UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 23 September 2026
Daily Practice
Test Your Knowledge
20 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
20 MCQs
Explanations
Statistics
Timed
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 20
With reference to settlement proceedings before the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), consider the following statements:
1 A settlement order is passed without the applicant admitting or denying the findings of fact and conclusions of law.
2 The power to settle proceedings under Section 15JB of the SEBI Act, 1992 was inserted by the Companies Act, 2013.
3 Once a settlement order is passed, SEBI has no power to restore the proceedings, even if a representation made by the applicant is later found to be untrue.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1 A settlement order is passed without the applicant admitting or denying the findings of fact and conclusions of law.
2 The power to settle proceedings under Section 15JB of the SEBI Act, 1992 was inserted by the Companies Act, 2013.
3 Once a settlement order is passed, SEBI has no power to restore the proceedings, even if a representation made by the applicant is later found to be untrue.
How many of the above statements are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: settlement is made “without admitting or denying” the findings, so it is neither a finding of guilt nor an acquittal. Statement 2 is wrong: Section 15JB of the SEBI Act and Section 23JA of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act were inserted by the Securities Laws (Amendment) Act, 2014.
Statement 3 is wrong: Regulation 28 of the SEBI (Settlement Proceedings) Regulations, 2018 lets SEBI restore or begin proceedings if a representation proves untrue, an undertaking is breached or there was a discrepancy in the terms. ANALYSIS: The news peg is the settlement order of 22 September 2026 in which five Adani group companies paid Rs 1,50,80,000 to settle disclosure and auditor peer-review proceedings arising from SEBI’s examination of the Hindenburg report.
Statement 3 is wrong: Regulation 28 of the SEBI (Settlement Proceedings) Regulations, 2018 lets SEBI restore or begin proceedings if a representation proves untrue, an undertaking is breached or there was a discrepancy in the terms. ANALYSIS: The news peg is the settlement order of 22 September 2026 in which five Adani group companies paid Rs 1,50,80,000 to settle disclosure and auditor peer-review proceedings arising from SEBI’s examination of the Hindenburg report.
📝 Concept Note
SEBI is a statutory regulator under the SEBI Act, 1992. Its enforcement toolkit includes adjudication by an Adjudicating Officer (who can impose monetary penalties), directions by Whole Time Members under Sections 11 and 11B, and settlement.
Settlement was first run under a 2007 circular as “consent orders”; after legal doubts over its basis, Parliament inserted Section 15JB through the Securities Laws (Amendment) Act, 2014, and SEBI now runs the process under the Settlement Proceedings Regulations, 2018. An application goes first to an Internal Committee, then to a High Powered Advisory Committee chaired by a retired judge, and finally to a Panel of Whole Time Members.
Settlement saves time and recovers money quickly, but critics argue that low amounts and the absence of findings weaken deterrence and transparency. Some matters, such as serious fraud or market-wide harm, are ineligible for settlement.
In the Adani case the Supreme Court had in January 2024 (Vishal Tiwari v. Union of India) declined to order an SIT or CBI probe and left the investigation with SEBI.
Settlement was first run under a 2007 circular as “consent orders”; after legal doubts over its basis, Parliament inserted Section 15JB through the Securities Laws (Amendment) Act, 2014, and SEBI now runs the process under the Settlement Proceedings Regulations, 2018. An application goes first to an Internal Committee, then to a High Powered Advisory Committee chaired by a retired judge, and finally to a Panel of Whole Time Members.
Settlement saves time and recovers money quickly, but critics argue that low amounts and the absence of findings weaken deterrence and transparency. Some matters, such as serious fraud or market-wide harm, are ineligible for settlement.
In the Adani case the Supreme Court had in January 2024 (Vishal Tiwari v. Union of India) declined to order an SIT or CBI probe and left the investigation with SEBI.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (capital markets, corporate governance); GS2 (regulatory bodies). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** settlement, without admitting or denying, HPAC, deterrence, related-party transactions, peer review. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading a settlement as a clean chit or a conviction; it is neither. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 15JB came in 2014; the current regulations are of 2018; Regulation 28 allows restoration. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should high-profile settlements publish detailed reasons for the amount accepted? |
Question 2 of 20
Consider the following statements about the regulation of medicines in India:
1 The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) is headed by the Drugs Controller General of India.
2 The Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013 is issued under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.
3 A chemist selling a Schedule H1 drug must record it in a separate register.
4 The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority functions under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1 The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) is headed by the Drugs Controller General of India.
2 The Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013 is issued under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.
3 A chemist selling a Schedule H1 drug must record it in a separate register.
4 The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority functions under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
How many of the above statements are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: the DCGI heads CDSCO, which approves new drugs and clinical trials and regulates imports. Statement 2 is wrong: the DPCO, 2013 is issued under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
Statement 3 is correct: Schedule H1, in force since 2014, requires a separate register recording the prescriber, the patient, the drug and the quantity. Statement 4 is wrong: NPPA, set up in 1997, works under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
ANALYSIS: The news pegs are CDSCO’s circular of 21 September 2026 against indiscriminate use of NSAIDs (Schedule H) and antibiotics, many of them in Schedule H1, and the Supreme Court’s remark on 22 September that a tenfold cancer-drug mark-up was “daylight dacoity”.
Statement 3 is correct: Schedule H1, in force since 2014, requires a separate register recording the prescriber, the patient, the drug and the quantity. Statement 4 is wrong: NPPA, set up in 1997, works under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
ANALYSIS: The news pegs are CDSCO’s circular of 21 September 2026 against indiscriminate use of NSAIDs (Schedule H) and antibiotics, many of them in Schedule H1, and the Supreme Court’s remark on 22 September that a tenfold cancer-drug mark-up was “daylight dacoity”.
📝 Concept Note
Drug regulation in India is split. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 and the Drugs Rules, 1945 govern quality and sale: CDSCO, under the Directorate General of Health Services, approves new drugs, clinical trials and imports, while State licensing authorities license manufacture and retail sale and inspect chemists.
Prescription drugs are grouped in schedules: Schedule H (prescription-only), Schedule H1 (mainly third- and fourth-generation antibiotics, anti-tuberculosis and some habit-forming drugs, with a red “Rx” and boxed warning and a separate register kept for three years) and Schedule X (narcotic and psychotropic drugs). Prices are governed separately by the DPCO, 2013: NPPA fixes ceiling prices for scheduled formulations in the National List of Essential Medicines (384 medicines in NLEM 2022) and limits annual MRP increases for non-scheduled drugs to 10 per cent.
In February 2019 NPPA capped trade margins on 42 non-scheduled anti-cancer drugs at 30 per cent. Antibiotic misuse drives antimicrobial resistance, the target of the National Action Plan on AMR (2017).
Prescription drugs are grouped in schedules: Schedule H (prescription-only), Schedule H1 (mainly third- and fourth-generation antibiotics, anti-tuberculosis and some habit-forming drugs, with a red “Rx” and boxed warning and a separate register kept for three years) and Schedule X (narcotic and psychotropic drugs). Prices are governed separately by the DPCO, 2013: NPPA fixes ceiling prices for scheduled formulations in the National List of Essential Medicines (384 medicines in NLEM 2022) and limits annual MRP increases for non-scheduled drugs to 10 per cent.
In February 2019 NPPA capped trade margins on 42 non-scheduled anti-cancer drugs at 30 per cent. Antibiotic misuse drives antimicrobial resistance, the target of the National Action Plan on AMR (2017).
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (health, regulatory bodies); GS3 (antimicrobial resistance). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Schedule H1, antimicrobial stewardship, DPCO, NPPA, trade margin rationalisation, NLEM. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing NPPA under the Health Ministry; it is under the Department of Pharmaceuticals. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Quality under the 1940 Act, price under the Essential Commodities Act through the DPCO. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is weak enforcement at the chemist’s counter a regulatory failure or a failure of access to doctors? |
Question 3 of 20
Consider the following statements:
1 The National Highways Authority of India was constituted under an Act of Parliament passed in 1988.
2 Highways declared as National Highways fall under the State List of the Seventh Schedule.
3 On an access-controlled highway, vehicles can enter or leave only at designated interchanges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 The National Highways Authority of India was constituted under an Act of Parliament passed in 1988.
2 Highways declared as National Highways fall under the State List of the Seventh Schedule.
3 On an access-controlled highway, vehicles can enter or leave only at designated interchanges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: NHAI was constituted under the National Highways Authority of India Act, 1988 and became operational in 1995. Statement 2 is wrong: highways declared by or under law made by Parliament to be national highways are in Entry 23 of the Union List; the National Highways Act, 1956 is the law that declares them.
Statement 3 is correct: access control means no direct access from adjoining land or cross roads; entry and exit are through ramps and interchanges. ANALYSIS: The news peg is NHAI’s guidelines of 21 September 2026 for high-speed access-controlled National Highways, other than Expressways, aimed at 50,000 km of such corridors under Viksit Bharat 2047.
Statement 3 is correct: access control means no direct access from adjoining land or cross roads; entry and exit are through ramps and interchanges. ANALYSIS: The news peg is NHAI’s guidelines of 21 September 2026 for high-speed access-controlled National Highways, other than Expressways, aimed at 50,000 km of such corridors under Viksit Bharat 2047.
📝 Concept Note
India’s National Highways are a Union responsibility: Entry 23 of List I covers highways declared national by Parliament, and the National Highways Act, 1956 is the declaring law. The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways sets policy; NHAI, a statutory authority under the 1988 Act, develops, maintains and manages the highways entrusted to it, largely through contracts such as EPC, BOT (toll) and the Hybrid Annuity Model.
Other roads are State subjects. The new guidelines standardise design for 4- and 6-lane high-speed corridors: right of way of 60 metres for traffic up to 15,000 passenger car units and 70 metres above that, no at-grade intersections, a one-metre boundary wall against encroachment and stray cattle, advance exit gantries and provision for multi-lane free-flow tolling.
They sit within Bharatmala Pariyojana (Phase I approved in 2017), the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan (2021) and the National Logistics Policy (2022). Design standards for Indian roads are largely set by the Indian Roads Congress, founded in 1934.
Other roads are State subjects. The new guidelines standardise design for 4- and 6-lane high-speed corridors: right of way of 60 metres for traffic up to 15,000 passenger car units and 70 metres above that, no at-grade intersections, a one-metre boundary wall against encroachment and stray cattle, advance exit gantries and provision for multi-lane free-flow tolling.
They sit within Bharatmala Pariyojana (Phase I approved in 2017), the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan (2021) and the National Logistics Policy (2022). Design standards for Indian roads are largely set by the Indian Roads Congress, founded in 1934.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (infrastructure, logistics); GS2 (Centre-State distribution of subjects). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** access control, grade separation, right of way, MLFF tolling, Gati Shakti, logistics cost. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating all highways as State subjects; National Highways are in the Union List. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NHAI Act 1988; National Highways Act 1956; Entry 23, List I. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should highway design protect farmers whose land is cut by a walled corridor? |
Question 4 of 20
Consider the following statements about groundwater governance in India:
1 The Central Ground Water Authority was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2 Water is included in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule.
3 An assessment unit is categorised as over-exploited when annual groundwater extraction exceeds 100 per cent of the annual extractable groundwater resource.
4 The Punjab Preservation of Subsoil Water Act, 2009 regulates the timing of paddy nursery sowing and transplanting.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1 The Central Ground Water Authority was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2 Water is included in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule.
3 An assessment unit is categorised as over-exploited when annual groundwater extraction exceeds 100 per cent of the annual extractable groundwater resource.
4 The Punjab Preservation of Subsoil Water Act, 2009 regulates the timing of paddy nursery sowing and transplanting.
How many of the above statements are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: CGWA was constituted in 1997 under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Statement 2 is wrong: water is Entry 17 of the State List, subject to Entry 56 of the Union List on inter-State rivers.
Statement 3 is correct: above 100 per cent is over-exploited; 90 to 100 is critical; 70 to 90 semi-critical; up to 70 safe. Statement 4 is correct: the 2009 Act bars sowing and transplanting paddy before notified dates, to shift paddy towards the monsoon.
ANALYSIS: The news peg is The Hindu’s editorial of 23 September 2026 on Punjab, where the State’s 2025-26 assessment put extraction at 152.22 per cent and 110 of 153 blocks as over-exploited.
Statement 3 is correct: above 100 per cent is over-exploited; 90 to 100 is critical; 70 to 90 semi-critical; up to 70 safe. Statement 4 is correct: the 2009 Act bars sowing and transplanting paddy before notified dates, to shift paddy towards the monsoon.
ANALYSIS: The news peg is The Hindu’s editorial of 23 September 2026 on Punjab, where the State’s 2025-26 assessment put extraction at 152.22 per cent and 110 of 153 blocks as over-exploited.
📝 Concept Note
Groundwater is assessed jointly by the Central Ground Water Board and State agencies in the Dynamic Ground Water Resources Assessment. The 2025 assessment, released on 30 December 2025, put India’s stage of extraction at 60.63 per cent, with 730 of 6,762 assessment units over-exploited.
Over-exploitation is concentrated in the north-west (Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, western Uttar Pradesh), the west (Rajasthan, Gujarat) and parts of the south. Because water is a State subject, groundwater law is largely State law; the Centre acts through CGWA’s regulation of extraction, model bills, and schemes such as Atal Bhujal Yojana (launched 25 December 2019, in seven States that do not include Punjab).
In Punjab, assured procurement of paddy and wheat and free farm power have locked in a water-intensive rotation. Remedies include direct-seeded rice, crop diversification with market support, metered power with a free entitlement, and schemes such as Pani Bachao, Paisa Kamao that pay farmers for electricity saved.
Depletion is also regressive, since richer farmers can reach deeper water.
Over-exploitation is concentrated in the north-west (Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, western Uttar Pradesh), the west (Rajasthan, Gujarat) and parts of the south. Because water is a State subject, groundwater law is largely State law; the Centre acts through CGWA’s regulation of extraction, model bills, and schemes such as Atal Bhujal Yojana (launched 25 December 2019, in seven States that do not include Punjab).
In Punjab, assured procurement of paddy and wheat and free farm power have locked in a water-intensive rotation. Remedies include direct-seeded rice, crop diversification with market support, metered power with a free entitlement, and schemes such as Pani Bachao, Paisa Kamao that pay farmers for electricity saved.
Depletion is also regressive, since richer farmers can reach deeper water.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (distribution of water resources); GS3 (irrigation, farm subsidies). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** stage of extraction, over-exploited, power subsidy, crop diversification, groundwater equity. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming Punjab is covered by Atal Bhujal Yojana; it is not. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Categories: 70, 90 and 100 per cent thresholds. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can free electricity for farmers and groundwater conservation coexist? |
Question 5 of 20
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Indian Army observes 23 September every year as Haifa Day.
Statement-II: On 23 September 1918, cavalry of the 15th (Imperial Service) Cavalry Brigade, drawn from princely States, captured the port of Haifa from Ottoman forces.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement-I: The Indian Army observes 23 September every year as Haifa Day.
Statement-II: On 23 September 1918, cavalry of the 15th (Imperial Service) Cavalry Brigade, drawn from princely States, captured the port of Haifa from Ottoman forces.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
FACT: Statement-I is correct: Haifa Day is marked by the Indian Army, whose 61st Cavalry carries the battle honour of the Imperial Service cavalry. Statement-II is correct and is the reason: the Jodhpur and Mysore Lancers of the brigade, which also included the Hyderabad Lancers, took Haifa in one of the last great cavalry charges of the First World War.
ANALYSIS: The news peg is Shashi Tharoor’s Hindu lead of 23 September 2026, which calls Haifa a site of contested memory: Indian valour, a bridge to Israel, and for Palestinians a step towards British rule and dispossession.
ANALYSIS: The news peg is Shashi Tharoor’s Hindu lead of 23 September 2026, which calls Haifa a site of contested memory: Indian valour, a bridge to Israel, and for Palestinians a step towards British rule and dispossession.
📝 Concept Note
More than a million Indians served overseas in the First World War. The Imperial Service Troops were forces raised by princely States and placed at the Crown’s disposal.
In the Sinai and Palestine campaign, General Allenby’s forces broke through at Megiddo in September 1918, and the 15th (Imperial Service) Cavalry Brigade took Haifa on 23 September, opening the advance to Damascus. Major Dalpat Singh of the Jodhpur Lancers, killed in the charge, is remembered as the “Hero of Haifa”.
The Teen Murti memorial in New Delhi commemorates these units, and Teen Murti Chowk was renamed Teen Murti Haifa Chowk in January 2018 during the Israeli Prime Minister’s visit. The victory helped Britain secure Palestine, where it implemented the Balfour Declaration (2 November 1917) under a League of Nations Mandate until 1948.
India recognised Israel in 1950, established full diplomatic relations in 1992, recognised the State of Palestine in 1988, and supports a negotiated two-State solution.
In the Sinai and Palestine campaign, General Allenby’s forces broke through at Megiddo in September 1918, and the 15th (Imperial Service) Cavalry Brigade took Haifa on 23 September, opening the advance to Damascus. Major Dalpat Singh of the Jodhpur Lancers, killed in the charge, is remembered as the “Hero of Haifa”.
The Teen Murti memorial in New Delhi commemorates these units, and Teen Murti Chowk was renamed Teen Murti Haifa Chowk in January 2018 during the Israeli Prime Minister’s visit. The victory helped Britain secure Palestine, where it implemented the Balfour Declaration (2 November 1917) under a League of Nations Mandate until 1948.
India recognised Israel in 1950, established full diplomatic relations in 1992, recognised the State of Palestine in 1988, and supports a negotiated two-State solution.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (modern history, First World War); GS2 (India-West Asia relations). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Imperial Service Troops, historical recovery, contested memory, de-hyphenation, two-State solution. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the Balfour Declaration followed the battle; it came in November 1917, before Haifa. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Haifa was taken from Ottoman forces, with German and Austrian support, not from Arab nationalists. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should independent India commemorate battles its soldiers fought for the British Empire? |
Question 6 of 20
Consider the following statements regarding arbitration and investment treaties in India:
1 The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is based on the New York Convention of 1958.
2 The Arbitration Council of India, provided for by the 2019 amendment of the Act, has been grading arbitral institutions since 2020.
3 India’s Model Bilateral Investment Treaty of 2015 allows a foreign investor to begin investor-State arbitration immediately, without first using domestic remedies.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1 The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is based on the New York Convention of 1958.
2 The Arbitration Council of India, provided for by the 2019 amendment of the Act, has been grading arbitral institutions since 2020.
3 India’s Model Bilateral Investment Treaty of 2015 allows a foreign investor to begin investor-State arbitration immediately, without first using domestic remedies.
How many of the above statements are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is wrong: the 1996 Act is based on the UNCITRAL Model Law on International Commercial Arbitration (1985); the New York Convention governs the enforcement of foreign awards, which Part II of the Act implements. Statement 2 is wrong: Part IA, inserted in 2019, provides for the Arbitration Council of India, but the Council has not been constituted.
Statement 3 is wrong: the 2015 Model BIT requires investors to exhaust local remedies before investor-State arbitration. ANALYSIS: The news peg is Arun Chawla’s Hindu op-ed of 23 September 2026 arguing that future BITs and FTAs should let India-seated commercial arbitration count as a local remedy and explain the absence of ISDS.
Statement 3 is wrong: the 2015 Model BIT requires investors to exhaust local remedies before investor-State arbitration. ANALYSIS: The news peg is Arun Chawla’s Hindu op-ed of 23 September 2026 arguing that future BITs and FTAs should let India-seated commercial arbitration count as a local remedy and explain the absence of ISDS.
📝 Concept Note
India’s arbitration law, the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, covers domestic arbitration, international commercial arbitration seated in India (Part I) and enforcement of foreign awards under the New York and Geneva Conventions (Part II). Amendments in 2015, 2019 and 2021 set time limits, curbed court intervention and addressed stays of awards tainted by fraud.
The New Delhi International Arbitration Centre, set up by statute in 2019 as an institution of national importance, was renamed the India International Arbitration Centre in 2022. On the treaty side, investor-State dispute settlement (ISDS) lets a foreign investor sue a host State before an international tribunal.
After adverse awards, starting with White Industries v. India (2011), India adopted a 2015 Model BIT with a narrower definition of investment, no most-favoured-nation clause and an exhaustion-of-local-remedies requirement, and terminated most older BITs. Its recent FTAs (EFTA, the UK, Oman, New Zealand) generally omit ISDS, while new BITs with the UAE, Uzbekistan and Israel follow the narrower model.
The New Delhi International Arbitration Centre, set up by statute in 2019 as an institution of national importance, was renamed the India International Arbitration Centre in 2022. On the treaty side, investor-State dispute settlement (ISDS) lets a foreign investor sue a host State before an international tribunal.
After adverse awards, starting with White Industries v. India (2011), India adopted a 2015 Model BIT with a narrower definition of investment, no most-favoured-nation clause and an exhaustion-of-local-remedies requirement, and terminated most older BITs. Its recent FTAs (EFTA, the UK, Oman, New Zealand) generally omit ISDS, while new BITs with the UAE, Uzbekistan and Israel follow the narrower model.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international agreements, alternative dispute resolution); GS3 (investment climate). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** UNCITRAL Model Law, New York Convention, ISDS, exhaustion of local remedies, arbitration hub. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing the law the Act is modelled on (UNCITRAL) with the treaty it implements for foreign awards (New York). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Arbitration Council of India exists in law (Part IA) but has not been constituted. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why would a foreign investor prefer Singapore to Delhi as a seat of arbitration? |
Question 7 of 20
With reference to Article 20 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1 No person can be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the offence.
2 The protections of Article 20 are available only to citizens of India.
3 The enforcement of Article 20 cannot be suspended during a proclamation of Emergency.
4 Article 20(3) protects a person from being prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1 No person can be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the offence.
2 The protections of Article 20 are available only to citizens of India.
3 The enforcement of Article 20 cannot be suspended during a proclamation of Emergency.
4 Article 20(3) protects a person from being prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
How many of the above statements are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: it is the second limb of Article 20(1), against retrospective criminal penalties. Statement 2 is wrong: Article 20 protects any person, citizen or foreigner, including legal persons such as companies.
Statement 3 is correct: after the 44th Amendment (1978), Article 359 does not permit suspension of the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21. Statement 4 is wrong: double jeopardy is Article 20(2); Article 20(3) is the right against self-incrimination.
ANALYSIS: The news peg is B.B. Pande’s Hindu op-ed of 23 September 2026 on the Supreme Court’s view that the UP Gangsters Act, 1986 is “still-born” because it creates no offence, which rests on the principle of legality behind Article 20(1).
Statement 3 is correct: after the 44th Amendment (1978), Article 359 does not permit suspension of the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21. Statement 4 is wrong: double jeopardy is Article 20(2); Article 20(3) is the right against self-incrimination.
ANALYSIS: The news peg is B.B. Pande’s Hindu op-ed of 23 September 2026 on the Supreme Court’s view that the UP Gangsters Act, 1986 is “still-born” because it creates no offence, which rests on the principle of legality behind Article 20(1).
📝 Concept Note
Article 20 gives three protections in respect of conviction for offences. Clause (1) embodies the principle of legality: nullum crimen sine lege (no crime without a law) and nulla poena sine lege (no punishment without a law), and bars ex post facto criminal laws; it does not bar retrospective civil or tax laws, or procedural changes.
Clause (2) bars prosecution and punishment for the same offence more than once, and applies to proceedings before a court or judicial tribunal, not departmental action. Clause (3) protects an accused from being compelled to be a witness against himself; Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010) held that involuntary narco-analysis, polygraph and brain-mapping tests violate it.
The creation of offences is an essential legislative function that cannot be delegated (In re Delhi Laws Act, 1951), and vague penal laws can fall, as Section 66A of the IT Act did in Shreya Singhal (2015). The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 now defines organised crime in Section 111.
Clause (2) bars prosecution and punishment for the same offence more than once, and applies to proceedings before a court or judicial tribunal, not departmental action. Clause (3) protects an accused from being compelled to be a witness against himself; Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010) held that involuntary narco-analysis, polygraph and brain-mapping tests violate it.
The creation of offences is an essential legislative function that cannot be delegated (In re Delhi Laws Act, 1951), and vague penal laws can fall, as Section 66A of the IT Act did in Shreya Singhal (2015). The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 now defines organised crime in Section 111.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (fundamental rights, separation of powers, criminal justice). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** principle of legality, ex post facto, excessive delegation, void for vagueness, status offence. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Swapping Article 20(2) (double jeopardy) and 20(3) (self-incrimination). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Articles 20 and 21 are the two rights that cannot be suspended in an Emergency. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Are special anti-gang laws compatible with the principle of legality? |
Question 8 of 20
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In India, the share of consumer spending on food eaten at home that reaches the farm is higher than comparable international estimates.
Statement-II: A higher farm share of consumer food spending necessarily means higher net incomes for farmers.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement-I: In India, the share of consumer spending on food eaten at home that reaches the farm is higher than comparable international estimates.
Statement-II: A higher farm share of consumer food spending necessarily means higher net incomes for farmers.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
FACT: Statement-I is correct: estimates using India’s supply-use tables put the farm share of food eaten at home at 57.8 per cent in 2023-24, against about 27 per cent across 61 countries (2005-15). Statement-II is wrong: the share reflects the length of the value chain, not profit; gherkin growers get 3 to 5 per cent of the retail price but earn more than tomato growers, while dairy farmers getting over 60 per cent can still be squeezed by feed costs.
ANALYSIS: The news peg is the Indian Express column of 23 September 2026 by IFPRI and Michigan State University economists, which also estimates a farm share of only 8.4 per cent for food eaten away from home.
ANALYSIS: The news peg is the Indian Express column of 23 September 2026 by IFPRI and Michigan State University economists, which also estimates a farm share of only 8.4 per cent for food eaten away from home.
📝 Concept Note
The farm share is the portion of the consumer’s food rupee that accrues to the farm; the rest goes to processing, transport, trade and food service. India’s share is high because households still buy mostly unprocessed, perishable foods, processing is dominated by low-margin milling, and eating out is only about 13 per cent of food consumption.
As diets shift to processed food and eating out, the overall farm share is likely to fall, which is normal as food systems modernise. The policy goal is therefore not to raise the share itself but to let farmers capture more of the value added after harvest.
Instruments include Farmer Producer Organisations (a Central Sector Scheme launched in February 2020 to form 10,000 FPOs), cooperatives on the Anand pattern (Amul grew from the Kaira union of 1946; Operation Flood began in 1970), the PM Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises scheme (2020), e-NAM (2016) and marketing reforms, agricultural markets being a State subject under Entry 28 of List II.
As diets shift to processed food and eating out, the overall farm share is likely to fall, which is normal as food systems modernise. The policy goal is therefore not to raise the share itself but to let farmers capture more of the value added after harvest.
Instruments include Farmer Producer Organisations (a Central Sector Scheme launched in February 2020 to form 10,000 FPOs), cooperatives on the Anand pattern (Amul grew from the Kaira union of 1946; Operation Flood began in 1970), the PM Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises scheme (2020), e-NAM (2016) and marketing reforms, agricultural markets being a State subject under Entry 28 of List II.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (agricultural marketing, food processing, farm incomes). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** farm share, value addition, supply-use tables, FPOs, post-harvest value chains. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating a low farm share as proof of exploitation, or a high one as proof of prosperity. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Farm share is lower for food eaten away from home because service absorbs value. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should policy try to raise the farmer’s share of the consumer rupee? |
Question 9 of 20
Consider the following statements:
1 In Sukdeb Saha v. State of Andhra Pradesh, the Supreme Court held that mental health is an integral part of the right to life under Article 21 and issued guidelines for educational institutions.
2 The Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 presumes that a person who attempts suicide is suffering from severe stress.
3 The National Task Force on the mental health of students in higher educational institutions was constituted by the University Grants Commission under the UGC Act, 1956.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 In Sukdeb Saha v. State of Andhra Pradesh, the Supreme Court held that mental health is an integral part of the right to life under Article 21 and issued guidelines for educational institutions.
2 The Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 presumes that a person who attempts suicide is suffering from severe stress.
3 The National Task Force on the mental health of students in higher educational institutions was constituted by the University Grants Commission under the UGC Act, 1956.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: the judgment of 25 July 2025 by Justices Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta issued fifteen binding guidelines, including mental health policies, trained counsellors and staff training. Statement 2 is correct: Section 115 of the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 presumes severe stress and bars punishing the person.
Statement 3 is wrong: the National Task Force, chaired by Justice S. Ravindra Bhat, was set up by the Supreme Court in Amit Kumar v. Union of India (March 2025). ANALYSIS: The news peg is the Indian Express editorial of 23 September 2026 on student deaths at IIT-Bombay and IIT-Delhi, which asks for integrity guidelines alongside counselling, grievance systems and a reckoning with caste.
Statement 3 is wrong: the National Task Force, chaired by Justice S. Ravindra Bhat, was set up by the Supreme Court in Amit Kumar v. Union of India (March 2025). ANALYSIS: The news peg is the Indian Express editorial of 23 September 2026 on student deaths at IIT-Bombay and IIT-Delhi, which asks for integrity guidelines alongside counselling, grievance systems and a reckoning with caste.
📝 Concept Note
Student suicides have prompted a layered response. The Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 moved India to a rights-based framework and, through Section 115, effectively decriminalised attempted suicide; the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 has no general offence of attempted suicide, retaining only Section 226 on attempts to compel a public servant.
The National Suicide Prevention Strategy (2022), India’s first, aims to cut suicide mortality by 10 per cent by 2030, and the Tele-MANAS helpline (14416) was launched in October 2022. The Supreme Court has been central: in March 2025 it set up the National Task Force in Amit Kumar v. Union of India after deaths at IIT-Delhi, and in July 2025, in Sukdeb Saha, it issued fifteen guidelines applying to all educational institutions, including a ban on segregating students by performance and a requirement for trained counsellors.
Allegations of caste discrimination on campuses, from Rohith Vemula and Payal Tadvi onwards, have also led to regulation of equity in higher education.
The National Suicide Prevention Strategy (2022), India’s first, aims to cut suicide mortality by 10 per cent by 2030, and the Tele-MANAS helpline (14416) was launched in October 2022. The Supreme Court has been central: in March 2025 it set up the National Task Force in Amit Kumar v. Union of India after deaths at IIT-Delhi, and in July 2025, in Sukdeb Saha, it issued fifteen guidelines applying to all educational institutions, including a ban on segregating students by performance and a requirement for trained counsellors.
Allegations of caste discrimination on campuses, from Rohith Vemula and Payal Tadvi onwards, have also led to regulation of equity in higher education.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (education, vulnerable sections); GS4 (ethics in public institutions). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** student well-being, Article 21, institutional culture, accountability with compassion, anti-discrimination. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Attributing the National Task Force to the UGC or the Ministry of Education; it came from the Supreme Court. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Amit Kumar (March 2025) created the Task Force; Sukdeb Saha (July 2025) issued the 15 guidelines. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should an institution protect both a distressed student and the teacher who reported him for cheating? |
Question 10 of 20
Consider the following statements about India’s defence industrial policy:
1 The Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) scheme is run by the Defence Innovation Organisation, set up by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited and Bharat Electronics Limited.
2 Foreign direct investment of up to 74 per cent is permitted in the defence sector under the automatic route.
3 The Ordnance Factory Board was dissolved and its units were corporatised into seven defence public sector undertakings.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1 The Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) scheme is run by the Defence Innovation Organisation, set up by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited and Bharat Electronics Limited.
2 Foreign direct investment of up to 74 per cent is permitted in the defence sector under the automatic route.
3 The Ordnance Factory Board was dissolved and its units were corporatised into seven defence public sector undertakings.
How many of the above statements are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: iDEX, launched in April 2018, is executed by the Defence Innovation Organisation, a not-for-profit company formed by HAL and BEL. Statement 2 is correct: since September 2020, FDI up to 74 per cent in defence is automatic, and beyond that through the government route. Statement 3 is correct: from 1 October 2021 the Ordnance Factory Board was dissolved and its 41 factories grouped into seven defence PSUs, including Munitions India Limited.
ANALYSIS: The news peg is Amitabh Kant’s Hindustan Times op-ed of 23 September 2026, which argues that with policy barriers removed, working capital and payment delays are now the binding constraint on private defence firms.
ANALYSIS: The news peg is Amitabh Kant’s Hindustan Times op-ed of 23 September 2026, which argues that with policy barriers removed, working capital and payment delays are now the binding constraint on private defence firms.
📝 Concept Note
India’s defence industrial policy has moved from nomination, in which orders went to public sector units, to competition. Key steps: the Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020, whose top-priority category is Buy (Indian-IDDM, Indigenously Designed, Developed and Manufactured); positive indigenisation lists that bar imports of notified items after set dates; FDI liberalisation; corporatisation of the Ordnance Factory Board; defence industrial corridors in Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu; the Technology Development Fund executed by DRDO; and iDEX for start-ups and MSMEs, which funds prototypes through milestone-based grants while innovators keep their intellectual property.
Recent moves include the transfer of DRDO’s conventional missile technologies to industry and acquisition approvals sourced almost entirely from Indian firms. Official data put defence production at a record Rs 1.78 lakh crore in 2025-26.
The remaining constraints are finance and process: long working-capital cycles, delayed payments and the gap between a successful prototype and an assured order, which the draft DAP 2026 seeks to address with pilot and assured orders.
Recent moves include the transfer of DRDO’s conventional missile technologies to industry and acquisition approvals sourced almost entirely from Indian firms. Official data put defence production at a record Rs 1.78 lakh crore in 2025-26.
The remaining constraints are finance and process: long working-capital cycles, delayed payments and the gap between a successful prototype and an assured order, which the draft DAP 2026 seeks to address with pilot and assured orders.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (indigenisation of technology, defence, investment models). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** nomination to competition, IDDM, positive indigenisation lists, valley of death, working capital. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying iDEX is run by DRDO; DRDO executes the Technology Development Fund. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** FDI 74 per cent automatic since 2020; OFB corporatised on 1 October 2021. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does opening defence production to private firms strengthen or risk strategic autonomy? |
Question 11 of 20
Consider the following statements about the Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO):
1 The EPFO administers the Employees' Provident Fund Scheme, the Employees' Pension Scheme and the Employees' Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme.
2 The Employees' Pension Scheme, 1995 is a defined-contribution scheme.
3 The National Pension System is regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority.
4 The Central Board of Trustees of the EPFO is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1 The EPFO administers the Employees' Provident Fund Scheme, the Employees' Pension Scheme and the Employees' Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme.
2 The Employees' Pension Scheme, 1995 is a defined-contribution scheme.
3 The National Pension System is regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority.
4 The Central Board of Trustees of the EPFO is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
How many of the above statements are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: the EPFO runs the EPF (1952), EDLI (1976) and EPS (1995) schemes; it was set up under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, now subsumed in the Code on Social Security, 2020. Statement 2 is wrong: the EPS is a defined-benefit pension; the NPS is defined-contribution.
Statement 3 is correct: PFRDA, under the PFRDA Act, 2013, regulates the NPS. Statement 4 is wrong: the tripartite Central Board of Trustees is chaired by the Union Labour Minister. ANALYSIS: The news peg is Business Standard’s editorial of 23 September 2026 on the rise in the EPFO wage ceiling from Rs 15,000 to Rs 25,000 a month, which widens coverage but lowers take-home pay and demands stronger EPFO governance.
Statement 3 is correct: PFRDA, under the PFRDA Act, 2013, regulates the NPS. Statement 4 is wrong: the tripartite Central Board of Trustees is chaired by the Union Labour Minister. ANALYSIS: The news peg is Business Standard’s editorial of 23 September 2026 on the rise in the EPFO wage ceiling from Rs 15,000 to Rs 25,000 a month, which widens coverage but lowers take-home pay and demands stronger EPFO governance.
📝 Concept Note
The wage ceiling defines who must join the EPF and the wage on which contributions are calculated. It was raised from Rs 6,500 to Rs 15,000 in September 2014 and to Rs 25,000 with effect from 17 September 2026.
Employees contribute 12 per cent of wages; of the employer’s 12 per cent, 8.33 per cent (on wages up to the ceiling) goes to the pension scheme, to which the Centre adds 1.16 per cent. The EPFO has about 79.8 million contributing members and over Rs 25 trillion under management, and a 2025 RBI review flagged gaps in its accounting, risk and portfolio management.
The 1952 Act is among the laws subsumed in the Code on Social Security, 2020, while the Code on Wages, 2019 requires that basic pay and dearness allowance make up at least half of pay for statutory purposes, which raised contributions even before the ceiling moved. The EPFO works under the Ministry of Labour and Employment; PFRDA works under the Finance Ministry.
Employees contribute 12 per cent of wages; of the employer’s 12 per cent, 8.33 per cent (on wages up to the ceiling) goes to the pension scheme, to which the Centre adds 1.16 per cent. The EPFO has about 79.8 million contributing members and over Rs 25 trillion under management, and a 2025 RBI review flagged gaps in its accounting, risk and portfolio management.
The 1952 Act is among the laws subsumed in the Code on Social Security, 2020, while the Code on Wages, 2019 requires that basic pay and dearness allowance make up at least half of pay for statutory purposes, which raised contributions even before the ceiling moved. The EPFO works under the Ministry of Labour and Employment; PFRDA works under the Finance Ministry.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (social security, welfare schemes); GS3 (savings, labour reforms). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** wage ceiling, take-home pay, defined benefit, actuarial oversight, NPS choice. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling the EPS defined-contribution; it promises a formula-based pension. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Three EPFO schemes: EPF 1952, EDLI 1976, EPS 1995. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should workers be free to opt out of the EPFO into the NPS? |
Question 12 of 20
Consider the following statements:
1 The Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises covers unincorporated non-agricultural enterprises in manufacturing, trade and other services.
2 The Annual Survey of Industries covers the registered factory sector.
3 Both these surveys are conducted by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 The Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises covers unincorporated non-agricultural enterprises in manufacturing, trade and other services.
2 The Annual Survey of Industries covers the registered factory sector.
3 Both these surveys are conducted by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: ASUSE surveys unincorporated non-farm establishments in manufacturing, trade and other services. Statement 2 is correct: the ASI covers factories registered under the Factories Act and similar units.
Statement 3 is wrong: both are conducted by the National Statistics Office under MoSPI; DPIIT’s Office of the Economic Adviser compiles the Index of Core Industries and the wholesale price index. ANALYSIS: The news peg is Business Standard’s editorial of 23 September 2026 on ASUSE 2025’s first district-level estimates: 79.2 million establishments and 128.1 million workers, with half the value added coming from only 95 districts.
Statement 3 is wrong: both are conducted by the National Statistics Office under MoSPI; DPIIT’s Office of the Economic Adviser compiles the Index of Core Industries and the wholesale price index. ANALYSIS: The news peg is Business Standard’s editorial of 23 September 2026 on ASUSE 2025’s first district-level estimates: 79.2 million establishments and 128.1 million workers, with half the value added coming from only 95 districts.
📝 Concept Note
India’s enterprise statistics come in layers. The Annual Survey of Industries covers the organised, registered manufacturing sector.
The unincorporated sector, small proprietary and partnership units outside the company form, is captured by ASUSE, which since 2021-22 has run as an annual survey and, in its 2025 round, published estimates for 757 districts for the first time. ASUSE counts both own-account establishments, run without hired workers, and establishments with hired workers.
The district data show that value added is more concentrated than enterprises or jobs, that pay per hired worker varies several-fold (about Rs 4.64 lakh in Dehradun against around Rs 80,000 in parts of Bihar and Jharkhand), and that women are at least a third of the workforce in 237 districts. ASUSE also feeds the household-sector estimates of the new GDP series with base year 2022-23, together with the Periodic Labour Force Survey.
Formalisation tools include the Udyam registration and Udyam Assist Platform for micro enterprises.
The unincorporated sector, small proprietary and partnership units outside the company form, is captured by ASUSE, which since 2021-22 has run as an annual survey and, in its 2025 round, published estimates for 757 districts for the first time. ASUSE counts both own-account establishments, run without hired workers, and establishments with hired workers.
The district data show that value added is more concentrated than enterprises or jobs, that pay per hired worker varies several-fold (about Rs 4.64 lakh in Dehradun against around Rs 80,000 in parts of Bihar and Jharkhand), and that women are at least a third of the workforce in 237 districts. ASUSE also feeds the household-sector estimates of the new GDP series with base year 2022-23, together with the Periodic Labour Force Survey.
Formalisation tools include the Udyam registration and Udyam Assist Platform for micro enterprises.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (employment, MSMEs, national income); GS1 (regional disparities, women’s work). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** unincorporated sector, GVA per worker, district estimates, formalisation, relative standard error. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Attributing economic surveys to DPIIT; ASUSE, ASI and PLFS are NSO surveys. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** ASI = registered factories; ASUSE = unincorporated non-farm enterprises. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you use district-level ASUSE data as a District Collector? |
Question 13 of 20
The Balassa-Samuelson effect, sometimes used to explain why the inflation target of a fast-growing emerging economy is set higher than that of advanced economies, refers to:
FACT: Option (c) is correct: in a fast-growing economy, productivity rises faster in tradable sectors; wages rise across the economy, so the prices of non-traded services rise, lifting overall inflation even under disciplined policy. Option (a) describes exchange-rate pass-through; (b) describes de-anchoring of expectations; (d) describes monetised deficits.
ANALYSIS: The news peg is Niranjan Rajadhyaksha’s Mint column of 23 September 2026, which reads India’s 4 per cent target as 2 per cent advanced-economy inflation plus about 2 points for this effect, and asks whether higher global inflation should one day prompt a review.
ANALYSIS: The news peg is Niranjan Rajadhyaksha’s Mint column of 23 September 2026, which reads India’s 4 per cent target as 2 per cent advanced-economy inflation plus about 2 points for this effect, and asks whether higher global inflation should one day prompt a review.
📝 Concept Note
India adopted flexible inflation targeting through the Finance Act, 2016, which amended the RBI Act, 1934. Under Section 45ZA the Central Government, in consultation with the RBI, sets the target every five years; it has been 4 per cent CPI (combined) inflation with a band of 2 to 6 per cent.
A six-member Monetary Policy Committee, three RBI members including the Governor (who chairs and has a casting vote) and three external members appointed by the Centre for four years, sets the repo rate. If average inflation stays outside the band for three consecutive quarters, the RBI must report the reasons and remedial action to the government.
The Urjit Patel committee (January 2014) recommended the 4 per cent target and noted that trading-partner inflation matters. The RBI’s operating target is the weighted average call money rate, so surplus liquidity can blunt a rate hike unless drained through open market operations.
A higher target would imply looser monetary and tighter fiscal policy.
A six-member Monetary Policy Committee, three RBI members including the Governor (who chairs and has a casting vote) and three external members appointed by the Centre for four years, sets the repo rate. If average inflation stays outside the band for three consecutive quarters, the RBI must report the reasons and remedial action to the government.
The Urjit Patel committee (January 2014) recommended the 4 per cent target and noted that trading-partner inflation matters. The RBI’s operating target is the weighted average call money rate, so surplus liquidity can blunt a rate hike unless drained through open market operations.
A higher target would imply looser monetary and tighter fiscal policy.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (monetary policy, inflation, external sector). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** flexible inflation targeting, Balassa-Samuelson, anchoring expectations, transmission, operating target. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying the RBI or the MPC sets the inflation target; the Central Government does. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Target 4 per cent CPI, band 2 to 6, reviewed every five years; operating target is the WACR. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Would a 5 per cent target help growth or hurt the poor? |
Question 14 of 20
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Section 18A of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 dispenses with a preliminary enquiry before registering an FIR and keeps anticipatory bail barred.
Statement-II: The Supreme Court upheld Section 18A in Prathvi Raj Chauhan v. Union of India (2020).
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement-I: Section 18A of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 dispenses with a preliminary enquiry before registering an FIR and keeps anticipatory bail barred.
Statement-II: The Supreme Court upheld Section 18A in Prathvi Raj Chauhan v. Union of India (2020).
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
FACT: Statement-I is correct: Section 18A, inserted by the 2018 amendment, removed the preliminary enquiry and the prior approval for arrest that the Supreme Court had required, and kept the bar on anticipatory bail. Statement-II is correct: the Court upheld the provision in 2020.
But Statement-II does not explain Statement-I: what Section 18A provides comes from Parliament’s amendment, not from the later judgment that upheld it. ANALYSIS: The news peg is the Supreme Court’s dismissal on 22 September 2026 of a PIL against the 2018 amendment, the Bench declining to revisit the 2020 ruling.
But Statement-II does not explain Statement-I: what Section 18A provides comes from Parliament’s amendment, not from the later judgment that upheld it. ANALYSIS: The news peg is the Supreme Court’s dismissal on 22 September 2026 of a PIL against the 2018 amendment, the Bench declining to revisit the 2020 ruling.
📝 Concept Note
The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 lists atrocities against members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, provides for Special Courts and exclusive Special Courts, and bars anticipatory bail (Section 18). In Subhash Kashinath Mahajan v. State of Maharashtra (March 2018), the Supreme Court, citing misuse, allowed anticipatory bail where no prima facie case existed and required a preliminary enquiry and prior approval before arrest.
Parliament responded with the 2018 amendment inserting Section 18A to undo those directions. In Prathvi Raj Chauhan v. Union of India (February 2020) the Court upheld Section 18A, while observing that a court may still quash an FIR, or grant anticipatory bail in an exceptional case, where no prima facie case is made out.
The Act draws on Articles 15, 17 and 46 of the Constitution; Article 17 abolishes untouchability, and the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 punishes its practice. The 2015 amendment added new offences and victim rights.
Parliament responded with the 2018 amendment inserting Section 18A to undo those directions. In Prathvi Raj Chauhan v. Union of India (February 2020) the Court upheld Section 18A, while observing that a court may still quash an FIR, or grant anticipatory bail in an exceptional case, where no prima facie case is made out.
The Act draws on Articles 15, 17 and 46 of the Constitution; Article 17 abolishes untouchability, and the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 punishes its practice. The 2015 amendment added new offences and victim rights.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (vulnerable sections, judiciary-legislature relations). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Section 18A, anticipatory bail, legislative override, prima facie case, protective discrimination. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the Supreme Court created Section 18A; Parliament enacted it to reverse the Court’s 2018 directions. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Mahajan (2018) diluted, the 2018 amendment restored, Prathvi Raj Chauhan (2020) upheld. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should the law balance protection of vulnerable groups against the risk of misuse? |
Question 15 of 20
Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of taxing powers under the Seventh Schedule:
1 Taxes on agricultural income are included in the Union List.
2 After the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016, States may levy sales tax on all goods sold within the State.
3 Entry 54 of the State List covers taxes on income other than agricultural income.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1 Taxes on agricultural income are included in the Union List.
2 After the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016, States may levy sales tax on all goods sold within the State.
3 Entry 54 of the State List covers taxes on income other than agricultural income.
How many of the above statements are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is wrong: taxes on agricultural income are Entry 46 of the State List. Statement 2 is wrong: after the 101st Amendment, Entry 54 is confined to taxes on the sale of petroleum crude, high speed diesel, motor spirit, natural gas, aviation turbine fuel and alcoholic liquor for human consumption; other goods come under GST (Article 246A).
Statement 3 is wrong: taxes on income other than agricultural income are Entry 82 of the Union List. ANALYSIS: The news peg is a seven-judge Bench reserving judgment on 22 September 2026 on whether States can levy a surcharge calculated on sales tax, a reference made in 1999 in Arjun Flour Mills v. State of Odisha.
Statement 3 is wrong: taxes on income other than agricultural income are Entry 82 of the Union List. ANALYSIS: The news peg is a seven-judge Bench reserving judgment on 22 September 2026 on whether States can levy a surcharge calculated on sales tax, a reference made in 1999 in Arjun Flour Mills v. State of Odisha.
📝 Concept Note
The Seventh Schedule separates taxing powers: the Union List carries taxes on non-agricultural income (Entry 82), customs (83) and corporation tax (85), while the State List carries taxes on agricultural income (46), land revenue (45), and, after GST, a narrowed Entry 54 on sales of petroleum products and alcohol for human consumption. Taxation entries are distinct from general legislative entries, and a State cannot tax under a regulatory entry.
The pending reference asks whether a surcharge or additional tax calculated on turnover or on sales tax already levied, such as Section 5A of the Odisha Sales Tax Act, 1947, is a tax on sale within Entry 54 or trespasses on a Union field. S. Kodar (a five-judge ruling) and Hoechst Pharmaceuticals (1983) upheld such levies, while India Cement (1989), a seven-judge ruling, struck down a cess on royalty as beyond the State’s field; its holding that royalty is a tax was overruled in Mineral Area Development Authority (2024).
The answer will shape States’ residual taxing space in the GST era.
The pending reference asks whether a surcharge or additional tax calculated on turnover or on sales tax already levied, such as Section 5A of the Odisha Sales Tax Act, 1947, is a tax on sale within Entry 54 or trespasses on a Union field. S. Kodar (a five-judge ruling) and Hoechst Pharmaceuticals (1983) upheld such levies, while India Cement (1989), a seven-judge ruling, struck down a cess on royalty as beyond the State’s field; its holding that royalty is a tax was overruled in Mineral Area Development Authority (2024).
The answer will shape States’ residual taxing space in the GST era.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (federalism, Centre-State financial relations); GS3 (taxation, GST). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Seventh Schedule, Entry 54, legislative competence, fiscal federalism, Article 246A. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing agricultural income tax in the Union List; it is State List Entry 46. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** After GST, Entry 54 covers only six items: four petroleum products, natural gas and alcoholic liquor. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Has GST left States with too little taxing autonomy? |
Question 16 of 20
Consider the following statements about the Index of Core Industries (ICI):
1 The ICI is released by the Office of the Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.
2 Electricity carries the largest weight in the ICI.
3 The Index of Industrial Production is also compiled by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 The ICI is released by the Office of the Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.
2 Electricity carries the largest weight in the ICI.
3 The Index of Industrial Production is also compiled by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: the ICI is compiled and released by the Office of the Economic Adviser in DPIIT, usually on the 20th of the following month. Statement 2 is correct: in the series with base year 2022-23, electricity has a weight of 30.932, ahead of refinery products (22.572) and steel (17.584).
Statement 3 is wrong: the IIP is compiled by the National Statistics Office under MoSPI. ANALYSIS: The news peg is the release of 21 September 2026: the ICI grew 4.8 per cent in August 2026, led by cement (12.5 per cent) and electricity (11.6 per cent), with April-August growth at 4.3 per cent.
Statement 3 is wrong: the IIP is compiled by the National Statistics Office under MoSPI. ANALYSIS: The news peg is the release of 21 September 2026: the ICI grew 4.8 per cent in August 2026, led by cement (12.5 per cent) and electricity (11.6 per cent), with April-August growth at 4.3 per cent.
📝 Concept Note
The Index of Core Industries measures output in the core infrastructure industries and is released earlier than the IIP, so it is watched as a leading indicator of industrial activity. In the series with base year 2022-23 it covers nine industries: coal, natural gas, crude oil, refinery products, fertilisers, steel, cement, electricity and iron ore.
The older series with base 2011-12 had eight industries, without iron ore, and carried a combined weight of about 40 per cent in the IIP of that base. In August 2026 cement (12.5 per cent) and electricity (11.6 per cent) grew fastest, and electricity, with the largest weight, contributed most to overall growth, while coal, natural gas, crude oil and fertilisers contracted.
July’s growth was revised from 5.4 to 5.0 per cent. The IIP, the broader monthly index of industrial output, is released separately by the NSO. DPIIT’s Office of the Economic Adviser also compiles the Wholesale Price Index, which is why the two are often confused with MoSPI’s CPI and IIP.
The older series with base 2011-12 had eight industries, without iron ore, and carried a combined weight of about 40 per cent in the IIP of that base. In August 2026 cement (12.5 per cent) and electricity (11.6 per cent) grew fastest, and electricity, with the largest weight, contributed most to overall growth, while coal, natural gas, crude oil and fertilisers contracted.
July’s growth was revised from 5.4 to 5.0 per cent. The IIP, the broader monthly index of industrial output, is released separately by the NSO. DPIIT’s Office of the Economic Adviser also compiles the Wholesale Price Index, which is why the two are often confused with MoSPI’s CPI and IIP.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (industrial growth, infrastructure, economic indicators). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** core sector, leading indicator, base revision, index weights. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Attributing the IIP to DPIIT; DPIIT releases the ICI and the WPI, the NSO releases the IIP and CPI. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** The 2022-23 series has nine core industries, including iron ore; electricity has the largest weight. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why do analysts watch the core sector index before the IIP comes out? |
Question 17 of 20
Consider the following statements about the September equinox:
1 At the equinox, the Sun is directly overhead at the Tropic of Cancer.
2 After the September equinox, the Sun’s vertical rays move towards the Tropic of Capricorn.
3 The September equinox marks the beginning of spring in the Northern Hemisphere.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1 At the equinox, the Sun is directly overhead at the Tropic of Cancer.
2 After the September equinox, the Sun’s vertical rays move towards the Tropic of Capricorn.
3 The September equinox marks the beginning of spring in the Northern Hemisphere.
How many of the above statements are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is wrong: at an equinox the Sun is overhead at the Equator; it is overhead at the Tropic of Cancer at the June solstice. Statement 2 is correct: after the September equinox the Sun’s apparent position moves south, reaching the Tropic of Capricorn at the December solstice.
Statement 3 is wrong: the September equinox is the autumnal equinox of the Northern Hemisphere and the start of spring in the Southern Hemisphere. ANALYSIS: The news peg is the equinox at 00:05 UTC (05:35 IST) on 23 September 2026.
Statement 3 is wrong: the September equinox is the autumnal equinox of the Northern Hemisphere and the start of spring in the Southern Hemisphere. ANALYSIS: The news peg is the equinox at 00:05 UTC (05:35 IST) on 23 September 2026.
📝 Concept Note
The seasons arise because the Earth’s axis is tilted at about 23.5 degrees to the perpendicular of its orbital plane. As the Earth revolves, the latitude at which the noon Sun is overhead moves between the Tropic of Cancer (23.5 degrees north, around 21 June) and the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5 degrees south, around 22 December).
Twice a year, around 21 March and 23 September, the Sun is overhead at the Equator: these are the equinoxes, when day and night are nearly equal everywhere and the circle of illumination passes through both poles. The March equinox is the vernal equinox of the Northern Hemisphere, the September one its autumnal equinox; the reverse holds in the Southern Hemisphere.
The dates shift by a day between years because the calendar year does not match the solar year exactly, which leap years correct. At the poles, the equinox marks sunrise or sunset for a six-month day or night.
Ayurveda Day is now fixed on 23 September.
Twice a year, around 21 March and 23 September, the Sun is overhead at the Equator: these are the equinoxes, when day and night are nearly equal everywhere and the circle of illumination passes through both poles. The March equinox is the vernal equinox of the Northern Hemisphere, the September one its autumnal equinox; the reverse holds in the Southern Hemisphere.
The dates shift by a day between years because the calendar year does not match the solar year exactly, which leap years correct. At the poles, the equinox marks sunrise or sunset for a six-month day or night.
Ayurveda Day is now fixed on 23 September.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (physical geography, Earth’s motions). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** axial tilt, revolution, circle of illumination, solstice, equinox. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Naming the September equinox as vernal for India; it is autumnal in the Northern Hemisphere. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Equinox = Sun overhead at Equator; June solstice = Tropic of Cancer; December solstice = Tropic of Capricorn. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why are the equinox dates not fixed every year? |
Question 18 of 20
The International Day of Sign Languages is observed on 23 September because it marks the founding, in 1951, of which one of the following?
FACT: Option (d) is correct: the World Federation of the Deaf was founded on 23 September 1951, and the UN General Assembly proclaimed the day in 2017; it was first observed in 2018. UNESCO was founded in 1945, and the International Committee of Sports for the Deaf in 1924.
ANALYSIS: The 2026 theme is “Declaring Deaf People’s Human Rights”, in the WFD’s 75th year; the day falls within the International Week of Deaf People.
ANALYSIS: The 2026 theme is “Declaring Deaf People’s Human Rights”, in the WFD’s 75th year; the day falls within the International Week of Deaf People.
📝 Concept Note
Sign languages are full natural languages with their own grammar, not gestures that transcribe spoken language. The Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (2006), which India ratified in 2007, recognises sign languages and requires States to promote them.
In India, the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 obliges the government to promote the use of sign language, and the Indian Sign Language Research and Training Centre, set up in 2015 under the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, develops dictionaries, trains interpreters and standardises Indian Sign Language. The National Education Policy 2020 calls for standardising ISL across the country and developing national and State curriculum materials in it.
Interpreter shortages remain acute, which limits deaf people’s access to courts, hospitals and classrooms. The World Federation of the Deaf, founded in Rome, represents national associations of deaf people around the world.
In India, the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 obliges the government to promote the use of sign language, and the Indian Sign Language Research and Training Centre, set up in 2015 under the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, develops dictionaries, trains interpreters and standardises Indian Sign Language. The National Education Policy 2020 calls for standardising ISL across the country and developing national and State curriculum materials in it.
Interpreter shortages remain acute, which limits deaf people’s access to courts, hospitals and classrooms. The World Federation of the Deaf, founded in Rome, represents national associations of deaf people around the world.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (vulnerable sections, disability rights); GS1 (society). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** linguistic rights, accessibility, CRPD, RPwD Act, Indian Sign Language. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating sign language as a single universal language; each country has its own. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 23 September = founding of the World Federation of the Deaf (1951). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should Indian Sign Language be recognised as an official language? |
Question 19 of 20
For which one of the following works did Ramdhari Singh "Dinkar" receive the Jnanpith Award?
FACT: Option (d) is correct: Dinkar received the Jnanpith Award in 1972 for Urvashi, a verse drama on the love of Pururava and Urvashi. Sanskriti ke Char Adhyay won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1959; Rashmirathi retells the life of Karna; Kurukshetra is a long poem reflecting on war and non-violence after the Second World War.
ANALYSIS: The peg is Dinkar’s birth anniversary on 23 September; he was born in 1908 at Simaria in Bihar.
ANALYSIS: The peg is Dinkar’s birth anniversary on 23 September; he was born in 1908 at Simaria in Bihar.
📝 Concept Note
Ramdhari Singh “Dinkar” (1908-1974), called Rashtrakavi, was one of the leading Hindi poets of the nationalist era, known for poetry of heroism and protest (vir ras) and later for philosophical works. His major works include Renuka, Hunkar, Kurukshetra, Rashmirathi, Parashuram ki Pratiksha and Urvashi, and the prose history Sanskriti ke Char Adhyay, which traces Indian culture through four stages of synthesis.
He received the Sahitya Akademi Award (1959) for that work, the Padma Bhushan (1959) and the Jnanpith Award (1972) for Urvashi, and served in the Rajya Sabha from 1952 to 1964. The Jnanpith Award, instituted in 1961 by the Bharatiya Jnanpith trust and first given in 1965 (to G. Sankara Kurup), is India’s highest literary award for Indian-language writers.
The Sahitya Akademi, the national academy of letters, was set up by the Government of India in 1954. Dinkar’s poem “Singhasan Khali Karo Ki Janata Aati Hai” was recited by Jayaprakash Narayan at the Ramlila Maidan rally in 1975, on the eve of the Emergency.
He received the Sahitya Akademi Award (1959) for that work, the Padma Bhushan (1959) and the Jnanpith Award (1972) for Urvashi, and served in the Rajya Sabha from 1952 to 1964. The Jnanpith Award, instituted in 1961 by the Bharatiya Jnanpith trust and first given in 1965 (to G. Sankara Kurup), is India’s highest literary award for Indian-language writers.
The Sahitya Akademi, the national academy of letters, was set up by the Government of India in 1954. Dinkar’s poem “Singhasan Khali Karo Ki Janata Aati Hai” was recited by Jayaprakash Narayan at the Ramlila Maidan rally in 1975, on the eve of the Emergency.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (modern Indian literature, national movement in literature). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Rashtrakavi, nationalist poetry, cultural synthesis. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Crediting Dinkar’s Jnanpith to Rashmirathi, his best-known work. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Jnanpith 1972 for Urvashi; Sahitya Akademi 1959 for Sanskriti ke Char Adhyay. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What does Sanskriti ke Char Adhyay say about the composite character of Indian culture? |
Question 20 of 20
Which one of the following countries is NOT a member of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA), with which India has signed a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement?
FACT: Option (a) is correct: Sweden left EFTA when it joined the European Union in 1995. EFTA’s four members are Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland, all outside the European Union.
ANALYSIS: The India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement, signed in March 2024, is among the recent treaties that Arun Chawla’s Hindu op-ed of 23 September 2026 lists while arguing that India’s treaty practice should be used to strengthen commercial arbitration seated in India.
ANALYSIS: The India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement, signed in March 2024, is among the recent treaties that Arun Chawla’s Hindu op-ed of 23 September 2026 lists while arguing that India’s treaty practice should be used to strengthen commercial arbitration seated in India.
📝 Concept Note
EFTA was founded in 1960 by the Stockholm Convention as a free trade bloc for European countries that did not join the European Economic Community; its founding members included the United Kingdom, Sweden, Denmark, Norway, Switzerland, Austria and Portugal. Most later left to join the European Union, leaving four members today: Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland.
Three of them (not Switzerland) take part in the European Economic Area, which gives them access to the EU single market; Switzerland relies on bilateral agreements with the EU. The India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA), signed on 10 March 2024, was India’s first FTA with a group of developed European economies and is notable for a commitment by EFTA to aim for 100 billion dollars of investment in India and one million direct jobs over 15 years. Like India’s other recent FTAs, with the United Kingdom, Oman and New Zealand, it does not include investor-State dispute settlement.
The India-EU FTA is a separate agreement.
Three of them (not Switzerland) take part in the European Economic Area, which gives them access to the EU single market; Switzerland relies on bilateral agreements with the EU. The India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA), signed on 10 March 2024, was India’s first FTA with a group of developed European economies and is notable for a commitment by EFTA to aim for 100 billion dollars of investment in India and one million direct jobs over 15 years. Like India’s other recent FTAs, with the United Kingdom, Oman and New Zealand, it does not include investor-State dispute settlement.
The India-EU FTA is a separate agreement.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (bilateral and regional groupings and agreements); GS3 (trade and investment). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** TEPA, investment commitment, FTA without ISDS, market access. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating EFTA as part of the European Union; none of its four members is an EU member. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** EFTA = Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, Switzerland; TEPA signed March 2024. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can a binding investment commitment in a trade agreement actually be enforced? |
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