UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 30 September 2026
Test Your Knowledge
17 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 17
1 El Niño refers to the anomalous warming of sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean.
2 A positive Indian Ocean Dipole generally weakens the Indian summer monsoon.
3 Wheat, mustard and gram are sown mainly between October and December.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
El Niño is the warm phase of the El Niño-Southern Oscillation, when the central and eastern equatorial Pacific warms and the Walker circulation weakens.
Statement 2Incorrect
A positive IOD, with a warmer western Indian Ocean, generally supports the monsoon and can partly offset El Niño, as in 1997 and 2019.
Statement 3Correct
These are Rabi crops, sown from October to December and harvested from March to April.
Analysis
The Centre set the 2026-27 foodgrain target at 373.93 million tonnes, below the 376.56 million tonnes harvested in 2025-26, citing El Niño and a monsoon deficit of about 12 per cent.
Concept note
ENSO has three phases: El Niño (warm), La Niña (cool) and neutral. During El Niño, the trade winds weaken, warm water shifts east towards South America, and rising air moves away from the Indian Ocean, so India tends to get a weaker south-west monsoon; not every El Niño year is a drought year.
The Indian Ocean Dipole compares sea surface temperatures in the western and eastern Indian Ocean; a positive phase usually helps the monsoon. Rabi crops depend on stored water, residual soil moisture and winter rain from western disturbances, so a weak monsoon and a warm, dry El Niño winter reduce yields, and heat in February and March shrivels wheat grain.
The 2026 Rabi plan shifts low-rainfall districts from water-intensive crops to pulses and oilseeds, promotes pulses in eastern rice fallows, runs a Khet Bachao Abhiyan for balanced fertiliser use from 22 October to 30 November, and promises full procurement of tur, urad and masoor at MSP.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (climatology, El Niño, IOD); GS3 (cropping patterns, MSP, drought management). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** ENSO teleconnection, residual soil moisture, crop diversification, drought-proofing. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating a positive IOD as harmful to the monsoon; it usually helps. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** El Niño = warm Pacific, weak monsoon tendency; La Niña = cool Pacific, good monsoon tendency. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should MSP be restructured to reward water-saving crops? |
Question 2 of 17
1 The Shompen, who live in its interior forests, are classified as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group. 2. The Six Degree Channel separates it from Sumatra.
3 Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, forest dwellers cannot be removed from forest land until the recognition and verification of their rights is complete.
4 The Campbell Bay and Galathea National Parks are located on Little Andaman Island.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Shompen are one of the 75 PVTGs, a hunter-gatherer community of a few hundred people.
Statement 2Correct
The Six Degree Channel lies between Great Nicobar and Sumatra (Indonesia).
Statement 3Correct
Section 4(5) of the FRA bars eviction or removal until recognition and verification are complete.
Statement 4Incorrect
Both national parks, notified in 1992, are on Great Nicobar and form the core of the Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve.
Analysis
The Centre has asked the Supreme Court to stay Calcutta High Court proceedings on whether forest rights were settled before forest land was diverted for the Great Nicobar project.
Concept note
The Holistic Development of Great Nicobar Island, conceived by NITI Aayog, includes an international container transshipment terminal at Galathea Bay, a dual-use airport, a township and a gas-and-solar power plant, requiring about 130.75 sq km of forest. Its strategic value lies near the Six Degree Channel and the western approach to the Strait of Malacca.
The Forest Rights Act, 2006 recognises individual and community rights of forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers; an Environment Ministry circular of 3 August 2009 requires certification that these rights are settled, and Gram Sabha consent, before forest diversion. In Orissa Mining Corporation v. MoEF (2013, Niyamgiri), the Supreme Court upheld the Gram Sabha’s role.
The Shompen Policy of 2015 asks that their welfare be given priority when large-scale projects are considered. Indira Point on Great Nicobar is India’s southernmost point; the Ten Degree Channel separates the Andaman and Nicobar groups.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (island geography); GS2 (tribal rights, judicial review); GS3 (environment, ports). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** free, prior and informed consent; PVTG; strategic infrastructure; locus standi. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing the Six Degree Channel (Great Nicobar-Sumatra) with the Ten Degree Channel (Andaman-Nicobar). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Galathea Bay is a leatherback turtle nesting site; Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve 1989, UNESCO MAB 2013. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can a project of national importance be exempted from the Forest Rights Act? |
Question 3 of 17
1 The rights to consult a lawyer and to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours under Article 22 do not apply to a person held under a preventive detention law.
2 The maximum period of detention under the National Security Act, 1980 is twelve months.
3 The provision of the 44th Constitutional Amendment reducing the Advisory Board period to two months is in force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 22(3) excludes persons held under preventive detention laws from the protections of Articles 22(1) and 22(2).
Statement 2Correct
Section 13 of the NSA caps detention at twelve months from the date of detention.
Statement 3Incorrect
The 44th Amendment (1978) would reduce the period from three months to two, but that part has never been brought into force, so Article 22(4) still allows three months before an Advisory Board report is needed.
Analysis
The Supreme Court quashed an NSA detention in the Sambhal violence case, holding that a confession to a police officer cannot by itself ground the detaining authority’s satisfaction, and imposed Rs 10 lakh costs on the State.
Concept note
Preventive detention is detention without trial to prevent a person from acting in a manner prejudicial to specified interests; punitive detention follows conviction. The Constitution permits it with safeguards: Article 22(4) requires an Advisory Board report for detention beyond three months, Article 22(5) requires communication of grounds and the earliest opportunity to make a representation, and Article 22(6) allows facts to be withheld in the public interest.
Parliament has exclusive power over preventive detention for defence, foreign affairs and security of India (List I, Entry 9), and shares power with the States for security of a State, public order and essential supplies (List III, Entry 3). Under the NSA, a District Magistrate’s order lapses in 12 days unless the State approves it, grounds are to be given ordinarily within five days, and the case goes to an Advisory Board within three weeks.
Courts have held preventive detention to be a “necessary evil” (Rekha, 2011) and distinguished public order from law and order (Banka Sneha Sheela, 2021).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (fundamental rights, judiciary, executive accountability). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** subjective satisfaction, live nexus, punitive versus preventive, Advisory Board. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the 44th Amendment’s two-month rule applies; it is not in force. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NSA maximum 12 months; Advisory Board reference within 3 weeks. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is preventive detention compatible with a liberal democracy? |
Question 4 of 17
1 CAQM was established by an Act of Parliament.
2 Stage IV of GRAP applies when the Air Quality Index is above 450.
3 The jurisdiction of CAQM is confined to the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
4 GRAP measures can be invoked only after the Air Quality Index has actually crossed the threshold of a stage, and not on the basis of forecasts.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021 replaced an ordinance of 2020.
Statement 2Correct
Stage IV (Severe+) applies above AQI 450; the other stages are 201-300, 301-400 and 401-450.
Statement 3Incorrect
CAQM covers the whole NCR and adjoining areas of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
Statement 4Incorrect
Since 2022 GRAP is invoked proactively on the basis of AQI forecasts.
Analysis
CAQM revised GRAP on 28 September 2026, withdrawing the essential-goods exemption for older goods vehicles and extending the Stage III car curbs to Sonipat; the schedule now has 48 actions.
Concept note
Delhi-NCR’s winter pollution comes from a base of vehicle, dust, industrial and waste-burning emissions, made worse by paddy stubble burning in October-November, festival firecrackers and meteorology: low winds, falling temperatures and temperature inversion trap pollutants near the ground. GRAP was first notified by the Environment Ministry in January 2017 after the Supreme Court’s orders in the M.C. Mehta case, and was enforced by the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA), set up in 1998.
CAQM replaced EPCA and has powers to issue binding directions across the NCR and adjoining areas. GRAP’s stages escalate from dust control and PUC checks, through curbs on diesel generators and parking fees, to bans on construction and older vehicles, and finally to bans on polluting trucks, work from home and online schooling.
The National Clean Air Programme (2019) is a separate national programme for about 131 cities.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (pollution); GS2 (statutory bodies, inter-State coordination). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** airshed approach, forecast-based trigger, temperature inversion, source apportionment. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing GRAP (NCR emergency plan, CAQM) with NCAP (national city programme, MoEFCC). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CAQM Act 2021 replaced EPCA; GRAP first notified January 2017. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why have emergency bans not solved Delhi’s winter smog? |
Question 5 of 17
Statement-I: Parliament can alter the boundaries of a State by a law passed by a simple majority.
Statement-II: A law made under Article 3 of the Constitution is not deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Under Article 3, Parliament may form new States and alter the areas, boundaries or names of existing States by ordinary law, on the President’s recommendation after referring the Bill to the affected State legislature for its views.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
Article 4(2) provides that such laws are not amendments under Article 368, which is why a simple majority suffices.
Analysis
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, passed under this power, converted the State into two Union Territories; the Assembly’s resolution of 28 September 2026 seeks restoration of full Statehood.
Concept note
Articles 2 to 4 give Parliament wide power over the territory of States: Article 2 covers admission of new States, Article 3 the formation of new States and alteration of existing ones, and Article 4 makes consequential changes to the First and Fourth Schedules and exempts these laws from Article 368. The State legislature’s views are sought but are not binding, a feature often cited to describe Indian federalism as “an indestructible Union of destructible States”.
The J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 created the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature (Article 239A applied as for Puducherry) and Ladakh without one, from 31 October 2019. In In Re: Article 370 (11 December 2023), the Supreme Court upheld the abrogation, recorded the Union’s assurance that Statehood would be restored, and directed Assembly elections by 30 September 2024.
The Government of India has said Statehood will be restored at the appropriate time; 24 seats of the Assembly are reserved for Pakistan-occupied Jammu and Kashmir.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (federalism, Union Territories, amendment procedure). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** indestructible Union, asymmetric federalism, Article 239A, restoration of Statehood. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the affected State’s consent is required under Article 3; only its views are sought. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 4(2): laws under Articles 2 and 3 are not Article 368 amendments. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the reorganisation of a State into a Union Territory require its legislature’s consent? |
Question 6 of 17
1 The right to privacy was held to be a fundamental right by a nine-judge Bench of the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India.
2 The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 creates a separate category of sensitive personal data with stricter processing conditions.
3 The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 allows the Central Government to exempt any instrumentality of the State from its provisions on specified grounds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
In 2017, nine judges unanimously held privacy to be protected under Article 21 and Part III, overruling M.P. Sharma and Kharak Singh to that extent.
Statement 2Incorrect
Unlike the 2019 Bill, the 2023 Act treats all digital personal data alike and has no separate sensitive category.
Statement 3Correct
Section 17(2)(a) lets the Centre exempt state instrumentalities in the interests of sovereignty and integrity, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order and related grounds.
Analysis
A Hindu op-ed argues that police facial recognition, online doxxing and identity checks for electoral rolls form one chain of surveillance that India’s privacy law, framed around state action, does not cover.
Concept note
Puttaswamy (2017) laid down that any restriction of privacy must meet the tests of legality (a law), a legitimate aim, proportionality (suitability, necessity and balancing) and procedural safeguards. The Aadhaar judgment of 2018, also titled Puttaswamy, applied these tests and upheld Aadhaar with limits.
The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 regulates processing of digital personal data: it defines data fiduciaries and principals, requires notice and consent or specified legitimate uses, gives rights to access, correction and erasure, creates the Data Protection Board of India, and provides penalties up to Rs 250 crore. The DPDP Rules were notified in November 2025, with most operative provisions applying 18 months later.
Interception of communications is governed separately by the IT Act, 2000 (Section 69) and the Telecommunications Act, 2023. In the Pegasus case, a technical committee supervised by Justice R.V. Raveendran reported in 2022 that it found malware on some phones but could not conclude it was Pegasus.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (fundamental rights, data governance); GS3 (cyber security); GS4 (privacy ethics). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** proportionality, purpose limitation, state exemptions, surveillance chain. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the DPDP Act has a "sensitive personal data" class as the 2019 Bill did. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Puttaswamy (2017) nine judges; Aadhaar judgment (2018) five judges. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should police use of facial recognition require judicial authorisation? |
Question 7 of 17
1 The Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 applies to the Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule.
2 Kerala has Scheduled Areas notified under the Fifth Schedule.
3 Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, the Gram Sabha is the authority that gives the final decision on claims of forest rights.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
PESA extends Part IX to the Fifth Schedule Scheduled Areas with modifications that empower the Gram Sabha.
Statement 2Incorrect
Kerala has no Scheduled Areas, although it has a significant tribal population in districts such as Wayanad.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Gram Sabha initiates the process and passes resolutions on claims, the Sub-Divisional Level Committee examines them, and the District Level Committee takes the final decision.
Analysis
A Hindu op-ed on the 2026 Muthanga verdict argues that the trial of the 2003 Wayanad land agitation examined a policeman’s death but never the killing of an Adivasi, Jogi, and that the land promised in 2001 is still undelivered.
Concept note
The Constitution protects Scheduled Tribes through Article 46 (promotion of their educational and economic interests), Article 244 with the Fifth Schedule (Scheduled Areas in ten States, with Tribes Advisory Councils and the Governor’s power to modify laws) and the Sixth Schedule (autonomous district councils in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram), Article 338A (National Commission for Scheduled Tribes) and Article 275(1) grants. Land alienation is addressed by State laws restricting transfer of tribal land; in Kerala, a 1975 law on restoring alienated land was replaced in 1999 by one that allowed alternative land, which tribal groups opposed.
The Forest Rights Act, 2006 recognises individual and community forest rights, with a three-tier process of Gram Sabha, Sub-Divisional Level Committee and District Level Committee. The Muthanga agitation of 2003, led by the Adivasi Gothra Maha Sabha under C.K. Janu and M. Geethanandan, occupied sanctuary land in Wayanad to demand the land promised after a 2001 agreement.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (tribal society); GS2 (Fifth and Sixth Schedules, FRA); GS4 (equality, justice). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** land alienation, restorative justice, Gram Sabha empowerment, accountability for police action. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming every State with a tribal population has Fifth Schedule areas. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** FRA final authority is the District Level Committee; Gram Sabha initiates. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should a district administration respond to a land occupation by landless tribals? |
Question 8 of 17
1 Under a General Assembly resolution of 2022, the Assembly meets to debate each use of the veto in the Security Council.
2 An amendment to the UN Charter comes into force only when ratified by two-thirds of the members, including all the permanent members of the Security Council.
3 India signed the UN Charter in 1945, before its independence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Resolution 76/262 of 26 April 2022, the “veto initiative”, requires the General Assembly to meet within ten working days of a veto.
Statement 2Correct
Under Article 108, amendments need adoption by two-thirds of the General Assembly and ratification by two-thirds of members, including all five permanent members.
Statement 3Correct
India signed the Charter at San Francisco in 1945 and is a founding member.
Analysis
A Hindu op-ed argues that the UN must restore trust in itself, citing Council deadlock, weak accountability, donor influence and the Global South’s under-representation in its leadership.
Concept note
The UN Security Council has 15 members: five permanent members with the veto (China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States) under Article 27(3), and ten non-permanent members elected for two-year terms. Council reform, including expansion of both categories, is discussed in the Intergovernmental Negotiations launched in 2009; India pursues a permanent seat with the G4 (Brazil, Germany, Japan) and the L.69 group of developing countries.
Because any Charter amendment needs the consent of all five permanent members, reform has stalled. The veto initiative does not restrict the veto but makes its use accountable to the Assembly.
The Advisory Committee on Administrative and Budgetary Questions (ACABQ) advises the General Assembly on budgets. The theme of the 81st session in 2026 was “Restoring Trust, Managing Transformation: a UN that delivers for all”.
The Secretary-General’s UN80 Initiative of 2025 seeks efficiency and reform of the system.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international institutions, India’s foreign policy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** veto initiative, earmarked funding, Global South representation, Council reform. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the 2022 veto initiative limits or abolishes the veto; it only requires a debate. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Charter amendment: Article 108, two-thirds plus all P5 ratification. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is a permanent seat for India realistic, and what is the alternative? |
Question 9 of 17
Statement-I: A law made by a State legislature on marriage and divorce that is repugnant to an earlier law made by Parliament can prevail in that State.
Statement-II: Marriage and divorce are subjects in the Concurrent List, and a State law on such a subject reserved for and assented to by the President prevails in that State over an inconsistent earlier central law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
A State law on a Concurrent subject can prevail over an earlier central law if the conditions of Article 254(2) are met.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
Marriage and divorce are in Entry 5 of the Concurrent List, and under Article 254(2) a State law reserved for the President’s consideration and assented to prevails in that State, although Parliament can later override it.
Analysis
This is why several States’ Uniform Civil Code laws await Presidential assent; an Indian Express column argues that Uttarakhand’s code, in force since January 2025, confuses uniformity with equality.
Concept note
Article 44, a Directive Principle, asks the State to endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for citizens throughout India. Goa has long had a common civil code based on the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867.
Uttarakhand enacted the Uniform Civil Code, Uttarakhand, 2024, in force from 27 January 2025; it covers marriage, divorce, succession and live-in relationships and excludes Scheduled Tribes. The Supreme Court urged a UCC in Shah Bano (1985) and Sarla Mudgal (1995); the 21st Law Commission said in 2018 that a UCC was neither necessary nor desirable at that stage and suggested reforming discriminatory provisions within personal laws.
The 22nd Law Commission invited views in 2023. Critics of the Uttarakhand code point to compulsory registration of live-in relationships, criminal penalties in family law and the absence of marital property rights; supporters see it as a step towards equality before the law and gender justice.
The Maharashtra committee on a UCC was set up in July 2026 under Justice Ranjana Desai.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (DPSP, Centre-State legislative relations); GS1 (women, social reform). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** substantive equality, repugnancy, marital property, civil not penal. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Believing a State law on a Concurrent subject is always void if it conflicts with a central law. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 254(2) plus Entry 5, List III; Parliament can still override later. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is a uniform code the only route to gender justice in family law? |
Question 10 of 17
Facts
Option D is the incorrect statement and so the answer: ceiling prices of scheduled medicines are fixed by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013, issued under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955; the CDSCO regulates approval and quality. Option A is correct: Schedule H1 requires a separate register of prescriber, patient, drug and quantity, kept for three years. Option B is correct: the DCGI heads the CDSCO.
Option C is correct: retail and wholesale licences are issued by State licensing authorities. The tempting distractor is B, but the DCGI does head the CDSCO.
Analysis
An Indian Express column argues that filming every prescription sale on CCTV would record patients’ health data without fixing weak enforcement.
Concept note
Drug regulation in India is shared. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 and the Drugs Rules, 1945 govern manufacture, sale and distribution; the CDSCO, under the Directorate General of Health Services in the Health Ministry, approves new drugs, regulates imports and clinical trials, and coordinates with State drug controllers, who license manufacturing units and pharmacies and enforce quality.
Schedule H lists prescription-only drugs; Schedule H1, added in 2013, covers certain antibiotics, anti-tuberculosis drugs and habit-forming drugs, and requires a red warning label and a sale register; Schedule X covers narcotic and psychotropic drugs. Over-the-counter sale of antibiotics fuels antimicrobial resistance, which India addresses through the National Action Plan on AMR and campaigns such as the Red Line.
Kerala’s Operation AMRITH targets non-prescription antibiotic sales. Drug pricing is handled separately by the Department of Pharmaceuticals and the NPPA, set up in 1997.
Any surveillance measure must pass the proportionality test laid down in Puttaswamy (2017).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (health regulation, fundamental rights); GS4 (privacy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** proportionality, least intrusive means, antimicrobial resistance, e-prescriptions. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Mixing up the CDSCO (approval and quality) with the NPPA (prices). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NPPA 1997, DPCO 2013 under the Essential Commodities Act; CDSCO under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can surveillance ever be the least intrusive way to enforce a health law? |
Question 11 of 17
1 UN General Assembly Resolution 2758 of 1971 recognised the representatives of the People’s Republic of China as the only lawful representatives of China at the UN.
2 The Republic of China was a founding member of the United Nations.
3 The "enemy state" clauses of the UN Charter refer to the states that were enemies of the Charter’s signatories in the Second World War.
4 India was a signatory to the Treaty of San Francisco of 1951 with Japan.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Resolution 2758 transferred China’s seat, including the permanent seat on the Security Council, from the Republic of China to the PRC.
Statement 2Correct
The ROC signed the Charter in 1945 and held China’s seat until 1971.
Statement 3Correct
Articles 53, 77 and 107 refer to such “enemy states”; the General Assembly called them obsolete in 1995.
Statement 4Incorrect
India declined to attend the San Francisco conference and signed a separate peace treaty with Japan in 1952.
Analysis
C. Raja Mohan argues that the Trump-Xi invocation of their wartime alliance serves Beijing’s aim of presenting China as a victor of 1945, pressing Japan and blurring Taiwan’s history.
Concept note
The post-war order rested on two pillars. In Europe, the Yalta Conference of February 1945 among Roosevelt, Churchill and Stalin shaped spheres of influence.
In Asia, the Treaty of San Francisco, signed on 8 September 1951 by Japan and most Allied Powers, formally ended the war, and the US-Japan Security Treaty of the same day began the US alliance network in the region. India stayed away from the San Francisco conference, objecting to terms such as continued foreign bases in Japan, and concluded its own Treaty of Peace with Japan in 1952, waiving reparations.
The China seat question ended in 1971 with Resolution 2758. Over two million Indians served in the British Indian Army in the Second World War, fighting in North Africa, Italy, East Africa and Burma, including the decisive battles of Imphal and Kohima in 1944.
India signed the UN Charter in 1945 and is a founding member.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (world history, Second World War); GS2 (India-Japan, US-China, UN). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** memory politics, San Francisco System, narrative diplomacy, historical injustice. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming India signed the 1951 San Francisco treaty; it signed a separate treaty in 1952. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Resolution 2758 (1971); enemy state clauses in Articles 53, 77, 107. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India commemorate its Second World War soldiers more prominently? |
Question 12 of 17
1 Section 3(d) of the Patents Act, 1970 denies patents to new forms of known substances unless they show enhanced efficacy.
2 The first compulsory licence under the Patents Act was granted for a patented cancer drug.
3 Appeals against orders of the Controller of Patents lie before the Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
4 The Patents Act, 1970, as originally enacted, allowed product patents for pharmaceuticals.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 3(d) is India’s anti-evergreening provision, upheld in Novartis v. Union of India (2013).
Statement 2Correct
In 2012 Natco received a compulsory licence under Section 84 for Bayer’s kidney and liver cancer drug sorafenib (Nexavar).
Statement 3Incorrect
The IPAB was abolished by the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 and such appeals now go to the High Courts.
Statement 4Incorrect
The 1970 Act allowed only process patents for food, drugs and chemicals; product patents returned in 2005 under TRIPS.
Analysis
J Sai Deepak argues in The Indian Express that innovation needs quick, expert adjudication of IP disputes, citing the Delhi High Court’s IP Division.
Concept note
The Patents Act, 1970 enabled India’s generic pharmaceutical industry by allowing only process patents in food, medicine and chemicals. The WTO’s TRIPS Agreement of 1995 required product patents in all fields, with a transition to 2005; amendments of 1999, 2002 and 2005 complied while keeping flexibilities: Section 3(d) against evergreening, compulsory licences under Section 84, pre-grant and post-grant opposition, and the requirement to report working of patents.
The Doha Declaration of 2001 affirmed that TRIPS should be interpreted to protect public health. Disputes are resolved in commercial courts and divisions under the Commercial Courts Act, 2015; arbitration is governed by the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 and mediation by the Mediation Act, 2023.
After the IPAB’s abolition, the Delhi High Court set up an Intellectual Property Division in 2021 and framed IP Division Rules in 2022. Patents are administered by the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks under DPIIT.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (IPR, innovation, pharmaceuticals); GS2 (judiciary, tribunals). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** evergreening, TRIPS flexibilities, compulsory licensing, specialised benches. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the IPAB still hears patent appeals; it was abolished in 2021. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Product patents for drugs restored in 2005; first compulsory licence, Natco, 2012. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Do strong patents help or hurt access to medicines in India? |
Question 13 of 17
Facts
The Strait of Hormuz lies between Iran and the Musandam peninsula of Oman and links the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman, which opens into the Arabian Sea. The tempting distractor is the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden, which are joined by the Bab-el-Mandeb, a different chokepoint.
Analysis
An Indian Express editorial argues that Iran’s leverage from closing Hormuz is weakening as flows recover through bypass routes such as Saudi Arabia’s East-West pipeline to the Red Sea, while US sanctions bite, and that a deal needs both sides to give up leverage.
Concept note
In normal times about a fifth of the world’s oil trade passes through the Strait of Hormuz, including a large share of India’s crude and LNG imports from Iraq, Saudi Arabia, the UAE, Kuwait and Qatar. Bypass routes include Saudi Arabia’s East-West (Petroline) pipeline from the eastern oilfields to Yanbu on the Red Sea and the UAE’s Habshan-Fujairah pipeline to the Gulf of Oman.
Iran’s Chabahar port, where India has been developing the Shahid Beheshti terminal, lies on the Gulf of Oman outside the Strait, while Bandar Abbas lies at the Strait. India imports about 85 to 90 per cent of its crude oil and about half its natural gas by sea.
Its strategic petroleum reserves, built by Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Ltd, are at Visakhapatnam, Mangaluru and Padur, with about 5.33 million tonnes of capacity. The Navy has escorted Indian-flagged tankers through the Strait under Operation Urja Suraksha during the current conflict.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (world geography, chokepoints); GS2 (West Asia); GS3 (energy security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** chokepoint leverage, supply diversification, strategic reserves, freedom of navigation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing Chabahar inside the Strait of Hormuz; it is on the Gulf of Oman. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Hormuz: Persian Gulf to Gulf of Oman; Bab-el-Mandeb: Red Sea to Gulf of Aden. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should India balance ties with Iran, the Gulf states, Israel and the US? |
Question 14 of 17
1 Its Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure is headquartered in Tashkent.
2 Belarus is its most recent full member.
3 Turkiye is an observer state of the SCO.
4 India and Pakistan became full members in the same year.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
RATS is based in Tashkent, while the Secretariat is in Beijing.
Statement 2Correct
Belarus joined in 2024, taking membership to ten.
Statement 3Incorrect
Turkiye is a dialogue partner, not an observer or member.
Statement 4Correct
Both became full members at the Astana summit in 2017.
Analysis
An Indian delegation attended the SCO National Coordinators’ meeting in Islamabad, the first official Indian visit to Pakistan since Operation Sindoor; Pakistan holds the chair for 2026-27 and will host the SCO summit in 2027.
Concept note
The SCO grew out of the Shanghai Five (1996) and was founded in 2001 by China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. India and Pakistan joined in 2017, Iran in 2023 and Belarus in 2024.
Its permanent bodies are the Secretariat in Beijing and the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure in Tashkent; its highest body is the Council of Heads of State, followed by the Council of Heads of Government. The chair rotates annually among members, and the chair hosts the summit.
India chaired the SCO in 2023 and held the summit virtually. India uses the SCO to engage Central Asia, press its concerns on terrorism, and has declined to endorse China’s Belt and Road Initiative in SCO documents.
On 29 September 2026, India rejected Turkish President Erdogan’s references to Jammu and Kashmir at the UN General Assembly, saying no external party has any locus standi on a matter of India’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (regional groupings, India-Pakistan, India-Central Asia). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** multilateral engagement, RATS, terrorism, strategic autonomy. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling Turkiye an SCO observer; it is a dialogue partner. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** SCO Secretariat Beijing, RATS Tashkent; ten members after Belarus (2024). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India’s Prime Minister attend an SCO summit hosted by Pakistan? |
Question 15 of 17
1. Sambhar Lake : Rajasthan
2. Chilika Lake : Odisha
3. Loktak Lake : Mizoram
4. Wular Lake : Himachal Pradesh
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
Sambhar, India’s largest inland saline wetland, is in Rajasthan and has been a Ramsar site since 1990.
Pair 2Correct
Chilika, Asia’s largest brackish-water lagoon, is in Odisha and was India’s first Ramsar site with Keoladeo (1981).
Pair 3Incorrect
Loktak, with its floating phumdis and Keibul Lamjao National Park, is in Manipur.
Pair 4Incorrect
Wular, one of Asia’s largest freshwater lakes, fed by the Jhelum, is in Jammu and Kashmir.
Analysis
The NGT’s Bhopal bench has ordered a joint inspection of Sambhar Lake over alleged illegal salt pans, lakebed encroachment and borewells.
Concept note
The Ramsar Convention on wetlands was signed in 1971 at Ramsar, Iran; India became a party in 1982, and its first sites were Chilika and Keoladeo. In India, wetlands are protected under the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017, which set up State Wetland Authorities and bar activities such as encroachment, solid waste dumping and conversion.
Sambhar Lake, about 80 km west of Jaipur, is fed by seasonal streams including the Mendha and Rupangarh, and is a winter habitat for flamingos; it is also a major source of salt. In 2019, thousands of migratory birds died there of avian botulism.
The National Green Tribunal, set up under the NGT Act, 2010, has its principal bench in New Delhi and zonal benches in Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai. Its Central Zone Bench at Bhopal formed a joint committee of the Jaipur Collector, the State Wetland Authority, the CPCB and the Rajasthan State Pollution Control Board, to report within six weeks.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (geography of lakes); GS3 (wetland conservation, NGT). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** hydrological regime, hypersalinity, encroachment, wise use of wetlands. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing Loktak in Mizoram or Wular in Himachal; they are in Manipur and J&K. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Sambhar: largest inland saline lake; Chilika: largest brackish-water lagoon. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How can salt production and wetland conservation coexist at Sambhar? |
Question 16 of 17
1 The Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013 is issued under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
2 The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority fixes ceiling prices of scheduled formulations.
3 Manufacturers of non-scheduled formulations may not raise the maximum retail price by more than 10 per cent in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The DPCO is issued under Section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
Statement 2Correct
The NPPA fixes ceiling prices of medicines in the National List of Essential Medicines, which are scheduled under the DPCO.
Statement 3Correct
Paragraph 20 of the DPCO caps the annual increase in the MRP of non-scheduled formulations at 10 per cent.
Analysis
The Supreme Court asked the Centre why the 16 per cent retailer margin in the DPCO should not apply uniformly to essential medicines, after noting a cancer drug supplied at about Rs 3,000 and sold at Rs 27,000.
Concept note
India’s drug pricing rests on the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013, which adopted a market-based method: the ceiling price of a scheduled formulation is the simple average of the prices of all brands with at least a 1 per cent market share, plus a retailer margin of 16 per cent. Scheduled formulations are those in the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM 2022 has 384 medicines).
The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority, set up in 1997 under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, fixes and revises prices and monitors compliance. In 2019, the NPPA used its extraordinary powers under paragraph 19 to cap trade margins at 30 per cent on 42 non-scheduled anti-cancer medicines, cutting the MRP of hundreds of brands.
The Supreme Court’s current case, on petitions seeking stricter enforcement against overpricing, next comes up on 12 October 2026; our 23 September deep dive covered the earlier hearing.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (health, regulatory bodies); GS3 (pharmaceutical industry). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** trade margin rationalisation, out-of-pocket expenditure, NLEM, price ceiling. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the NPPA regulates drug quality; that is the CDSCO and State drug controllers. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NPPA 1997; DPCO 2013; 30 per cent trade margin cap on 42 cancer drugs (2019). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should all essential medicines have a capped trade margin? |
Question 17 of 17
1 The privileges of the Houses of Parliament have been codified in an Act of Parliament.
2 The President, being a constituent part of Parliament, enjoys parliamentary privileges.
3 In the Keshav Singh reference of 1965, the Supreme Court held that courts have no jurisdiction to examine any action taken by a legislature in exercise of its privileges.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
Privileges under Article 105(3) and Article 194(3) have never been codified; they rest on the Constitution, conventions and precedent.
Statement 2Incorrect
Although the President is part of Parliament, privileges extend to members, committees and persons entitled to speak in a House (such as ministers and the Attorney General under Article 105(4)), not to the President.
Statement 3Incorrect
In Special Reference No. 1 of 1964 (Keshav Singh), the Court held that Article 21 applies and that the courts can examine privilege actions.
Analysis
A seven-judge Constitution Bench is scheduled to begin hearing, from 6 October 2026, whether fundamental rights limit legislative privileges, in N. Ravi v. Speaker, Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly.
Concept note
Parliamentary privileges are special rights and immunities that let legislatures and their members function without interference: freedom of speech in the House, immunity from court proceedings for anything said or any vote given (Articles 105(2) and 194(2)), the right to publish proceedings, and the power to punish for breach of privilege and contempt. Article 105(3) and Article 194(3) originally equated Indian privileges with those of the British House of Commons; the 44th Amendment (1978) replaced this with a reference to the privileges existing before it.
In M.S.M. Sharma (1959), the Court held that privileges prevail over the freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a). In Sita Soren (2024), a seven-judge Bench held that immunity does not cover bribery.
The N. Ravi case arose in 2003 when the Tamil Nadu Speaker ordered the arrest of journalists of The Hindu; it was referred to seven judges in 2004 because of conflicting precedents.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Parliament and State legislatures, fundamental rights, judiciary). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** codification of privileges, breach of privilege, free press, harmonious construction. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming privileges are codified or extend to the President. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Articles 105 and 194; MSM Sharma (1959), Keshav Singh (1965), Sita Soren (2024). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India codify legislative privileges by law? |
Performance
Question-wise Result