recalls how Trinath Mishra, as officiating CBI Director, was moved within weeks in 1998 after authorising searches on a powerful corporate house; his case was later cited in the debate on tenure protection.
Concept note
Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1997) arose from the Jain hawala case and directed a minimum two-year tenure for the CBI Director, CVC supervision of the CBI’s anti-corruption work and statutory status for the CVC. Prakash Singh v. Union of India (2006) issued seven directives on police reform: a State Security Commission, a minimum two-year tenure for the DGP and field officers, a Police Establishment Board for transfers, separation of investigation from law and order, Police Complaints Authorities and a National Security Commission.
Amendments in 2021 allow the tenure of the CBI and Enforcement Directorate chiefs to be extended up to five years in total. Courage of conviction and integrity, central to GS4, matter most when institutional protection is weak.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS4 (integrity, probity in governance); GS2 (statutory bodies, police reform). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** institutional independence, tenure security, insulation from executive pressure, courage of conviction. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling the CBI a statutory body under a CBI Act; it works under the DSPE Act, 1946. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CBI: 1963 resolution, DSPE Act 1946; CVC: 1964 resolution, statutory 2003; Vineet Narain 1997; Prakash Singh 2006. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What protects an honest officer better: personal courage or institutional rules? |
Question 18 of 18
1 The Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025 proposes to replace the University Grants Commission, the All India Council for Technical Education and the National Council for Teacher Education.
2 The National Assessment and Accreditation Council was established by an Act of Parliament.
3 Entry 66 of the Union List concerns the coordination and determination of standards in institutions for higher education.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Bill would replace the UGC (1956 Act), AICTE (1987 Act) and NCTE (1993 Act) with a single body and three councils for regulation, accreditation and standards.
Statement 2Incorrect
NAAC was set up by the UGC in 1994 as an autonomous body, not by an Act of Parliament.
Statement 3Correct
Entry 66 of List I gives Parliament power over coordination and standards in higher education, while education in general is in Entry 25 of the Concurrent List.
Analysis
In The Hindu, Professor Amruth G. Kumar argues that compliance-heavy regulation makes institutions optimise for inspectors rather than for learning, and asks whether the Bill, now before a Joint Parliamentary Committee, will repeat that mistake.
Concept note
The Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 15 December 2025 and referred the next day to a 31-member Joint Parliamentary Committee (21 Lok Sabha and 10 Rajya Sabha members) chaired by Daggubati Purandeswari. Its councils are the Viniyaman (regulatory), Gunvatta (accreditation) and Manak (standards) Parishads.
NEP 2020 had proposed a Higher Education Commission of India with four verticals, including a separate funding body. Institutes of National Importance such as the IITs, NITs, IISERs and IIMs are governed by their own Acts.
Education moved from the State List to the Concurrent List through the 42nd Amendment, 1976.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (education, regulatory bodies, Parliament); GS2 (federalism). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** light but tight regulation, graded autonomy, outcome-based accreditation, compliance burden. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming NAAC is statutory; it is an autonomous body set up by the UGC. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** UGC 1956, AICTE 1987, NCTE 1993, NAAC 1994 (UGC); Union List Entry 66; education to Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment (1976). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the IITs come under the new regulator? |
Performance
Question-wise Result