UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 1 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
16 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 16
1 The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices is a statutory body established under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
2 For sugarcane, the Union Government fixes a Fair and Remunerative Price instead of an MSP. 3. Safflower is one of the mandated Rabi crops for which an MSP is announced.
4 The Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) includes a Price Deficiency Payment Scheme component.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
The CACP is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, set up in 1965 as the Agricultural Prices Commission and renamed in 1985; it is not a statutory body.
Statement 2Correct
The Centre fixes a Fair and Remunerative Price for sugarcane under the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966.
Statement 3Correct
The six mandated Rabi crops are wheat, barley, gram, lentil, rapeseed and mustard, and safflower.
Statement 4Correct
PM-AASHA (2018) has a Price Support Scheme, a Price Deficiency Payment Scheme and a private procurement pilot.
Analysis
For Rabi Marketing Season 2027-28, safflower got the largest increase (Rs 675) and wheat the smallest (Rs 25, to Rs 2,610 a quintal), a signal in favour of oilseeds and pulses.
Concept note
The MSP is a price at which the government is prepared to buy a crop, announced before sowing so that farmers can plan. The CACP recommends MSPs for 22 mandated crops (14 Kharif, 6 Rabi and 2 commercial crops, copra and raw jute), weighing cost of production, demand and supply, domestic and international prices, inter-crop parity and the effect on consumers; the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs decides.
Costs are estimated at three levels: A2 (paid-out costs), A2+FL (adding imputed family labour) and C2 (adding rent on owned land and interest on owned capital). Since the Union Budget 2018-19, MSPs are fixed at least 1.5 times A2+FL.
MSP has no statutory backing; effective support depends on procurement by the Food Corporation of India and State agencies for wheat and paddy, and by NAFED and NCCF under PM-AASHA for pulses and oilseeds. The Shanta Kumar Committee (2015) estimated that only about 6 per cent of farm households sold to a procurement agency at MSP.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (MSP, procurement, cropping patterns); GS2 (government interventions in agriculture). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** A2+FL versus C2, price signal for diversification, procurement coverage, PM-AASHA. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling the CACP a statutory or constitutional body; it is an attached office. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 22 mandated crops: 14 Kharif, 6 Rabi, 2 commercial; sugarcane gets an FRP. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should MSP be a legal entitlement, and what would it cost? |
Question 2 of 16
1 The Green Energy Corridor programme strengthens intra-State transmission networks for evacuating renewable energy.
2 Electricity is a subject in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule.
3 In the power sector, curtailment refers to a grid operator directing a generating plant to reduce its output, for instance because of transmission congestion.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Green Energy Corridor, implemented by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy with State Transmission Utilities, builds intra-State lines and substations (with an inter-State component in Phase I).
Statement 2Incorrect
Electricity is Entry 38 of the Concurrent List (List III), so both Parliament and State legislatures can legislate on it.
Statement 3Correct
Curtailment is an instruction to a plant to cut generation for congestion or grid security; it is not a power cut to consumers.
Analysis
The Cabinet approved GEC Phase III with an outlay of Rs 1,86,405 crore to evacuate up to 135 GW of renewable power and, for the first time, 50 GWh of battery storage.
Concept note
India’s binding constraint in the energy transition has moved from building solar and wind plants to integrating them. About 21 GW of renewable capacity has been connected through temporary access while dedicated lines are built, and in April-June 2026 grid operators curtailed 8,133 GWh of solar power.
The Green Energy Corridor began with Phase I in eight renewable-rich States, followed by Phase II in seven States; delays have mostly come from right-of-way compensation. Phase III adds a Rs 50,000 crore component for 50 GWh of battery energy storage at generator sites or important grid locations, to absorb midday solar surplus and supply power after sunset, reducing both curtailment and the need for extra lines.
Greenfield lines will be awarded through Tariff Based Competitive Bidding on a Build-Own-Operate-Maintain model, while brownfield upgrades follow cost-plus. Central Financial Assistance of Rs 54,082 crore offsets intra-State transmission charges so that consumers in renewable-rich States do not bear the full cost of national climate goals.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (energy infrastructure, climate targets); GS2 (Concurrent List, Centre-State relations). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** grid integration, curtailment, battery storage as virtual transmission, right of way. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating electricity as a State List or Union List subject; it is in the Concurrent List. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** GEC-III: 135 GW, 50 GWh BESS, Rs 1,86,405 crore, target FY 2032-33. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is storage a better buy than new transmission lines? |
Question 3 of 16
Statement-I: Under Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency (CAFE) norms, a car manufacturer may sell individual models whose fuel consumption is higher than the manufacturer’s target.
Statement-II: CAFE norms for passenger cars in India are notified by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
CAFE norms cap the sales-weighted average fuel consumption of a manufacturer’s whole fleet, so some models can exceed the target if efficient cars, hybrids or EVs bring the average down.
Statement IIIncorrect
CAFE norms are notified by the Ministry of Power under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 and administered by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency; the Road Transport Ministry notifies Bharat Stage emission norms under the Motor Vehicles Act.
Analysis
The CAFE-III norms, for 2027-28 to 2031-32, tighten the fleet benchmark by about 16.7 per cent, count each battery EV as three vehicles and drop a proposed concession for cars under 909 kg.
Concept note
Fuel-efficiency regulation in India has two separate tracks. Bharat Stage norms, notified by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, limit tailpipe pollutants such as nitrogen oxides and particulate matter for each vehicle model; India moved directly from BS-IV to BS-VI in April 2020.
CAFE norms, notified by the Ministry of Power under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001, limit average fuel consumption and therefore carbon dioxide across a manufacturer’s fleet; they began in 2017, with a second phase from 2022-23. CAFE-III uses a weight-based formula with a reference weight of 1,229 kg, so a heavier fleet gets a slightly higher target.
Manufacturers earn credits for over-achievement, which they can carry forward within a compliance block or trade; a firm in deficit can buy credits from the Bureau of Energy Efficiency at Rs 2,500 per g CO2/km in 2027-28, rising to Rs 4,500. Super credits, a carbon neutrality factor for ethanol and biofuels, and limited credits for efficiency technologies give carmakers several compliance pathways.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (environment, energy efficiency, EVs); GS2 (statutory bodies: BEE). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** fleet averaging, super credits, credit trading, technology neutrality. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing CAFE (fuel use and CO2, Ministry of Power) with BS norms (pollutants, MoRTH). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Energy Conservation Act 2001 created the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (2002). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Do EV super credits dilute real emission cuts? |
Question 4 of 16
1 The India Meteorological Department’s Long Period Average for seasonal rainfall is based on rainfall during 1971-2020.
2 All-India seasonal rainfall below 90 per cent of the Long Period Average is classified as "deficient".
3 Drought in a district is officially declared by the India Meteorological Department.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The LPA for June-September is the average of 1971-2020, about 87 cm.
Statement 2Correct
Below 90 per cent is deficient; 90-95 per cent is below normal; 96-104 per cent is normal; 105-110 per cent above normal; above 110 per cent excess.
Statement 3Incorrect
IMD measures and classifies rainfall, but drought is declared by State governments under the Manual for Drought Management, using rainfall, vegetation, soil moisture and crop indicators.
Analysis
The 2026 season ended at 87 per cent of LPA (759.4 mm against 868.6 mm), the lowest since 2015, with east and north-east India at its driest since 1901.
Concept note
IMD issues its first seasonal forecast in April and an update at the end of May, with regional and monthly outlooks. In 2026 it forecast 92 per cent of LPA in April and 90 per cent in May, and the final figure fell within those ranges, though monthly forecasts missed (June received only about 65 per cent of normal).
Regional distribution mattered more than the national total: north-west and central India ended near normal, helped by 77 days of low-pressure systems against a normal of 57, while the south peninsula was 24 per cent short and east and north-east India 25.6 per cent short. El Niño, the warm phase of ENSO, weakened the monsoon; the Madden-Julian Oscillation, an eastward-moving band of clouds with a 30-60 day cycle, stayed unfavourable over the south.
For districts, rainfall within 19 per cent of normal is “normal”, 20-59 per cent below is “deficient” and 60-99 per cent below is “large deficient”. After a drought declaration by a State, central assistance for severe drought comes from the National Disaster Response Fund after an inter-ministerial central team’s assessment.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (monsoon, El Niño, MJO); GS3 (agriculture, disaster management). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** regional heterogeneity, El Niño year, extended-range forecasts, drought-proofing. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating "below normal" (90-95 per cent) as "deficient" (below 90 per cent). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** LPA = 1971-2020 average, about 87 cm for June-September. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why can a "near-normal" national monsoon still mean distress for farmers? |
Question 5 of 16
1. Article 315 : Public Service Commissions for the Union and for the States
2. Article 317 : Removal and suspension of a member of a Public Service Commission
3. Article 322 : Annual report of the Union Public Service Commission
4. Article 320 : Functions of Public Service Commissions
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
Article 315 provides for a PSC for the Union and for each State, and for Joint State PSCs created by Parliament.
Pair 2Correct
Article 317 allows removal for misbehaviour only after an inquiry by the Supreme Court, and for insolvency, outside employment or infirmity.
Pair 3Incorrect
Article 322 makes the Commission’s expenses a charge on the Consolidated Fund; the annual report to the President is under Article 323.
Pair 4Correct
Article 320 lists functions, including examinations and advice on recruitment, promotions and disciplinary matters.
Analysis
The UPSC completes 100 years on 1 October 2026; the first Public Service Commission was constituted on 1 October 1926.
Concept note
Part XIV of the Constitution (Articles 315 to 323) secures the independence of Public Service Commissions in several ways. The Chairman and Members of the UPSC are appointed by the President for six years or until 65 (62 for a State PSC).
They can be removed only on the grounds and in the manner in Article 317, including a Supreme Court inquiry for misbehaviour. Their conditions of service cannot be varied to their disadvantage after appointment (Article 318).
The UPSC Chairman cannot take any further employment under the Union or a State, though a Member may become Chairman of the UPSC or a State PSC (Article 319). Expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund and not voted (Article 322).
The Commission’s role is largely advisory: the Government can depart from its advice, but must explain non-acceptance in a memorandum laid before Parliament with the annual report (Article 323). In State of U.P. v. Manbodhan Lal Srivastava (1957), the Supreme Court held that consultation under Article 320(3) is directory, not mandatory.
Parliament can extend the UPSC’s functions by law (Article 321).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (constitutional bodies, civil services); GS4 (merit, impartiality). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** insulation from patronage, advisory role, Article 323 memorandum, examination integrity. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Swapping Article 322 (expenses charged) with Article 323 (annual report). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** State PSC members are appointed by the Governor but removable only by the President. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the government be bound by UPSC advice on disciplinary matters? |
Question 6 of 16
1 It replaces a law enacted in the nineteenth century.
2 It makes electronic copies of bank records admissible as evidence, subject to conditions such as the absence of tampering.
3 It allows any court to compel a bank officer to appear and prove bank records in every proceeding, whether or not the bank is a party.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The 2026 Act replaces the Bankers’ Books Evidence Act, 1891.
Statement 2Correct
An electronic or digital copy of a banker’s book is admissible if it is a true copy and no unauthorised change or tampering is detected; certification may use manual, digital or electronic signatures.
Statement 3Incorrect
A bank officer cannot ordinarily be compelled to produce books or testify where the bank is not a party; this can be ordered only by a written court order recording a “special cause”, such as doubtful accuracy of the record.
Analysis
The Act comes into force on 1 October 2026 and can be extended by notification to other financial-sector entities.
Concept note
The Bankers’ Books Evidence Act, 1891 was written for paper ledgers. Its core idea, that the contents of bank records can be proved by certified copies instead of producing the original books, saved banks from carting ledgers to courts.
The 2026 Act keeps that framework but makes it technology-neutral: “bankers’ books” include records kept in any form of data storage, and electronic copies are admissible subject to integrity conditions. It applies to court proceedings, arbitrations, and investigations or inquiries under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 or any other law.
It protects bank staff from routine summons where the bank is not a party, listing the special causes for which a court may still require them. The general law of evidence is now the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872; the Bankers’ Books Act is a special law for banking records.
The Bill was introduced and passed by the Lok Sabha in August 2026 and later by the Rajya Sabha.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (legislation, justice delivery); GS3 (banking, digital economy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** technology-neutral law, electronic evidence, ease of doing business, integrity safeguards. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the new criminal laws of 2023 replaced this Act; it is a separate special law. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should courts balance easy admissibility of digital records against the risk of manipulation? |
Question 7 of 16
Facts
Option (d) is the incorrect statement and the answer: a monthly index of production volume in mining, manufacturing and electricity describes the Index of Industrial Production (IIP); the ASI is an annual survey of registered factories giving data on output, value added, employment, wages and capital. Option (a) is correct: MoSPI (National Statistics Office) conducts it under the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008, through a web portal. Option (b) is correct: factories under Sections 2m(i) and 2m(ii) form its core.
Option (c) is correct: bidi and cigar establishments are covered, as are some electricity undertakings and large units in State business registers.
Analysis
ASI 2024-25 counted 2.67 lakh factories, 2.10 crore persons engaged and GVA growth of 9.59 per cent.
Concept note
The ASI is the principal source of structural statistics on India’s registered manufacturing sector. It feeds the compilation of National Accounts, State-level industrial analysis and policy by ministries.
The unit of enumeration is the factory for manufacturing (an establishment approach, not an enterprise approach), with a frame maintained from the lists of the Chief Inspector of Factories in each State. ASI 2024-25, released on 30 September 2026, showed factories up 2.64 per cent to 2.67 lakh, invested capital up 11.10 per cent, output up 7.81 per cent, GVA up 9.59 per cent, employment up 7.19 per cent and emoluments up 12.08 per cent.
Tamil Nadu had the most factories (41,221), Maharashtra the largest share of GVA, and five States (Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana) about 56 per cent of employment. Basic metals, motor vehicles, chemicals, pharmaceuticals and food products contributed more than 45 per cent of manufacturing GVA.
The IIP, by contrast, is a monthly volume index with a new base year of 2022-23, useful for short-term trends but not for levels of employment or value added.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (industrial growth, employment, statistics). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** formal manufacturing, labour intensity, regional concentration, data quality. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the ASI and the IIP as the same series. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** ASI = annual, registered factories, value added and jobs; IIP = monthly, production volume. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why has manufacturing employment grown more slowly than output in many years? |
Question 8 of 16
Statement-I: The Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) scheme is designed to be compatible with World Trade Organization rules.
Statement-II: RoDTEP refunds only embedded duties and taxes actually incurred on exported products, which WTO rules do not treat as a prohibited export subsidy.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
RoDTEP, in force since 1 January 2021, replaced the Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS), which a WTO panel had found to be a prohibited export subsidy in a dispute brought by the United States, and it was designed to be WTO-compatible.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
Under the WTO Agreement on Subsidies and Countervailing Measures, remitting indirect taxes actually levied on exported goods is not a prohibited subsidy, and RoDTEP refunds only such embedded central, State and local levies that are not refunded under any other mechanism.
Analysis
RoDTEP (Commerce Ministry) and RoSCTL for apparel and made-ups (Textiles Ministry) have been extended to 31 December 2026 at existing rates.
Concept note
Under the WTO’s Agreement on Subsidies and Countervailing Measures, subsidies contingent on export performance are prohibited, but the remission of indirect taxes on exported goods, up to the amount actually levied, is not treated as a subsidy. That distinction underlies “zero-rating”: goods should be exported, not domestic taxes.
Taxes such as GST and customs duty are refunded through drawback and refund mechanisms, but some levies remain embedded in costs, for example duties on fuel used in transport, electricity duty and mandi tax. RoDTEP refunds such embedded central, State and local levies as a percentage of the export value through transferable electronic scrips.
RoSCTL, operational since 7 March 2019, does the same for apparel and made-ups, benefiting more than 15,400 exporters in 2025-26, mostly MSMEs. India’s earlier MEIS gave rewards as a percentage of export value to boost competitiveness, which is why it fell foul of WTO rules.
Extensions in short tranches give exporters continuity while rates are reviewed.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (export promotion, external sector); GS2 (WTO, international institutions). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** zero-rating, embedded taxes, WTO compatibility, export competitiveness. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking all export incentives are banned by the WTO; tax remission is allowed. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** RoDTEP from 1 January 2021; RoSCTL from 7 March 2019. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How can India support exporters without inviting WTO disputes? |
Question 9 of 16
1 The National Biodiversity Authority is a statutory body headquartered in Chennai.
2 Biodiversity Management Committees are constituted by State Biodiversity Boards at the district level.
3 The Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit Sharing is a protocol under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The NBA was set up on 1 October 2003 under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, with headquarters in Chennai.
Statement 2Incorrect
Biodiversity Management Committees are constituted by local bodies (panchayats and municipalities) within their areas, and they maintain People’s Biodiversity Registers.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Nagoya Protocol (adopted 2010, in force 2014) is a protocol under the Convention on Biological Diversity, not the UNFCCC.
Analysis
Marking its 23rd Foundation Day, the NBA said it has realised more than Rs 278 crore through Access and Benefit Sharing since 2008 and disbursed over Rs 200 crore.
Concept note
India’s Biological Diversity Act, 2002 implements the Convention on Biological Diversity (1992) through a three-tier structure: the National Biodiversity Authority, State Biodiversity Boards and UT Biodiversity Councils, and Biodiversity Management Committees at the local body level. Access and Benefit Sharing requires users of biological resources and associated traditional knowledge, such as seed, pharmaceutical, AYUSH and cosmetics companies, to obtain approval and share benefits with the communities that conserved them.
The NBA has received 11,273 ABS applications and signed or approved 6,074. Its releases have supported more than 10,500 BMCs, and around Rs 100 crore went to protect Red Sanders in Andhra Pradesh.
The Act was amended in 2023 to ease compliance for AYUSH practitioners and research and to decriminalise some offences, followed by the Biological Diversity Rules, 2024 and ABS Regulations, 2025. ABS gives effect to the Nagoya Protocol and to Target 13 of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (2022).
The Cartagena Protocol, also under the CBD, deals with biosafety and living modified organisms.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (biodiversity conservation, IPR and traditional knowledge); GS2 (statutory bodies, local government). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** benefit sharing, biopiracy, People’s Biodiversity Registers, community rights. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the Nagoya Protocol under the UNFCCC; it belongs to the CBD. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CBD 1992; Cartagena (biosafety) 2000; Nagoya (ABS) 2010; KMGBF 2022. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does benefit sharing actually reach the communities that conserved a resource? |
Question 10 of 16
1 Minerals underlying the ocean within India’s territorial waters, continental shelf and exclusive economic zone vest in the Union.
2 Mineral resources of the deep seabed beyond national jurisdiction are regulated by the International Seabed Authority.
3 Offshore mineral blocks in India’s exclusive economic zone are auctioned by coastal State governments under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 297 of the Constitution vests lands, minerals and other things of value underlying the ocean within the territorial waters, the continental shelf and the exclusive economic zone in the Union.
Statement 2Correct
Under UNCLOS, the International Seabed Authority, headquartered in Kingston, Jamaica, regulates mineral activities in “the Area” beyond national jurisdiction.
Statement 3Incorrect
Offshore blocks are auctioned by the Union Ministry of Mines under the Offshore Areas Mineral (Development and Regulation) Act, 2002, amended in 2023; the MMDR Act, 1957 governs onshore minerals, where States grant concessions.
Analysis
The Ministry of Mines is launching the auction of two offshore mineral blocks in the Andaman Sea for Composite Licences.
Concept note
India’s maritime zones follow UNCLOS: territorial sea up to 12 nautical miles, contiguous zone up to 24, exclusive economic zone up to 200 nautical miles and the continental shelf as defined by the Convention; these are set out in India’s Maritime Zones Act, 1976. Within them, the Union owns seabed minerals under Article 297.
The Offshore Areas Mineral (Development and Regulation) Act, 2002 was amended in 2023 to make auction the mode of allocating production leases and composite licences (atomic minerals apart), to cap the area a single entity can hold and to create an offshore mineral trust. The Offshore Areas Mineral (Auction) Rules, 2024 govern the process.
Offshore resources include construction sand, lime mud, phosphorite and polymetallic nodules or crusts containing cobalt, nickel, manganese and copper, which matter for batteries and clean energy. Beyond 200 nautical miles, India holds an exploration contract from the International Seabed Authority for polymetallic nodules in the Central Indian Ocean Basin, pursued through the Deep Ocean Mission.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (distribution of mineral resources); GS2 (Union powers, UNCLOS); GS3 (critical minerals). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** blue economy, critical minerals, marine ecology, transparent allocation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming coastal States own offshore minerals as they own onshore ones. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 297; OAMDR Act 2002 (amended 2023); ISA in Kingston, Jamaica. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India mine its seabed before the ecological impacts are well understood? |
Question 11 of 16
Facts
Subic Bay lies on the western coast of Luzon, the largest island of the Philippines, opening onto the South China Sea, north-west of Manila Bay; it was a major US naval base until 1992. The other options pair real islands and seas, but not Subic Bay: Mindanao is in the southern Philippines, Java is in Indonesia, and Borneo is shared by Indonesia, Malaysia and Brunei.
Analysis
The second ASEAN-India Maritime Exercise (AIME-2026) began at Subic Bay on 28 September 2026 with INS Sahyadri and INS Kulish, under the theme “Anchored in Trust, United at Sea”.
Concept note
The Philippines is an archipelago of more than 7,000 islands grouped into Luzon in the north, the Visayas in the centre and Mindanao in the south. Subic Bay, in Zambales province on Luzon’s west coast, faces the South China Sea, where the Philippines has maritime disputes with China, including over Scarborough Shoal and the Second Thomas Shoal.
In 2016, an arbitral tribunal under UNCLOS ruled in the Philippines’ favour against China’s “nine-dash line” claims, a ruling China rejects. India supports freedom of navigation and the peaceful settlement of disputes in accordance with UNCLOS.
India-Philippines ties have grown in defence, including the sale of BrahMos missiles. The first ASEAN-India Maritime Exercise was held in 2023.
India’s Act East Policy and its maritime vision, MAHASAGAR, frame these engagements with South-East Asian navies, alongside exercises with individual ASEAN members.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (map of South-East Asia); GS2 (Act East, ASEAN, South China Sea). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** freedom of navigation, maritime partnerships, UNCLOS arbitration, Act East. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing Subic Bay in Mindanao or confusing it with Manila Bay. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Luzon (north), Visayas (centre), Mindanao (south); Sulu Sea lies between the Philippines and Borneo. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should India balance its ASEAN partnerships with its own ties with China? |
Question 12 of 16
1 Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland are the members of EFTA.
2 All four EFTA members are part of the European Economic Area.
3 The India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement contains a chapter on investment promotion and job creation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
EFTA has four members, Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland, none of them in the EU.
Statement 2Incorrect
Iceland, Liechtenstein and Norway are in the European Economic Area with the EU, but Switzerland is not; it relies on bilateral agreements with the EU.
Statement 3Correct
TEPA is India’s first trade agreement with a chapter on investment and job creation, under which EFTA states aim to raise investment in India by $100 billion over 15 years and facilitate one million direct jobs.
Analysis
TEPA entered into force on 1 October 2025; on its first anniversary, Iceland’s Ambassador argued that its investment and technology partnerships matter more than tariff lines.
Concept note
India signed TEPA with the four EFTA states in March 2024, and it took effect on 1 October 2025. EFTA offers concessions on 92.2 per cent of its tariff lines, covering 99.6 per cent of the value of India’s exports, while India offers concessions on 82.7 per cent of its lines, covering 95.3 per cent of EFTA’s exports, with sensitive sectors such as dairy protected.
TEPA is separate from the India-EU free trade agreement, concluded in January 2026, since EFTA states are not EU members. The agreement also opens technology cooperation, which Iceland pitches in geothermal direct use (drying fruit in Kinnaur), carbon storage by mineralising CO2 in basalt, as Iceland’s CarbFix does and as India’s Deccan Trap basalts might allow, and value addition in fisheries.
India has been an observer in the Arctic Council since 2013, released its Arctic Policy in 2022 and runs the Himadri research station at Ny-Ålesund in Svalbard, Norway.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (trade agreements, Europe); GS3 (investment, climate technology). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** investment-linked trade agreement, market access, technology partnership, monitoring. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating EFTA as part of the EU, or assuming Switzerland is in the EEA. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** EFTA = Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, Switzerland; TEPA in force 1 October 2025. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can an investment pledge in a trade agreement be enforced? |
Question 13 of 16
1 Net financial savings of households equal their gross financial savings minus their financial liabilities.
2 The Reserve Bank of India publishes its Financial Stability Report once a year.
3 An increase in risk weights on unsecured consumer loans requires banks to hold more capital against such loans.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Net financial savings are gross financial savings (deposits, insurance, pension and provident funds, shares and mutual funds, currency) minus financial liabilities (borrowings), so faster borrowing lowers net savings even if gross savings are steady.
Statement 2Incorrect
The RBI publishes the Financial Stability Report twice a year, usually in June and December.
Statement 3Correct
A higher risk weight raises the capital a bank must hold against a loan, making such lending costlier; the RBI raised risk weights on unsecured consumer credit in November 2023.
Analysis
An op-ed in The Hindu notes household debt at 45.5 per cent of GDP in September 2025, up from 39.2 per cent in March 2021.
Concept note
Household debt in India is moderate compared with many emerging economies, but its composition has shifted towards unsecured credit: personal loans, credit cards, consumer durable loans, buy-now-pay-later and app-based digital lending. Housing and education loans build assets and future incomes, while consumption borrowing brings future income under commitment, which is riskier for self-employed, informal and casual workers with uneven earnings.
Household net financial savings fell sharply after the pandemic and have since recovered somewhat, though estimates differ with the measure used. When households borrow for health care, schooling, rent or old age, debt substitutes for missing social protection.
At the macro level, credit-led consumption can lift demand briefly but raises debt service and makes consumption sensitive to interest rates and job losses. The RBI watches these risks through the half-yearly Financial Stability Report and has used macroprudential tools such as higher risk weights; its digital lending rules require loans to be disbursed directly to borrowers’ accounts and fees to be disclosed in a Key Fact Statement.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (banking, savings and investment, financial stability); GS2 (social protection). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** unsecured credit, distress borrowing, macroprudential policy, income-led demand. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading a fall in net financial savings as a fall in gross savings. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Financial Stability Report: half-yearly, by the RBI (with the FSDC sub-committee). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is easy digital credit inclusion or a debt trap? |
Question 14 of 16
1 The Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority was established under the Warehousing (Development and Regulation) Act, 2007.
2 Electronic negotiable warehouse receipts can be pledged as collateral to obtain loans.
3 The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development was set up on the recommendation of the Narasimham Committee.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The WDRA was constituted under the Warehousing (Development and Regulation) Act, 2007 to regulate warehouses and negotiable warehouse receipts.
Statement 2Correct
Electronic negotiable warehouse receipts (e-NWRs) are transferable and can be pledged with banks for loans, so farmers can store produce and avoid distress sales.
Statement 3Incorrect
NABARD was set up in 1982 on the recommendation of the CRAFICARD committee chaired by B. Sivaraman; the Narasimham Committees (1991, 1998) dealt with banking sector reform.
Analysis
Former Agriculture Secretary Sanjay Agarwal argues that India must move from financing production to financing the whole agricultural value chain.
Concept note
India’s agricultural credit architecture was built for production: nationalisation of 14 banks in 1969, Regional Rural Banks from 1975, NABARD as the apex development bank from 1982, the Kisan Credit Card from 1998 and priority sector lending targets (18 per cent of adjusted net bank credit for agriculture). Post-harvest activities, such as aggregation, storage, processing and logistics, remain under-financed, which is one reason only about 10-12 per cent of produce is processed in India.
Seasonal crops force processors to buy a year’s raw material within weeks, needing large working capital. Instruments exist but are scattered: warehouse receipt finance backed by e-NWRs from WDRA-registered warehouses, receivables and supply-chain finance, the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (2020) for post-harvest infrastructure, and credit guarantees.
Farmer Producer Organisations allow small farmers to aggregate, store and bargain, so that more of the value added stays with them. The sugar sector shows how inventory and warehouse-backed finance can overcome seasonality.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (agricultural marketing, food processing, rural credit). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** value-chain finance, warehouse receipts, post-harvest losses, FPOs. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Linking NABARD to the Narasimham Committee instead of CRAFICARD. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CRAFICARD (1979, B. Sivaraman) recommended NABARD; NABARD set up 12 July 1982. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why do farmers sell at harvest even when prices are low? |
Question 15 of 16
1 Wards Committees must be constituted within municipalities having a population of three lakh or more.
2 A Metropolitan Planning Committee is to be constituted in every Metropolitan area.
3 The District Planning Committee consolidates the plans prepared by both the Panchayats and the Municipalities in the district.
4 The State Finance Commission constituted under Article 243-I also reviews the financial position of the Municipalities.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 243S requires Wards Committees in municipalities with a population of three lakh or more.
Statement 2Correct
Article 243ZE requires a Metropolitan Planning Committee in every Metropolitan area (a population of ten lakh or more under Article 243P).
Statement 3Correct
Article 243ZD requires a District Planning Committee to consolidate the plans of Panchayats and Municipalities and prepare a draft development plan for the district.
Statement 4Correct
Under Article 243Y, the Finance Commission constituted under Article 243-I also reviews municipal finances and recommends devolution.
Analysis
A column on the Smart Cities Mission argues that special purpose vehicles bypassed these elected local institutions instead of strengthening them.
Concept note
The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 gave urban local bodies constitutional status in Part IXA (Articles 243P to 243ZG). It provides for three types of municipalities (Nagar Panchayats for areas in transition, Municipal Councils and Municipal Corporations), five-year terms with elections by the State Election Commission, reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and women, and the Twelfth Schedule listing 18 functions, including urban planning, roads, water supply, public health and slum improvement.
Devolution of functions, funds and functionaries depends on State legislation, and in practice it remains partial: municipal revenues are a small share of GDP and many bodies depend on grants. Planning bodies such as District and Metropolitan Planning Committees exist on paper in many places but meet irregularly.
The Smart Cities Mission (2015) routed projects through special purpose vehicles registered under the Companies Act, 2013, which critics say worked around rather than through elected councils. Part IXA does not automatically apply to Scheduled Areas; Parliament may extend it by law.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (local government, devolution); GS1 (urbanisation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** third tier, fiscal decentralisation, ward committees, parallel bodies. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the Twelfth Schedule functions must be devolved; devolution is left to States. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 243S (Wards Committees), 243ZD (DPC), 243ZE (MPC), 243Y (finance review). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should city mayors be directly elected with executive powers? |
Question 16 of 16
Facts
Section 96(C) of the Government of India Act, 1919 provided for a Public Service Commission, and the Lee Commission (1924) urged that it be set up without delay; it was constituted on 1 October 1926 with Sir Ross Barker as its first Chairman. The tempting distractor is the Government of India Act, 1935, which converted it into the Federal Public Service Commission (from 1937) and provided for Provincial Public Service Commissions. The Indian Councils Acts of 1892 and 1909 dealt with legislative councils.
Analysis
The UPSC’s two-day centenary programme, “Manthan”, opened on 30 September 2026, and the Prime Minister is to address the centenary celebrations on 1 October, the culmination of a year-long programme.
Concept note
Recruitment to the Indian Civil Service by open competitive examination began after the Charter Act of 1853 ended East India Company patronage, with the first examination held in London in 1855 on the recommendations of the Macaulay Committee. Demands for simultaneous examinations in India and for Indianisation of the services grew through the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries.
The Montagu-Chelmsford reforms and the Government of India Act, 1919 provided for a Public Service Commission, and the Lee Commission on the Superior Civil Services in India (1923-24) recommended both its early establishment and faster Indianisation. The Commission set up on 1 October 1926 had a Chairman and four Members, with functions laid down in rules framed in 1926, largely advisory.
Under the Government of India Act, 1935, it became the Federal Public Service Commission in 1937. On 26 January 1950, it became the Union Public Service Commission under Articles 315 to 323 of the Constitution, which guarantee its independence through security of tenure, charged expenditure and restrictions on future employment.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (constitutional development under British rule); GS2 (UPSC). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Indianisation, merit-based recruitment, evolution of the civil services. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Attributing the first PSC to the Government of India Act, 1935, which created the Federal PSC. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 1919 Act (PSC, 1926), 1935 Act (Federal PSC, 1937), Constitution (UPSC, 1950). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What should the civil services of 2047 look like? |
Performance
Question-wise Result