UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 28 September 2026
Test Your Knowledge
16 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 16
1 Section 231 of the Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act (CAATSA), 2017 provides for sanctions on persons engaging in significant transactions with the defence or intelligence sectors of Russia.
2 Turkey was sanctioned under CAATSA for acquiring the S-400 air defence system.
3 India has been sanctioned under CAATSA for acquiring the S-400 air defence system.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 231 of CAATSA, enacted in August 2017, targets significant transactions with Russia’s defence or intelligence sectors, which is why arms purchases from Russia attract it.
Statement 2Correct
The United States sanctioned Turkey’s defence procurement agency in December 2020 over the S-400 purchase.
Statement 3Incorrect
India signed its S-400 contract in October 2018 but has not been sanctioned under CAATSA.
Analysis
The new Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act of 2026 goes further than CAATSA: it targets energy purchases, which are far larger than arms deals, and uses tariffs of up to 100 per cent rather than only financial sanctions. India raised the law with a US Congressional delegation in September 2026.
Concept note
Sanctions come in two broad kinds. Primary sanctions restrict a country’s own citizens and firms from dealing with a target.
Secondary sanctions penalise third countries or their firms for dealing with the target, which extends a law’s reach beyond the sanctioning state’s borders. CAATSA, passed in 2017, combined sanctions on Iran, North Korea and Russia; its Section 231 lets the US President sanction any person who makes a significant transaction with Russia’s defence or intelligence sectors, with a national-security waiver.
Turkey’s case in 2020 showed that even a NATO ally can be targeted. India has argued that its defence ties with Russia predate the law and serve its security, and it has not been sanctioned.
The 2026 Act adds a newer instrument, secondary tariffs: higher customs duties on all imports from countries that are among the largest buyers of Russian oil and gas. India’s formal position is that it follows sanctions imposed by the UN Security Council, not unilateral sanctions of individual states, and that its energy purchases are driven by the needs of its consumers.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (effect of policies of developed countries on India’s interests); GS3 (energy security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** secondary sanctions, extraterritoriality, strategic autonomy, national-interest waiver. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming India was sanctioned for the S-400; it was Turkey that was sanctioned. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CAATSA (2017), Section 231; Turkey sanctioned December 2020. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India accept any limits on its energy purchases to protect access to the US market? |
Question 2 of 16
1. TRUST : Cooperation in critical and emerging technologies
2. Pax Silica : Secure supply chains from critical minerals to semiconductors and artificial intelligence infrastructure
3. INDUS-X : Defence innovation ecosystem linking start-ups, industry and academia
4. Indian Ocean Strategic Venture : A trilateral initiative of India, Japan and Australia
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
TRUST (Transforming the Relationship Utilizing Strategic Technology), launched in February 2025, succeeded the initiative on Critical and Emerging Technology (iCET).
Pair 2Correct
Pax Silica is a US-led initiative launched in December 2025 to secure the silicon supply chain; India signed the Pax Silica Declaration in February 2026.
Pair 3Correct
INDUS-X, launched in June 2023, connects the defence innovation ecosystems of the two countries.
Pair 4Incorrect
The Indian Ocean Strategic Venture is an India-US initiative, announced in February 2025, not a trilateral with Japan and Australia.
Analysis
In September 2026 the Foreign Secretary discussed TRUST, Pax Silica and the Indian Ocean Strategic Venture with US officials alongside India’s concerns about the new US sanctions law.
Concept note
The India-US partnership has shifted from defence purchases and civil nuclear cooperation towards technology and supply chains. The initiative on Critical and Emerging Technology (iCET), agreed in 2022, was rebranded TRUST in 2025 to cover semiconductors, artificial intelligence, quantum, biotechnology, space and critical minerals.
INDUS-X, launched in 2023, links defence start-ups, investors and research institutions. Pax Silica, a US-led grouping launched in December 2025, seeks to build a secure and trusted supply chain from minerals and energy inputs through advanced manufacturing and chips to AI infrastructure and logistics, reducing coercive dependencies; India joined at the AI Impact Summit in New Delhi in February 2026.
These frameworks matter beyond technology: in a negotiation over sanctions or tariffs, they are assets India can put on the table because Washington values India’s talent pool, market and manufacturing potential. The Indian Ocean Strategic Venture, announced in the February 2025 joint statement, covers maritime cooperation in the region.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (India-US relations); GS3 (science and technology, supply chains). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** techno-strategic partnership, trusted supply chains, de-risking, critical minerals. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating iCET and TRUST as separate live frameworks; TRUST succeeded iCET. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** iCET (2022) to TRUST (2025); INDUS-X (2023); Pax Silica (December 2025), India joined February 2026. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does India gain more from technology partnerships with the US than it risks in strategic autonomy? |
Question 3 of 16
1 The intelligence and security organisations listed in the Second Schedule are excluded from the Act, and the exclusion extends to information pertaining to allegations of corruption in them.
2 A State Government may, by notification, exclude from the Act intelligence and security organisations established by it.
3 Information pertaining to allegations of violation of human rights in an excluded organisation is to be provided only after the approval of the Information Commission concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
The proviso to Section 24(1) says that information pertaining to allegations of corruption and human rights violations shall not be excluded, even for Second Schedule organisations.
Statement 2Correct
Section 24(4) lets a State Government specify, by notification in the Official Gazette, intelligence and security organisations established by it, and Section 24(5) requires the notification to be laid before the State Legislature.
Statement 3Correct
For allegations of human rights violations, information is given only after approval of the Central or State Information Commission, within 45 days of the request.
Analysis
In September 2026 Tamil Nadu notified its Public (Law and Order) Department under Section 24(4) and revoked the order the same day it became public, after criticism.
Concept note
Section 24 excludes whole organisations from the RTI Act, unlike Section 8, which lists categories of information that may be withheld. The Second Schedule lists central intelligence and security organisations such as the Intelligence Bureau, the Research and Analysis Wing, the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence, the Enforcement Directorate, the Narcotics Control Bureau and central armed police forces; the CBI was added in June 2011.
The Centre may amend the Schedule by notification laid before Parliament, and States may notify their own organisations. The proviso is the key safeguard: corruption and human rights information cannot be withheld, though human rights requests need the Commission’s approval and have a 45-day timeline instead of the usual 30 days.
In Special Police Establishment v. Kamta Prasad Mishra (2026), the Supreme Court struck down a Madhya Pradesh notification exempting the Lokayukta’s Special Police Establishment, holding that an agency investigating corruption is not an intelligence and security organisation. The test is the nature of an organisation’s functions, not the label a government gives it.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (transparency and accountability, statutory bodies); GS4 (right to information, probity). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** proviso to Section 24, functional test, right to know, proactive disclosure. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking excluded bodies can withhold corruption information; the proviso forbids it. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Human rights information from excluded bodies: Commission’s approval, 45 days. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should police departments ever be excluded from RTI as a whole? |
Question 4 of 16
1 The Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019 empowered the Central Government to prescribe the term of office and salaries of Information Commissioners.
2 The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 substituted Section 8(1)(j) of the Right to Information Act, removing the larger public interest override for personal information.
3 The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed on the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Chief Justice of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The 2019 amendment removed the fixed five-year term and the equivalence of salaries with Election Commissioners, and let the Central Government prescribe the term and service conditions of Information Commissioners at the Centre and in the States.
Statement 2Correct
Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act, 2023 substituted Section 8(1)(j) so that personal information is exempt without the earlier public-interest test; the provision came into force with the DPDP Rules in November 2025.
Statement 3Incorrect
Under Section 12(3), the committee is chaired by the Prime Minister, with the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
Analysis
Critics read these changes together with attempts to widen Section 24 exemptions, such as the order Tamil Nadu withdrew in September 2026, as a gradual narrowing of the Act.
Concept note
The RTI Act, 2005 created the Central Information Commission (Section 12) and State Information Commissions (Section 15) as statutory bodies to hear appeals and complaints. Originally, Commissioners had a five-year term (or until 65), and their salaries were linked to those of the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners, which was meant to secure independence.
The 2019 amendment delinked these and left them to rules made by the Centre, which fixed a three-year term. The DPDP Act, 2023 made a further change: the old Section 8(1)(j) exempted personal information having no relationship to public activity or interest, unless the larger public interest justified disclosure; the new clause exempts information relating to personal information without that override, which critics say will shield officials’ records such as asset declarations.
Supporters argue it protects privacy, a fundamental right recognised in the Puttaswamy judgment (2017). The CIC’s selection committee is chaired by the Prime Minister, not the Chief Justice.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (statutory bodies, transparency); GS4 (probity, privacy versus transparency). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** independence of Information Commissions, privacy-transparency balance, larger public interest. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling Information Commissions constitutional bodies; they are statutory. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CIC selection: PM, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, a Union Cabinet Minister. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you balance an official’s privacy with the public’s right to know about their assets? |
Question 5 of 16
Statement-I: Under the Railways Act, 1989, the railway administration must compensate the family of a passenger who dies after accidentally falling from a train, even if the railway was not negligent.
Statement-II: Section 124A of the Railways Act, 1989 makes the railway administration liable for untoward incidents whether or not there has been any wrongful act, neglect or default on its part.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Accidental falling of a passenger from a train carrying passengers is an “untoward incident” under Section 123(c), for which compensation is payable.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
Section 124A imposes no-fault (strict) liability for untoward incidents, so the claimant need not prove negligence.
Analysis
In September 2026 the Supreme Court restored an award of Rs 8 lakh to the parents of a man who fell from a train in Gujarat, holding that the absence of a recovered ticket cannot defeat the claim when evidence shows he was a bona fide passenger.
Concept note
The Railways Act, 1989 has two compensation provisions. Section 124 covers accidents such as collisions and derailments.
Section 124A, inserted later, covers “untoward incidents”, defined in Section 123(c) to include terrorist acts, violent attacks, robbery, dacoity, rioting, firing or arson inside trains or station premises, and the accidental falling of a passenger from a train. Liability under Section 124A is strict: compensation is payable whether or not the railway was at fault, subject to exceptions such as suicide, self-inflicted injury or criminal acts by the victim.
Claims are decided by the Railway Claims Tribunal, set up under the Railway Claims Tribunal Act, 1987, with appeals to the High Court. The amount for death is fixed by rules and was raised to Rs 8 lakh.
In Union of India v. Rina Devi (2018), the Supreme Court held that the mere absence of a ticket does not rule out a claim: an affidavit by the claimant discharges the initial burden, which then shifts to the railway. Courts read the provision as beneficial legislation, construed in favour of victims.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (statutory tribunals, welfare legislation); GS3 (infrastructure: railways). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** strict liability, beneficial legislation, burden of proof, bona fide passenger. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing Section 124 (accidents such as derailments) with Section 124A (untoward incidents such as falls). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Railway Claims Tribunal Act, 1987; Rina Devi (2018) on missing tickets. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does no-fault liability encourage careless travel, or is it fair to the poor who travel in crowded coaches? |
Question 6 of 16
Statement-I: North-west India receives much of its winter precipitation, including snowfall in the Himalaya, from western disturbances.
Statement-II: Western disturbances are tropical low-pressure systems that form over the Bay of Bengal and move north-westward across the Indian subcontinent.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Western disturbances bring winter rain to the plains of north-west India, important for the rabi wheat crop, and snow to the western Himalaya.
Statement IIIncorrect
Western disturbances are extra-tropical systems that originate beyond Afghanistan and Iran, draw moisture from the Mediterranean, Black, Caspian and Arabian Seas, and are carried eastward by the subtropical westerly jet stream. It is monsoon depressions that form over the Bay of Bengal and move west-north-westward.
Analysis
In late September 2026, the India Meteorological Department attributed extreme rain in Uttar Pradesh to the likely interaction of a Bay of Bengal deep depression with a western disturbance.
Concept note
A western disturbance (WD) is a mid-latitude, extra-tropical low-pressure system embedded in the westerlies. In winter the subtropical westerly jet stream shifts south of the Himalaya and steers WDs across Pakistan and north-west India, where they bring rain, cloudiness and cold waves, and heavy snow to Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.
This winter rain is valuable for wheat and other rabi crops. In summer the jet shifts north of the Tibetan plateau and WDs weaken, though they can still reach north India.
When a WD interacts with monsoon moisture, especially during the monsoon’s onset or withdrawal, the result can be extreme rainfall, as in Uttarakhand in June 2013. Monsoon depressions are different: tropical systems formed over the head of the Bay of Bengal that move inland and bring much of the monsoon rain to central and northern India.
The IMD grades low-pressure systems by sustained wind speed: depression 17 to 27 knots, deep depression 28 to 33 knots, cyclonic storm 34 to 47 knots.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (climatology: Indian monsoon, western disturbances); GS3 (disaster management, agriculture). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** subtropical westerly jet, extra-tropical cyclone, monsoon withdrawal, compound extreme events. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling western disturbances tropical cyclones; they are extra-tropical. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Deep depression 28-33 knots; cyclonic storm from 34 knots. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why are late-monsoon extreme rain events becoming more damaging in the Gangetic plains? |
Question 7 of 16
1 Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw bombs in the Central Legislative Assembly in protest against the Public Safety Bill and the Trade Disputes Bill.
2 Vithalbhai Patel was the first Indian elected President of the Central Legislative Assembly.
3 Bhagat Singh was sentenced to death in the Assembly Bomb Case.
4 The Hindustan Republican Association was reorganised as the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association at a meeting at Feroz Shah Kotla in Delhi.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
On 8 April 1929 they threw non-lethal bombs and leaflets from the visitors’ gallery as the Assembly moved to enact the two Bills, and courted arrest.
Statement 2Correct
Vithalbhai Patel was elected President of the Assembly on 24 August 1925, the first Indian in the post.
Statement 3Incorrect
In the Assembly case they were sentenced to transportation for life; Bhagat Singh was sentenced to death in the Lahore Conspiracy Case for the killing of the police officer John Saunders in 1928, and was hanged on 23 March 1931.
Statement 4Correct
The HRA was renamed the HSRA at Feroz Shah Kotla in September 1928, adopting socialism as its goal.
Analysis
28 September is Bhagat Singh’s birth anniversary (1907).
Concept note
Bhagat Singh belonged to the second wave of revolutionary nationalism, which rose after the withdrawal of Non-Cooperation in 1922. He founded the Naujawan Bharat Sabha in 1926 and, with Chandrashekhar Azad and others, turned the Hindustan Republican Association into the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association in 1928, reflecting the influence of socialism.
After Lala Lajpat Rai died following a lathi charge during protests against the Simon Commission in 1928, Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Azad killed Assistant Superintendent John Saunders in Lahore, mistaking him for the officer they meant to target. The Assembly bombing of April 1929 was designed to be heard, not to kill, and the accused used their trial to publicise their ideas.
Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were hanged in Lahore on 23 March 1931, now observed as Shaheed Diwas. The Congress session at Karachi in March 1931, presided over by Vallabhbhai Patel, praised their bravery while keeping its commitment to non-violence.
Vithalbhai Patel, a Swarajist, was the Assembly’s first elected Indian President.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (modern Indian history: revolutionary movements); GS2 (evolution of legislatures). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** revolutionary nationalism, socialism, HSRA, courtroom as a platform. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Linking Bhagat Singh’s death sentence to the Assembly bomb; it came from the Saunders case. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Assembly bomb 8 April 1929; HSRA 1928; hanged 23 March 1931 with Rajguru and Sukhdev. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should we remember revolutionaries whose methods differed from Gandhi’s? |
Question 8 of 16
1. Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement : United Arab Emirates
2. Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement : Australia
3. Comprehensive Economic Cooperation and Partnership Agreement : Mauritius
4. Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement : United Kingdom
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
India and the UAE signed a CEPA in February 2022.
Pair 2Correct
The India-Australia ECTA was signed in April 2022 as an interim agreement.
Pair 3Correct
India and Mauritius signed a CECPA in February 2021, India’s first trade agreement with an African country.
Pair 4Correct
India and the United Kingdom signed a Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement in July 2025.
Analysis
India and Canada are negotiating a CEPA, launched in March 2026, and hope to sign it around a proposed prime ministerial visit in December 2026.
Concept note
India’s trade agreements carry different names that reflect their scope. Early agreements were mostly Preferential Trade Agreements or Free Trade Agreements in goods, such as the India-Sri Lanka FTA (1998, in force 2000).
From the 2000s India signed broader agreements covering goods, services and investment: the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) with Singapore (2005), and CEPAs with South Korea (2009) and Japan (2011). After a pause, India returned to deals with major partners from 2021: Mauritius (CECPA, 2021), the UAE (CEPA, 2022), Australia (ECTA, 2022), the European Free Trade Association (TEPA, 2024) and the United Kingdom (CETA, 2025).
A comprehensive agreement with Canada was being negotiated in the 2010s but stalled; talks were relaunched in 2026 after relations recovered from the 2023 diplomatic breakdown. The names matter less than the content, but examiners use them as traps, such as matching TEPA with the EU instead of EFTA.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (bilateral agreements); GS3 (external sector, trade policy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** trade diversification, deep trade agreements, services and investment chapters. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Matching TEPA with the European Union; it is with EFTA (Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, Switzerland). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** UAE CEPA (2022), Australia ECTA (2022), Mauritius CECPA (2021), UK CETA (2025). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India sign trade agreements quickly to diversify away from the US market? |
Question 9 of 16
1 It is caused by a virus.
2 Once clinical symptoms appear, it is almost always fatal.
3 World Rabies Day is observed on the birth anniversary of Louis Pasteur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Rabies is caused by a lyssavirus, transmitted mainly through the bite or scratch of an infected animal, in India mostly dogs.
Statement 2Correct
Once symptoms appear the disease is almost always fatal, which is why post-exposure prophylaxis must begin immediately after exposure.
Statement 3Incorrect
World Rabies Day, 28 September, marks the death anniversary of Louis Pasteur, who died in 1895.
Analysis
India’s National Action Plan for Dog Mediated Rabies Elimination, launched on World Rabies Day in 2021, aims to end human deaths from dog-mediated rabies by 2030.
Concept note
Rabies is a zoonotic viral disease of the central nervous system. The virus travels along nerves to the brain, so the incubation period can range from weeks to months depending on the site of the bite.
It is nearly 100 per cent fatal after symptoms begin, but nearly 100 per cent preventable with timely post-exposure prophylaxis: immediate washing of the wound with soap and water, a course of anti-rabies vaccine and, for severe exposures, rabies immunoglobulin. Louis Pasteur and his colleagues developed the first rabies vaccine and used it on a human, Joseph Meister, in 1885.
Dogs cause the vast majority of human rabies cases, so mass dog vaccination is the most effective way to break transmission. India’s National Action Plan for Dog Mediated Rabies Elimination (NAPRE) adopts a One Health approach, combining human health, animal husbandry and local bodies, and aligns with the global “Zero by 30” goal of WHO, the World Organisation for Animal Health and the Food and Agriculture Organization.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (health, One Health); GS3 (science and technology: vaccines). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** One Health, post-exposure prophylaxis, mass dog vaccination, zoonoses. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking antibiotics treat rabies; it is a viral disease. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** World Rabies Day, 28 September (Pasteur’s death anniversary); NAPRE (2021), goal 2030. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should cities balance animal welfare with public safety in managing stray dogs? |
Question 10 of 16
Statement-I: A candidate whose nomination paper is rejected by the Returning Officer cannot ordinarily obtain relief from a High Court under Article 226 while the election process is under way.
Statement-II: Article 329(b) of the Constitution provides that no election to Parliament or a State Legislature shall be called in question except by an election petition.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement IICorrect
Article 329(b) bars challenges to elections except by an election petition presented to the authority and in the manner provided by law.
Statement ICorrect
And is explained by Statement-II: in N.P. Ponnuswami v. Returning Officer (1952), the Supreme Court read “election” as the whole process from notification to the declaration of result, so the rejection of a nomination can be questioned only in an election petition after the result, on the ground of improper rejection under Section 100 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Analysis
A September 2026 op-ed argued that the Supreme Court should revisit Ponnuswami for rejections that are patently without jurisdiction, after a Rajya Sabha nomination was rejected for non-disclosure in the Form 26 affidavit.
Concept note
Disclosure by candidates rests on the voter’s right to know under Article 19(1)(a). After Union of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms (2002), Parliament inserted Section 33A in the Representation of the People Act, 1951, requiring disclosure of pending cases in which charges have been framed for offences punishable with two years or more, and of past convictions; Section 33B, which barred disclosure beyond the Act, was struck down in PUCL v. Union of India (2003).
The affidavit is filed in Form 26 under Rule 4A of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, and since 2018 the form asks for all pending criminal cases. Section 125A punishes a false affidavit or concealment.
Remedies are tightly channelled: Article 329(b) and the Ponnuswami judgment keep courts out until the election is over, after which an election petition lies to the High Court, with appeal to the Supreme Court. Courts have treated blank affidavits as grounds for rejection (Resurgence India, 2013) and concealment of criminal cases as undue influence (Krishnamoorthy, 2015).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Representation of the People Act, electoral reforms, judiciary). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** right to know, delegated legislation, election petition, purity of elections. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Believing Section 33A requires disclosure of every pending case; the wider demand comes from Form 26. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Ponnuswami (1952) on Article 329(b); PUCL (2003) struck down Section 33B. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should candidates be barred from contesting once charges are framed in serious cases? |
Question 11 of 16
1 Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, information about a cognisable offence may be given at any police station, irrespective of the area where the offence was committed.
2 The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita permits a preliminary enquiry of up to fourteen days, with the permission of a senior officer, for certain cognisable offences punishable with imprisonment of three years or more but less than seven years.
3 In Lalita Kumari v. Government of Uttar Pradesh, the Supreme Court held that a preliminary inquiry before registering an FIR is impermissible in every case.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 173(1) of the BNSS recognises the “Zero FIR”, so information can be given at any police station and transferred later; it also recognises information given electronically.
Statement 2Correct
Section 173(3) allows a preliminary enquiry within 14 days, with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, for offences punishable with three years or more but less than seven years, to see whether a prima facie case exists.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Constitution Bench in Lalita Kumari (2013) made registration mandatory when information discloses a cognisable offence but allowed a time-bound preliminary inquiry in limited categories, such as matrimonial disputes, commercial offences, medical negligence, corruption and cases of abnormal delay.
Analysis
A September 2026 op-ed argued that a similar short enquiry should be allowed before FIRs are registered for missing adults, while keeping FIRs mandatory for missing children.
Concept note
The First Information Report sets the criminal law in motion. Under the old Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, police often refused or delayed registration, which is why the Supreme Court in Lalita Kumari (2013) held registration mandatory where a cognisable offence is disclosed, with action against officers who refuse.
It allowed a preliminary inquiry only to ascertain whether a cognisable offence is disclosed, in specified categories, and required it to be time-bound. The BNSS, in force from 1 July 2024, keeps mandatory registration in Section 173 but adds the Zero FIR and e-FIR, and gives statutory form to a preliminary enquiry for mid-range offences.
For missing children, Bachpan Bachao Andolan v. Union of India (2013) required an FIR in every case with a presumption of abduction or trafficking, and directions in 2026 extended the approach nationwide. The debate now is whether the same presumption should apply to adults, who have a right under Article 21 to choose where and with whom to live (Lata Singh, 2006; Shafin Jahan, 2018).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (police and criminal justice, vulnerable sections); GS1 (social issues: honour crimes). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** mandatory registration, preliminary enquiry, autonomy of adults, anti-trafficking units. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Believing Lalita Kumari banned preliminary inquiries; it confined them to specified categories. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** BNSS Section 173(3): 14-day enquiry, offences punishable 3 to 7 years, DSP-rank permission. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you, as a police officer, handle a missing-person report about an adult couple who eloped? |
Question 12 of 16
1 Under Press Note 3 (2020), foreign direct investment from an entity of a country that shares a land border with India requires government approval.
2 Production Linked Incentive schemes give incentives on incremental sales of goods manufactured in India.
3 The Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme offers incentives only for the final assembly of mobile phones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Press Note 3 of April 2020 placed investment from countries sharing a land border with India, including where the beneficial owner is from such a country, under the government approval route.
Statement 2Correct
PLI schemes, launched from 2020, pay incentives linked to incremental sales over a base year.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme of 2025 targets electronic components and sub-assemblies, the part of the value chain that assembly-led schemes did not reach.
Analysis
A September 2026 op-ed argued that India gains from the China-plus-one shift only if new factories deepen local supplier networks, and that all investment, including Chinese, should be judged by the capabilities it builds.
Concept note
India’s manufacturing strategy has moved in stages. The PLI schemes, covering 14 sectors from mobile phones and pharmaceuticals to automobiles, batteries and solar modules, rewarded scale in final products and helped make India a large exporter of smartphones.
But assembly-led growth kept import dependence high for components, so domestic value addition lagged. The Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme, approved in 2025, supports components such as printed circuit boards, camera and display modules and passive components.
Press Note 3 of 2020, issued during the pandemic to prevent opportunistic takeovers, requires approval for investment from neighbours sharing a land border, which in practice screens Chinese capital. The Economic Survey 2023-24 argued that Chinese FDI could help India plug into global value chains, a view still debated on security grounds.
Enablers matter as much as incentives: the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan (2021) and the National Logistics Policy (2022) aim to cut logistics costs, while skills and access to critical minerals decide whether suppliers can meet global standards.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (industrial policy, investment models); GS2 (effect of China’s and US policies on India). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** China-plus-one, industrial ecosystem, domestic value addition, tiered suppliers. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming Press Note 3 applies only to China; it covers every land-border country. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Press Note 3 (April 2020); PLI in 14 sectors; ECMS (2025) for components. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India relax Press Note 3 to attract Chinese component makers? |
Question 13 of 16
1. Karakoram Pass : Ladakh and Xinjiang
2. Khunjerab Pass : Gilgit-Baltistan and Xinjiang
3. Zoji La : Kashmir Valley and Ladakh
4. Shipki La : Himachal Pradesh and Tibet
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
The Karakoram Pass links Ladakh with Xinjiang and carried the historic caravan route from Leh to Yarkand.
Pair 2Correct
The Khunjerab Pass links Gilgit-Baltistan, Indian territory under Pakistan’s illegal occupation, with Xinjiang, and carries the Karakoram Highway used by the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor, which India opposes.
Pair 3Correct
Zoji La links the Kashmir Valley (Sonamarg) with Drass in Ladakh on the Srinagar-Leh highway.
Pair 4Correct
Shipki La in Kinnaur links Himachal Pradesh with Tibet along the Sutlej.
Analysis
A September 2026 Lead article argued for reviving historic trade corridors to make Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh a gateway to Central Asia.
Concept note
The passes of the western and trans-Himalaya have long shaped trade and strategy. The Karakoram Pass (about 5,540 m) was the main caravan route between Leh and Yarkand until the mid-20th century, carrying pashmina, textiles and salt.
The Khunjerab Pass is the highest paved border crossing and carries the Karakoram Highway, now the spine of the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor through Gilgit-Baltistan, which India regards as its territory under Pakistan’s illegal occupation. Zoji La is Ladakh’s lifeline from the Kashmir Valley; the Zojila Tunnel is being built to give all-weather access.
Shipki La, where the Sutlej enters India, was one of the border trade points with Tibet, along with Lipulekh and Nathu La. India’s present route to Central Asia avoids these contested frontiers: it runs by sea to Iran’s Chabahar port and overland through the International North-South Transport Corridor, supported by the Ashgabat Agreement, which India joined in 2018.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (physical geography: Himalayan passes; historical trade routes); GS2 (India’s neighbourhood, connectivity); GS3 (border management). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** connectivity diplomacy, border-area development, CPEC, Connect Central Asia. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing the Karakoram Pass (Ladakh-Xinjiang) with the Khunjerab Pass (Gilgit-Baltistan-Xinjiang). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Shipki La: Sutlej; Nathu La and Jelep La: Sikkim; Lipulekh: Uttarakhand. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can connectivity with neighbours advance peace in Jammu and Kashmir, or must peace come first? |
Question 14 of 16
1 Component A supports decentralised grid-connected renewable power plants of up to 2 MW on farmers' land.
2 Component B supports the installation of standalone off-grid solar agricultural pumps.
3 Component C supports the solarisation of existing grid-connected agricultural pumps.
4 The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Component A allows farmers, groups of farmers, cooperatives and others to set up plants of up to 2 MW, including on cultivable land on stilts, and sell power to distribution companies.
Statement 2Correct
Component B covers standalone solar pumps, with central financial assistance.
Statement 3Correct
Component C covers solarisation of grid-connected pumps, including feeder-level solarisation.
Statement 4Correct
PM-KUSUM is a scheme of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
Analysis
A September 2026 column argued that Component A has lagged because it carries no capital subsidy, and proposed agrivoltaics with priority-sector credit and a differentiated feed-in tariff.
Concept note
PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan), approved in 2019, was designed to give farmers energy security, reduce diesel use in irrigation and let farmers earn by selling solar power. Components B and C give capital support for pumps, shared between the Centre, the States and the farmer, while Component A relies on power sales to discoms, with an incentive to discoms for buying the power.
The rooftop scheme for households, PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana (2024), by contrast offers up to Rs 78,000 in central subsidy for a 3 kW system, and has an outlay of Rs 75,021 crore to reach one crore households. Agrivoltaics, or agri-PV, raises panels high enough for crops beneath, so land yields both food and power, avoiding the conflict between solar parks and cultivation.
The fiscal case rests on agricultural power subsidies: farm supply is billed far below cost, and the gap weighs on distribution companies and State budgets.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (energy, agriculture, subsidies); GS2 (government schemes). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** agrivoltaics, decentralised solar, feed-in tariff, discom finances, solar as a third crop. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing PM-KUSUM under the Agriculture Ministry; it belongs to MNRE. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Component A up to 2 MW; B standalone pumps; C grid-connected pump solarisation. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Will paying farmers for solar power reduce or increase groundwater extraction? |
Question 15 of 16
1 CERT-In is the national agency for responding to cyber security incidents under the Information Technology Act, 2000.
2 The National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre is designated under the Information Technology Act, 2000.
3 India has enacted a dedicated statute to regulate artificial intelligence systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 70B of the IT Act designates the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team as the national agency for incident response.
Statement 2Correct
Section 70A provides for a national nodal agency for critical information infrastructure, and the NCIIPC, under the National Technical Research Organisation, has been designated.
Statement 3Incorrect
India has no AI-specific statute; the India AI Governance Guidelines released by MeitY in November 2025 are advisory and rely on existing laws such as the IT Act and the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
Analysis
A September 2026 editorial, after AI agents probed government systems in the US and Australia, called for independent testing, mandatory incident reporting and strict permissions for agents that access government systems.
Concept note
India governs AI mainly through existing law and institutions. The IT Act, 2000 penalises unauthorised access and damage to computer systems (Sections 43 and 66), allows governments to notify critical systems as protected systems (Section 70), and creates two agencies: the NCIIPC for critical information infrastructure (Section 70A) and CERT-In for incident response (Section 70B), which requires reporting of specified cyber incidents.
The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, with rules notified in November 2025, governs personal data. The IndiaAI Mission, approved in March 2024 with an outlay of about Rs 10,372 crore, funds compute, datasets and applications, and houses the IndiaAI Safety Institute announced in January 2025.
The India AI Governance Guidelines of November 2025 favour a principle-based, light-touch approach and propose an AI Governance Group and a Technology and Policy Expert Committee. The new policy question is AI agents: systems that act on their own, and can find unintended routes to their goals, need rules on permissions, logging, testing and liability.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (cyber security, science and technology); GS2 (government policies, international cooperation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** agentic AI, reward hacking, incident reporting, critical information infrastructure. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Mixing up CERT-In (incident response, Section 70B) and NCIIPC (critical infrastructure, Section 70A). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** IT Act Sections 43, 66, 70, 70A, 70B; AI Governance Guidelines, November 2025. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is a dedicated AI law needed in India, or will sector rules and the IT Act suffice? |
Question 16 of 16
Facts
The Khavda renewable energy park is on the saline wasteland of the Rann of Kutch in Kutch district, Gujarat, close to the border with Pakistan, and is planned for about 30 GW of solar and wind capacity. The tempting distractors are other well-known solar sites: Bhadla (western Rajasthan), Pavagada (Tumakuru district, Karnataka) and Rewa Ultra Mega Solar (Madhya Pradesh).
Analysis
A September 2026 column cited Khavda as the flagship of India’s utility-scale solar model, which has driven most of the growth but, the authors argue, bypassed farmers.
Concept note
India’s utility-scale solar expansion has relied on large parks on degraded or government land with shared transmission. Well-known examples are Bhadla in western Rajasthan, among the largest solar parks in the world; Pavagada in Tumakuru district of Karnataka, built on land leased from farmers; Rewa in Madhya Pradesh, whose power supplies the Delhi Metro; and Khavda in the Rann of Kutch, Gujarat, a hybrid solar and wind park planned at about 30 GW.
The Rann’s flat, sparsely populated saline land, strong sunlight and wind make it suitable, but its location near the international border required clearances and security arrangements. The model delivers cheap power at scale but raises questions about land, ecology (the Rann is home to the Indian wild ass and flamingo breeding grounds) and the distribution of benefits, which is why schemes such as PM-KUSUM and PM Surya Ghar aim to decentralise solar to farms and rooftops.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (geography: location of resources); GS3 (energy infrastructure). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** utility-scale solar, hybrid parks, land use, decentralised renewable energy. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the largest solar parks only in Rajasthan; Gujarat’s Khavda and Karnataka’s Pavagada are also major. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Bhadla (Rajasthan), Pavagada (Karnataka), Rewa (MP), Khavda (Gujarat). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should large solar parks be allowed on land that supports pastoral communities and wildlife? |
Performance
Question-wise Result