UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 2 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
17 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 17
1. Atisha Dipankara Srijnana : Vikramashila mahavihara
2. Marpa the translator : Kagyu tradition of Tibetan Buddhism
3. Padmasambhava (Guru Rinpoche) : Hemis festival in Ladakh
4. Kanishka : Fourth Buddhist Council
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
Atisha (982 to 1054), born in Bengal, taught at Vikramashila before going to Tibet around 1042.
Pair 2Correct
Marpa Lotsawa (1012 to 1097), the teacher of Milarepa, is a founding figure of the Kagyu school.
Pair 3Correct
The Hemis festival (Hemis Tsechu) marks the birth anniversary of Padmasambhava, revered as Guru Rinpoche.
Pair 4Correct
The Fourth Buddhist Council was held in Kashmir under the patronage of the Kushan ruler Kanishka.
Analysis
On 2 October 2026 the Centre placed 28 standard place and feature names in Ladakh on the Survey of India map, including Atisha Giri, Marpa Lotsava Ri, Milarepa Kangri, Guru Rinpoche (a lake) and Kanishka Peak.
Concept note
Buddhism reached Tibet and the western Himalaya in two waves. The first, in the 8th century, is associated with Padmasambhava and the founding of Samye monastery.
After a period of decline, a “second diffusion” from the late 10th century was led in western Tibet by the translator Rinchen Zangpo (958 to 1055), credited with temples across Ladakh, Spiti and Kinnaur, and by the arrival of Atisha from Vikramashila, whose disciples founded the Kadam school. Marpa the translator travelled to India to study and passed his teachings to the yogi-poet Milarepa, from whom the Kagyu lineage descends.
Kashmiri scholars such as Shakyashribhadra carried learning to Tibet after the decline of the great north Indian monasteries. Vikramashila, in present-day Bhagalpur district of Bihar, was founded by the Pala king Dharmapala.
The Fourth Buddhist Council, under Kanishka, is associated with the compilation of the Mahavibhasha and the rise of Sarvastivada scholarship.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (Indian culture, Buddhism); GS3 (border areas). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** second diffusion of Buddhism, translators (lotsava), monastic universities, cultural geography of Ladakh. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Linking Marpa to the Gelug school, which was founded by Tsongkhapa. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Vikramashila was founded by the Pala king Dharmapala; Hemis honours Padmasambhava. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can place names strengthen a nation’s civilisational claim to a frontier? |
Question 2 of 17
1 Article 243D(6) of the Constitution enables a State to make provision for reservation of seats in Panchayats in favour of backward classes of citizens.
2 Under the "triple test" for reservation for backward classes in local bodies, the combined reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and backward classes in a local body may exceed 50 per cent of the seats if a dedicated commission recommends it.
3 Seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Panchayats are reserved in proportion to their population in that Panchayat area.
4 Elections to Panchayats are conducted by the Election Commission of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 243D(6) is an enabling provision; a State legislature may reserve seats and chairpersons’ offices for backward classes.
Statement 2Incorrect
The third limb of the triple test is that reservation for SCs, STs and OBCs taken together must not exceed 50 per cent of the seats in the local body; a dedicated commission decides the proportion only within that cap. The test draws on the Constitution Bench ruling in K. Krishna Murthy (2010) and was made a mandatory three-step requirement in Vikas Kishanrao Gawali v State of Maharashtra (2021).
Statement 3Correct
Under Article 243D(1), SC and ST seats are reserved as nearly as may be in proportion to their population.
Statement 4Incorrect
Article 243K vests Panchayat elections in the State Election Commission.
Analysis
On 1 October 2026 the Andhra Pradesh High Court set aside 34 per cent BC reservation in panchayats and 33.33 per cent in urban local bodies for breaching the 50 per cent ceiling.
Concept note
The 73rd and 74th Amendments (1992) created Parts IX and IXA. Reservation in local bodies works on three tracks: mandatory and population-based for SCs and STs (Articles 243D(1) and 243T(1)), mandatory for women at not less than one-third of seats (243D(3) and 243T(3)), and enabling for backward classes (243D(6) and 243T(6)).
In K. Krishna Murthy (2010) a Constitution Bench held that political backwardness differs from social and educational backwardness and that local-body reservation should not exceed 50 per cent vertically. Gawali (2021) made this a mandatory triple test: a dedicated commission to study backwardness in local bodies, local-body-wise proportions, and an overall cap of 50 per cent for SC, ST and OBC seats together.
Suresh Mahajan (2022) held that elections cannot be delayed for want of the test; seats are then treated as general. Articles 243E and 243U require elections before the five-year term ends, and Articles 243K and 243ZA give the State Election Commission charge of the polls.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (local government, reservation, judiciary). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** political backwardness, dedicated commission, contemporaneous data, timely elections. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing the State Election Commission with the Election Commission of India. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Krishna Murthy (2010) = origin of the conditions; Gawali (2021) = mandatory triple test; SC + ST + OBC within 50 per cent. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the 50 per cent cap be relaxed for local bodies, as it was for EWS? |
Question 3 of 17
1 Section 136A of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, which provides for electronic monitoring and enforcement of road safety, was inserted by the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019.
2 The Stockholm Declaration on road safety sets a goal of halving road traffic deaths by 2030.
3 On the Parivahan platform, SARATHI is the application for registration of vehicles, while VAHAN handles driving licences.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The 2019 amendment inserted Section 136A, enabling States to enforce traffic rules with speed cameras, CCTV and other electronic devices on highways and urban roads; Rule 167A of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989 gives the procedure.
Statement 2Correct
The Stockholm Declaration of February 2020 set the target of halving road deaths and injuries by 2030, adopted in the UN’s Second Decade of Action for Road Safety (2021 to 2030).
Statement 3Incorrect
VAHAN is the vehicle registration database and SARATHI the driving licence database; the pair is reversed.
Analysis
A Supreme Court order made public on 1 October 2026 directs States to block registration renewal, PUC certificates and ownership transfer for vehicles with unpaid e-challans and to withhold licence renewal for repeat violators; of about Rs 49,194 crore in e-challans issued, about Rs 26,175 crore has been recovered.
Concept note
The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 is the central law on licensing, registration, permits, insurance and traffic offences, while enforcement is carried out by State transport departments and traffic police. The 2019 amendment raised penalties steeply, created a Motor Vehicle Accident Fund, introduced cashless treatment in the golden hour, and added Section 136A on electronic enforcement.
The Supreme Court has monitored road safety since 2012 in S. Rajaseekaran v Union of India, setting up a Supreme Court Committee on Road Safety. MoRTH’s Road Accidents in India 2024 report recorded about 1.77 lakh deaths, with over-speeding the leading cause.
The Parivahan system links VAHAN (vehicles) and SARATHI (licences) across States, which is what allows dues on one service to block another. The Stockholm Declaration (2020) and the UN Decade of Action frame the global goal; India, among the countries with the highest number of road deaths, has endorsed it.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (judiciary, e-governance); GS3 (infrastructure, public safety). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** certainty of punishment, electronic enforcement, due process, State capacity. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Swapping VAHAN (vehicles) and SARATHI (licences). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 136A and Rule 167A govern camera-based enforcement. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is blocking a licence renewal for unpaid fines proportionate? |
Question 4 of 17
1 Under the CBG Obligation, City Gas Distribution entities are required to procure a specified share of CBG for their CNG (transport) and PNG (domestic) segments.
2 The SATAT initiative to promote CBG plants was launched by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
3 CBG is purified biogas consisting mainly of methane and can substitute for CNG.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The CBG Obligation places the duty to procure CBG on City Gas Distribution entities, at 3 per cent in 2026-27, 4 per cent in 2027-28 and 5 per cent from 2028-29.
Statement 2Correct
SATAT (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation) was launched by the Petroleum Ministry in 2018 to invite CBG plants and assure purchase of their gas.
Statement 3Correct
CBG is biogas cleaned of carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulphide so that it is mostly methane, then compressed; it is interchangeable with CNG.
Analysis
On 1 October 2026 the Petroleum Ministry launched GOBARdhan, a Rs 23,731 crore Central Sector Scheme for 2026-27 to 2035-36 with an administered CBG price of Rs 2,110 per MMBtu.
Concept note
Compressed biogas turns agricultural residue, cattle dung, press mud and municipal waste into a gaseous fuel through anaerobic digestion, leaving fermented organic manure as a by-product. India meets nearly half its natural gas needs through imports, so domestic CBG offers energy security, rural income and a way to reduce stubble burning and methane from open dung.
Earlier efforts were fragmented: GOBAR-Dhan began in 2018 under the Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen), SATAT under the Petroleum Ministry the same year, and a CBG Blending Obligation was announced in 2023, voluntary at first and mandatory from 2025-26. The 2026 GOBARdhan scheme unifies support under the Petroleum Ministry with six interventions: offtake assurance through the CBG Obligation, an administered price, capital assistance of up to Rs 2 crore per tonne per day for greenfield plants, pipeline support, an 85 per cent credit guarantee for MSME projects, and an ecosystem challenge fund.
About 217 plants with over 1,700 TPD were working by August 2026.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (energy, environment, agriculture); GS2 (government schemes). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** waste to wealth, circular economy, assured offtake, feedstock aggregation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling GOBARdhan (2026) a Centrally Sponsored Scheme; it is Central Sector. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CBO: 3 per cent (FY27), 4 per cent (FY28), 5 per cent from FY29. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why have past CBG targets been missed? |
Question 5 of 17
1 The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
2 Project Tiger was launched in 1983.
3 Valmiki Tiger Reserve is located in Uttar Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The NTCA was constituted under Section 38L of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, inserted by the 2006 amendment, and is chaired by the Union Environment Minister.
Statement 2Incorrect
Project Tiger was launched on 1 April 1973, starting with Corbett; 1983 is the year Buxa was declared a tiger reserve.
Statement 3Incorrect
Valmiki Tiger Reserve is in West Champaran district of Bihar, adjoining Nepal’s Chitwan National Park.
Analysis
On 2 October 2026 a tigress from Valmiki was released in Buxa Tiger Reserve, West Bengal, the first phase of a programme to restore a breeding population there.
Concept note
Tiger reserves are notified by State governments on the recommendation of the NTCA under Section 38V of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, and each must have a Tiger Conservation Plan with a core or critical tiger habitat and a buffer. India held an estimated 3,682 tigers in the 2022 assessment, about three-quarters of the world’s wild tigers.
Reintroduction has a mixed record: Sariska lost its tigers by the mid-2000s and received animals from Ranthambore from 2008; Panna rebuilt a breeding population after 2009; the first inter-State translocation, from Madhya Pradesh to Satkosia in Odisha in 2018, was abandoned. Buxa, in Alipurduar district of North Bengal and linked to forests in Bhutan and to Manas in Assam, spent eight years restoring prey and grassland before the 2026 release.
Success depends on prey, protection, connectivity and community consent, which is why the release is described as phased and adaptive.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (conservation, biodiversity); GS1 (protected areas on the map). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** reintroduction, prey base, landscape connectivity, coexistence. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing Valmiki Tiger Reserve in Uttar Pradesh; it is Bihar’s tiger reserve. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Project Tiger 1973; NTCA under Section 38L (2006 amendment). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should tigers be moved from crowded reserves to empty ones? |
Question 6 of 17
Statement-I: A Gram Sabha consists of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of a Panchayat at the village level.
Statement-II: Article 243G enables a State legislature to endow Panchayats with powers to prepare plans for economic development and social justice.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
This is the definition of the Gram Sabha in Article 243(b).
Statement IICorrectDoes not explain Statement I
Article 243G concerns the powers and functions States may give Panchayats, including planning for the matters in the Eleventh Schedule; it says nothing about who constitutes the Gram Sabha.
Analysis
Special Gram Sabhas on 2 October 2026 launched the People’s Plan Campaign 2026-27, “Sabki Yojana, Sabka Vikas”, under which Gram Panchayats prepare Gram Panchayat Development Plans for 2027-28.
Concept note
Part IX of the Constitution makes the Gram Sabha the foundation of rural local government, but Article 243A leaves its powers to State law. Article 243G allows States to devolve functions on the 29 subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule and to make Panchayats prepare plans for economic development and social justice.
The People’s Plan Campaign, held every year since 2018 from 2 October, is the mechanism through which more than 2.55 lakh Gram Panchayats prepare their Gram Panchayat Development Plans and upload them on eGramSwaraj. Gram Sabhas review schemes, identify gaps using the Panchayat Advancement Index, and set priorities.
Under the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, Gram Sabhas in Fifth Schedule areas get stronger powers, such as approval of plans and identification of beneficiaries. Weak own-source revenue, limited devolution of functions, funds and functionaries, and low attendance remain the main constraints on participatory planning.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Panchayati Raj, devolution, participatory governance). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** bottom-up planning, three Fs (functions, funds, functionaries), Gram Sabha empowerment. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the Gram Sabha as the elected Gram Panchayat; the Sabha is all voters of the village. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 243(b) defines the Gram Sabha; Article 243G with the Eleventh Schedule (29 subjects). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why do Gram Sabha meetings often fail to draw people, and how would you fix that? |
Question 7 of 17
1 The Environment Impact Assessment Notification, 2006 was issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2 Category A projects are appraised at the central level, with Expert Appraisal Committees making recommendations to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
3 Category B projects are appraised by the National Green Tribunal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The EIA Notification, 2006 was issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and requires prior environmental clearance for listed projects.
Statement 2Correct
Category A projects are appraised by sector-wise Expert Appraisal Committees, whose recommendations go to the Ministry for a decision.
Statement 3Incorrect
Category B projects are handled by State Environment Impact Assessment Authorities with State Expert Appraisal Committees; the National Green Tribunal is an appellate and adjudicatory body, not an appraising authority.
Analysis
On 30 September 2026 the Ministry directed appraisal bodies to process pending post-facto clearance proposals, accepting no new ones, after the Supreme Court’s Vanashakti judgment of 29 July 2026 quashed the 2021 Office Memorandum.
Concept note
Prior environmental clearance means that a project must be assessed before work begins, through screening, scoping, public consultation and appraisal. “Post-facto” or ex post facto clearance arises when a project starts or expands without it.
In 2017 the Ministry offered a one-time window for such violation cases, and in 2021 an Office Memorandum set a standing procedure for them. The Supreme Court struck the mechanism down in May 2025, recalled that judgment on a review petition, and in July 2026 quashed the 2021 memorandum while upholding the time-bound 2017 notification and keeping approvals already granted valid.
The principle reaffirmed is that prior clearance is mandatory unless the law is amended. The National Green Tribunal, set up under the NGT Act, 2010, hears appeals against clearances and environmental disputes.
Debates on the EIA process concern dilution through exemptions, the quality of impact reports, public hearings and monitoring of conditions after approval.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (environmental impact assessment); GS2 (judiciary, executive action). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** precautionary principle, prior clearance, regularisation of violations, rule of law. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the NGT as an appraisal body; it adjudicates appeals. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** EIA 2006 under EP Act 1986; Category A centre, Category B States. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is regularising a project that started without clearance ever justified? |
Question 8 of 17
1 The Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual and community forest rights.
2 Community forest resource rights cannot be recognised inside national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.
3 The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change is the nodal ministry for the implementation of the Act.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Under Section 6(1), the Gram Sabha initiates the process, receives and verifies claims and passes a resolution, which goes to the Sub-Divisional Level Committee and then the District Level Committee.
Statement 2Incorrect
A community forest resource includes customary common forest land within a village’s traditional boundaries, including reserved forests, protected forests and protected areas such as sanctuaries and national parks to which the community had traditional access.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal ministry for the Act.
Analysis
On 30 September 2026 Madhya Pradesh put in abeyance a forest department directive asking forest officers to receive community forest resource claims, after the Union Minister of State for Tribal Affairs wrote that it was not in consonance with the Act.
Concept note
The Forest Rights Act, 2006 corrects the “historical injustice” of rights left unrecorded when forests were consolidated as State property. It recognises individual rights over land under occupation, community rights such as grazing and minor forest produce, and the right to protect, regenerate, conserve or manage any community forest resource.
Other traditional forest dwellers qualify if they have lived in and depended on forests for three generations (75 years) before 13 December 2005; Scheduled Tribes need to show residence and dependence before that date. The process runs from the Gram Sabha to the Sub-Divisional and District Level Committees, with a State Level Monitoring Committee above.
Forest and revenue officials verify claims but cannot substitute for the Gram Sabha. Community forest resource recognition has lagged far behind individual titles in most States, and conflicts with forest departments over reserved and protected areas are the most common obstacle.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (rights of Scheduled Tribes, statutory bodies); GS3 (forest governance). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** historical injustice, community forest governance, Gram Sabha primacy, PESA. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming forest rights cannot exist inside protected areas. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Nodal ministry: Tribal Affairs; three generations = 75 years for OTFDs. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Do community forest rights help or hurt conservation? |
Question 9 of 17
Statement-I: A Purchasing Managers' Index reading above 50 indicates expansion in activity compared with the previous month.
Statement-II: The Purchasing Managers' Index is compiled from the actual volume of output reported by factories to the National Statistics Office.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The PMI is a diffusion index; 50 means no change from the previous month, above 50 expansion and below 50 contraction.
Statement IIIncorrect
The PMI is built from a survey of purchasing managers’ responses on new orders, output, employment, suppliers’ delivery times and stocks; the HSBC India PMI is compiled by S&P Global, a private firm. Volume data on production come from the Index of Industrial Production, compiled by the NSO.
Analysis
The HSBC India Manufacturing PMI rose to a seven-month high of 55.1 in September 2026, while gross GST collections rose 14.7 per cent to Rs 2.03 lakh crore.
Concept note
High-frequency indicators help track the economy between quarterly GDP releases. The PMI is a sentiment-based survey released at the start of each month, so it is the earliest signal; it captures the direction and breadth of change, not the level of output.
The Index of Industrial Production (IIP), compiled by the National Statistics Office under MoSPI with base year 2022-23 in its new series, measures the volume of production in mining, manufacturing, electricity and gas and some utilities, with a lag of about a month. The Index of Eight Core Industries, from the Office of the Economic Adviser in DPIIT, covers coal, crude oil, natural gas, refinery products, fertilisers, steel, cement and electricity.
GST collections reflect consumption and imports, though the import share of GST, at a record 32.2 per cent in September 2026, shows they also depend on prices and the exchange rate. Analysts read these indicators together.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (growth indicators, industry, taxation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** high-frequency indicators, diffusion index, nowcasting, import-led GST. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the PMI as official output data; it is a private survey index. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** PMI 50 = no change; IIP base year 2022-23 (new series); eight core industries in the ICI. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Which single indicator would you watch to judge consumer demand, and why? |
Question 10 of 17
1 The Most-Favoured-Nation principle is laid down in Article I of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade.
2 The Appellate Body of the World Trade Organization has been unable to hear appeals since December 2019 because no new members have been appointed.
3 India has ratified both the Forced Labour Convention (No. 29) and the Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (No. 105) of the International Labour Organization.
4 The G20 has a permanent secretariat that rotates with the Presidency.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article I of GATT 1994 requires that any advantage given to one member’s goods be extended to all members.
Statement 2Correct
The Appellate Body lost its quorum on 10 December 2019 as appointments were blocked, so appeals go “into the void”.
Statement 3Correct
India has ratified ILO Conventions 29 and 105, and Article 23 of the Constitution prohibits forced labour.
Statement 4Incorrect
The G20 has no permanent secretariat; the Presidency rotates yearly and works with the previous and next Presidencies (the troika).
Analysis
At the G20 Trade Ministers’ Meeting in Milwaukee under the United States Presidency, which ended on 1 October 2026, India defended MFN, consensus, special and differential treatment and a restored two-tier dispute settlement.
Concept note
The multilateral trading system rests on non-discrimination: Most-Favoured-Nation treatment (GATT Article I) and national treatment (Article III). Free trade agreements are permitted exceptions under GATT Article XXIV if they cover substantially all trade.
The WTO’s dispute settlement has two tiers, panels and the Appellate Body; since the Appellate Body stopped functioning in 2019, some members use the Multi-Party Interim Appeal Arbitration Arrangement, which India has not joined. The Finance Ministry’s Monthly Economic Review for September 2026 cited the WTO’s World Trade Report 2026: an “FTA world” replacing multilateralism would cut global GDP by 6.9 per cent and exports by 26.9 per cent by 2050, against gains of 2.9 and 17.9 per cent under enhanced cooperation.
India’s position is that FTAs should complement, not replace, the WTO. India amended its Foreign Trade Policy in July 2026 to bar imports made with forced labour, and the United Kingdom holds the G20 Presidency in 2027.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international institutions, trade diplomacy); GS3 (external sector). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** multilateralism, non-discrimination, dispute settlement crisis, policy space. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the G20 has a permanent secretariat like the WTO. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** MFN = GATT Article I; national treatment = Article III; FTAs under Article XXIV. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is India right to defend the WTO while signing many FTAs? |
Question 11 of 17
1 It is caused by a mutation in the beta-globin gene.
2 It is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern.
3 Higher levels of foetal haemoglobin tend to make the disease more severe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
A single change in the beta-globin gene produces haemoglobin S, which makes red cells sickle.
Statement 2Correct
A person must inherit two copies of the mutated gene to have the disease; carriers have sickle cell trait.
Statement 3Incorrect
Higher foetal haemoglobin protects against sickling and makes the disease milder, which is one reason many Indian patients have milder disease; the drug hydroxyurea works partly by raising foetal haemoglobin.
Analysis
CSIR-CCMB scientists have developed an India-specific Severity Score; its version ISS2 matched expert assessment in about 85 per cent of 171 children studied at Nagpur, against about 67 per cent for the international Paediatric Severity Score.
Concept note
India carries one of the largest burdens of sickle cell disease, concentrated among tribal communities in central and western India. The National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission, launched in 2023 with a target of 2047, focuses on screening people up to 40 years of age in affected areas, genetic counselling, sickle cell cards showing carrier status, and treatment including hydroxyurea and transfusion.
Because the disease is autosomal recessive, two carriers have a one-in-four chance in each pregnancy of a child with the disease, which is why premarital and antenatal screening are central. Indian patients often have milder disease than African patients, partly because of higher foetal haemoglobin, but anaemia, infections and malnutrition worsen it.
Gene therapies based on CRISPR editing have been approved abroad, and India has its own research programmes, but cost and access remain barriers. Population-specific clinical tools, like the CCMB score, help decide treatment where laboratories are scarce.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (health, vulnerable sections); GS3 (biotechnology). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** genetic screening, tribal health, hydroxyurea, population-specific medicine. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking higher foetal haemoglobin worsens sickle cell disease; it protects. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Beta-globin mutation; autosomal recessive; Mission target 2047. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you run a screening drive in a tribal district? |
Question 12 of 17
2 The Nirbhaya Fund is a non-lapsable corpus for initiatives on the safety and security of women.
3 One Stop Centres for women affected by violence are run under a scheme of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Public order is Entry 1 and police Entry 2 of List II, so policing is primarily a State responsibility.
Statement 2Correct
The Nirbhaya Fund, set up in 2013 after the December 2012 Delhi gang rape, is a non-lapsable fund administered by the Department of Economic Affairs, with the Ministry of Women and Child Development as the nodal body for appraising projects.
Statement 3Incorrect
One Stop Centres, set up from 2015, come under the Ministry of Women and Child Development, now within the Sambal component of Mission Shakti.
Analysis
A Hindu editorial notes that NCRB data show crimes against women rising from about 2.4 lakh in 2012 to 4.4 lakh in 2024 and calls for outcome-based policing rather than restrictions on women.
Concept note
The response to the 2012 Delhi case produced the Justice J.S. Verma Committee, whose report of January 2013 led to the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, which widened the definition of rape and created offences such as stalking, voyeurism and acid attack. The Nirbhaya Fund financed Safe City projects in eight cities, the Emergency Response Support System (112), forensic capacity, and One Stop Centres.
Fast-track special courts were set up from 2019 for rape and POCSO cases. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, in force from 1 July 2024, groups offences against women and children in one chapter.
Critics point to uneven use of the Fund, CCTV and lighting that are not monitored or linked to a response, and long trials. Because police and public order are State subjects, outcomes depend on State capacity; the Centre funds, sets standards and monitors through the Ministry of Home Affairs and the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (women’s issues); GS2 (schemes, federalism); GS4 (protection versus autonomy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** outcome-based policing, survivor-centred justice, implementation gap, patriarchy. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing One Stop Centres under the Home Ministry; they are a WCD scheme. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Police = Entry 2, List II; public order = Entry 1, List II. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** A city proposes curfews for women’s hostels after assaults. How do you respond? |
Question 13 of 17
Statement-I: Article 51A of the Constitution expressly requires every citizen to respect the National Song.
Statement-II: In Bijoe Emmanuel v State of Kerala, the Supreme Court held that students who stood respectfully during the National Anthem but did not sing it could not be punished.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement IIncorrect
Article 51A(a) names the ideals and institutions of the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem; it does not mention the National Song, whose status rests on the Constituent Assembly’s statement of 24 January 1950 that it would be “honoured equally”.
Statement IICorrect
In Bijoe Emmanuel (1986) the Court held that expelling students who stood respectfully but did not sing, for reasons of religious faith, violated Articles 19(1)(a) and 25.
Analysis
A 2026 amendment to the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 brought the National Song within its penal provisions; a challenge is pending, and the senior advocate Sanjay Hegde argues in The Hindu for inclusion over compulsion.
Concept note
Jana Gana Mana, written by Rabindranath Tagore, and Vande Mataram, by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, were both given national status by the Constituent Assembly on 24 January 1950, when President-elect Rajendra Prasad said the Song would be honoured equally with the Anthem. The Anthem is the first of five stanzas of Tagore’s song; the Song’s first two stanzas, written around 1875, were adopted for national gatherings by the Congress Working Committee in 1937 because later stanzas from Anandamath (1882) carry religious imagery.
The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 originally covered the Flag, the Constitution and the Anthem. Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment (1976) on the Swaran Singh Committee’s recommendation and are not enforceable by courts in themselves.
Bijoe Emmanuel is the leading case on conscientious non-participation; the principle is that respect can be required but participation cannot be compelled against conscience.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (fundamental rights and duties); GS1 (freedom struggle); GS4 (conscience). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** constitutional patriotism, conscientious objection, proportionality, inclusion. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming Article 51A covers the National Song. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Both symbols adopted 24 January 1950; Fundamental Duties via 42nd Amendment (1976). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can patriotism be legislated? |
Question 14 of 17
1 Electoral rolls in India are prepared and revised under the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
2 Form 7 under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960 is used for the inclusion of overseas electors.
3 The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls is vested in the Election Commission by Article 324.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The 1950 Act governs the preparation, revision and correction of electoral rolls (Sections 15 to 25), while the 1951 Act governs the conduct of elections.
Statement 2Incorrect
Form 6A is for overseas electors; Form 7 is for objecting to an entry or seeking deletion of a name.
Statement 3Correct
Article 324(1) vests the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections in the Election Commission.
Analysis
In a Hindu Parley, former Election Commissioner Ashok Lavasa and economist Prasenjit Bose discuss bulk Form 7 objections during the Special Intensive Revision and the rarely used penalty for false declarations under Section 31 of the 1950 Act.
Concept note
Each constituency’s roll is prepared by an Electoral Registration Officer under the supervision of the State’s Chief Electoral Officer and the Election Commission. Forms under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960 are: Form 6 for inclusion, 6A for overseas electors, 7 for objections and deletion, and 8 for shifting and correction.
An objection must be published, notice served on the person concerned and, where needed, an inquiry held under Rule 20 before a decision; courts have held that names cannot be deleted without a hearing. Section 31 of the 1950 Act makes a knowingly false declaration punishable with up to one year’s imprisonment, fine or both.
Summary revisions happen every year; a special or intensive revision, under Section 21(3), is a fresh, house-to-house preparation. Article 326 guarantees adult suffrage to every citizen of 18 years and above who is not disqualified, so the balance between removing ineligible entries and protecting genuine voters is a constitutional one.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Election Commission, RP Acts, electoral reforms). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** roll integrity, due process before deletion, deterrence, data disclosure. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Mixing up the 1950 Act (rolls) and the 1951 Act (conduct of elections). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Form 6 inclusion, 6A overseas, 7 objection or deletion, 8 shifting or correction. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** You receive 1,000 objections from ten people overnight. What do you do? |
Question 15 of 17
1 Mohandas Gandhi founded the Natal Indian Congress in 1894.
2 Gandhi represented the Indian National Congress at all three Round Table Conferences.
3 The voting age in India was lowered from 21 to 18 years by the Sixty-first Constitutional Amendment.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Gandhi founded the Natal Indian Congress on 22 August 1894, in the campaign against a bill to disenfranchise Indians in Natal.
Statement 2Incorrect
Gandhi attended only the Second Round Table Conference (1931), as the Congress’s sole representative; the Congress boycotted the first and third.
Statement 3Correct
The Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988 amended Article 326 to lower the voting age from 21 to 18.
Analysis
In The Indian Express, C. Uday Bhaskar recalls that Gandhi’s first political battle was for the vote, and asks those revising electoral rolls today to apply three Gandhian tests.
Concept note
Gandhi arrived in South Africa in 1893 and was drawn into politics in 1894 when Natal moved to disenfranchise Indians. He petitioned the colonial authorities, including the Secretary of State for the Colonies, Lord Ripon, and founded the Natal Indian Congress to organise the community.
Satyagraha as a method came later, in the Transvaal campaign from 1906. Back in India, Gandhi argued for adult franchise without property or literacy qualifications, notably at the Second Round Table Conference in London in 1931.
The Government of India Act, 1935 still restricted the vote to a minority. The Constituent Assembly adopted universal adult franchise in Article 326, a bold choice when literacy was low; the 61st Amendment (1988, in force 1989) lowered the age to 18.
Gandhi’s 1896 discovery that a candidate had put his name on a roll without his knowledge shows that the integrity of rolls has been a concern from the start of representative politics.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (Gandhi in South Africa, freedom struggle); GS2 (adult suffrage, electoral rolls). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** universal adult franchise, inclusion, self-respect, roll integrity. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying Gandhi attended all three Round Table Conferences. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Natal Indian Congress, 22 August 1894; 61st Amendment (1988) set the voting age at 18. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why did the Constituent Assembly choose adult franchise despite low literacy? |
Question 16 of 17
Statement-I: India’s 2016 Model Bilateral Investment Treaty allows a foreign investor to go directly to international arbitration without first approaching domestic courts.
Statement-II: India is not a contracting state to the Convention on the Settlement of Investment Disputes between States and Nationals of Other States (ICSID Convention).
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement IIncorrect
The 2016 Model BIT requires an investor to exhaust local remedies, pursuing domestic remedies for at least five years, before starting international arbitration; recent treaties with the UAE (2024) and Israel (2025) shorten this to three years.
Statement IICorrect
India has not signed the ICSID Convention, so investor-state disputes involving India are usually arbitrated under UNCITRAL rules.
Analysis
In The Indian Express, Surjit S Bhalla argues that the 2016 model shrank India’s treaty network from 73 treaties in force in 2015 to eight by 2021 and contributed to low net FDI.
Concept note
Bilateral investment treaties protect foreign investors against expropriation without compensation, discrimination and unfair treatment, and give them recourse to investor-state dispute settlement. India signed its first BIT with the United Kingdom in 1994 and more than 80 in the next two decades.
After the White Industries award of 2011, which held India liable for delays in its courts, and claims over retrospective taxation, India adopted a new Model BIT in December 2015, narrowing the definition of investment, dropping the most-favoured-nation clause, excluding taxation, and requiring exhaustion of local remedies. It then terminated most older treaties.
The Finance Minister told Parliament in 2025 that the model would be revised. Supporters say the model protects regulatory space for tax, health and environment policy; critics argue it raises perceived risk and deters long-term capital.
Net FDI, gross inflows minus repatriation and outward FDI, is the measure that matters for capital formation.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (bilateral agreements); GS3 (FDI, external sector). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** investor protection versus right to regulate, ISDS, exhaustion of local remedies, net FDI. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming India is a member of ICSID. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** First BIT: UK, 1994; Model BIT: December 2015; recent BITs: UAE 2024, Israel 2025. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Was terminating old BITs worth the cost to investor confidence? |
Question 17 of 17
1 RISC-V is an open-standard instruction set architecture that can be used without paying licence fees.
2 OSAT units fabricate silicon wafers in clean rooms. 3. "Tape-out" refers to the final packaging and testing of a finished chip before sale.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
RISC-V is an open instruction set architecture, unlike licensed architectures such as ARM; India’s DIR-V programme builds processors on it.
Statement 2Incorrect
OSAT (outsourced semiconductor assembly and test) units assemble, test, mark and package chips made elsewhere; wafers are made in fabrication plants (fabs).
Statement 3Incorrect
Tape-out is the point at which a finished chip design is sent for manufacture, the last step of design, not packaging.
Analysis
In The Indian Express, former minister Rajeev Chandrasekhar argues that nine of twelve approved units under the India Semiconductor Mission are conventional assembly and test plants and that ISM 2.0 should fund chip design, advanced packaging and AI inference chips.
Concept note
The semiconductor value chain has three main stages. Design, done by fabless firms and integrated companies, captures the highest margins and most of the intellectual property.
Fabrication, the making of wafers in clean rooms, is extremely capital-intensive and concentrated in Taiwan, South Korea and the United States. Assembly, testing, marking and packaging (ATMP or OSAT) is the least capital-intensive and lowest-margin stage, though advanced packaging that integrates logic and memory for AI accelerators commands higher margins.
The India Semiconductor Mission, launched in December 2021 with Rs 76,000 crore, supports fabs, display fabs, compound semiconductor units, ATMP and OSAT plants and, through the Design Linked Incentive scheme, chip design start-ups. India has a large chip design workforce, much of it employed by global firms.
The debate is whether to build the ecosystem from the lower rungs upward, as some East Asian economies did, or to target design and IP directly.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (science and technology, industrial policy); GS2 (technology geopolitics). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** value chain, fabless design, technology sovereignty, export controls. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing OSAT (assembly and test) with fabrication. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** ISM launched December 2021; RISC-V is open; tape-out ends the design stage. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India chase investment volume or position in the value chain? |
Performance
Question-wise Result