Monthly Prelims Practice
June 2026
Question Bank with Full Solutions & Explanations
🎯 Monthly Prelims Question Bank
June 2026: Monthly Prelims Practice
Polity & Governance
Consider the following statements: 1. The Supreme Court has held that the right to travel abroad is a part of personal liberty under Article 21. 2. The freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India under Article 19(1)(d) is available to all persons, including foreigners. 3. The Supreme Court has traced a right to walk safely on demarcated footpaths to Articles 19(1)(d) and 21. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. (1) Satwant Singh Sawhney (1967) and Maneka Gandhi (1978) read the right to travel abroad into personal liberty under Article 21. (2) Is incorrect: the freedoms in Article 19 are guaranteed only to citizens; a foreigner can claim Articles 14 and 21 but not Article 19(1)(d). (3) In Maniyar Iliyaz @ Shaik Riyaz v. P. Ayyappan (June 19, 2026) a bench of Justices P.S. Narasimha and Atul S. Chandurkar held that walking safely on demarcated footpaths is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(d) read with Article 21. ANALYSIS: In June the Court also held, in Seesa Santosh v. State of Telangana, that the right to travel abroad is not absolute and must be balanced against a speedy trial.
📌 Rights available to foreigners too: Articles 14, 20, 21, 21A, 22, 23, 24, 25 to 28. Rights for citizens only: Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, 30.
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The enforcement of the right to life and personal liberty cannot be suspended even during a proclamation of national emergency. Statement-II: The Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978 provided that the President cannot suspend the right to move courts for the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Both are correct and II explains I. During the 1975 Emergency, ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976) held that the right to approach courts for Article 21 could be suspended by a Presidential order under Article 359. The 44th Amendment reversed this by amending Article 359 so that Articles 20 and 21 remain enforceable during any emergency. It also replaced "internal disturbance" with "armed rebellion" in Article 352 and required the Cabinet's written advice. ANALYSIS: Samvidhan Hatya Diwas, notified in 2024, marked 51 years of the Emergency on June 25, 2026.
📌 ADM Jabalpur was overruled in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017). Article 358 suspends Article 19 automatically only in an emergency on grounds of war or external aggression.
Consider the following statements: 1. Section 69A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 empowers the Central Government to block public access to information on grounds that include the sovereignty and integrity of India and public order. 2. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015), the Supreme Court struck down Section 69A. 3. The procedure for blocking under Section 69A is laid down in rules framed in 2009. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 and 3 only
- C 1, 2 and 3
- D 1 and 3 only
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. (1) Section 69A lists six grounds, including sovereignty and integrity, defence, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order and preventing incitement. (2) Is incorrect: Shreya Singhal struck down Section 66A but upheld Section 69A and the blocking rules, noting their safeguards. (3) The Information Technology (Procedure and Safeguards for Blocking for Access of Information by Public) Rules, 2009 provide for a designated officer and an inter-departmental committee. ANALYSIS: Before the NEET-UG re-examination of June 21, 2026, a MeitY order blocked Telegram from June 16 to 22, and the Delhi High Court held the platform-wide block to be proportionate.
📌 Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020): restrictions on the internet must be necessary, proportionate, published and periodically reviewed. Section 79 gives intermediaries conditional safe harbour.
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A person who is not a member of the State Legislature can be appointed Chief Minister. Statement-II: Under Article 164(4), a Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State ceases to be a Minister at the end of that period. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Both are correct and II explains I. Article 164(4) allows a non-member to be a Minister, including the Chief Minister, for up to six consecutive months, within which the person must enter the Legislature. The Supreme Court held in S.R. Chaudhuri v. State of Punjab (2001) that the same non-member cannot be reappointed without being elected in between. ANALYSIS: In June 2026 Karnataka's Governor administered the oath to a new Chief Minister, D.K. Shivakumar, under Article 164(1).
📌 Article 164(1): the Governor appoints the Chief Minister; Article 164(2): collective responsibility to the Legislative Assembly; Article 75(5) is the Union counterpart of the six-month rule.
With reference to the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010, consider the following statements: 1. The Act is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs. 2. Since the 2020 amendment, foreign contribution must first be received in a designated FCRA account at the New Delhi Main Branch of the State Bank of India. 3. In Noel Harper v. Union of India (2022), the Supreme Court struck down the 2020 amendment to the Act. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 2 and 3 only
- C 1 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. (1) The FCRA, which replaced the 1976 Act, is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs. (2) The 2020 amendment required the designated account at SBI's New Delhi Main Branch and barred the transfer of foreign contribution to other associations. (3) Is incorrect: in Noel Harper the Supreme Court upheld the 2020 amendment. ANALYSIS: The FCRA Rules were amended on June 22, 2026 to require disclosure of the ultimate donor behind intermediaries and, for renewal, at least Rs 10 lakh of foreign contribution used over two financial years.
📌 Article 19(1)(c) guarantees the right to form associations; Article 19(4) allows reasonable restrictions in the interests of sovereignty and integrity, public order or morality.
International Relations
With reference to the Group of Seven (G7), consider the following statements: 1. The G7 has a permanent secretariat. 2. The European Union takes part in G7 summits, though it is not counted among the seven members. 3. The G7 presidency rotates annually among its members. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. (1) Is incorrect: the G7 is an informal grouping with no charter and no permanent secretariat; the presiding country hosts the summit and runs the year's agenda. (2) The EU attends as a "non-enumerated" member. (3) The presidency rotates each calendar year. ANALYSIS: France hosted the 2026 summit at Evian (June 15 to 17), with India attending as an invitee.
📌 G7 members: US, UK, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Canada. Russia was suspended from the G8 in 2014. India is a member of the G20, not the G7.
With reference to the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS), consider the following statements: 1. It has its seat at Hamburg. 2. It consists of 21 independent judges elected for terms of nine years. 3. It is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 2 and 3 only
- C 1 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. (1) ITLOS sits in Hamburg, Germany. (2) Its 21 judges are elected by the States Parties to UNCLOS for nine-year terms, with a third of the seats falling vacant every three years. (3) Is incorrect: ITLOS is created by Annex VI of UNCLOS, 1982; the International Court of Justice is the UN's principal judicial organ. ANALYSIS: India's Bimal N. Patel was elected an ITLOS judge on June 18, 2026, for a term from October 1.
📌 UNCLOS zones: territorial sea 12 nautical miles, contiguous zone 24, EEZ 200. The International Seabed Authority sits in Kingston, Jamaica.
The Strait of Hormuz lies between:
- A Iran and Qatar
- B Saudi Arabia and Iran
- C Qatar and the United Arab Emirates
- D Iran and Oman
The strait separates Iran to the north from Oman's Musandam Peninsula to the south (the UAE lies on its southern approaches), and links the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea. About a fifth of the world's oil passes through it. ANALYSIS: A US-Iran deal in mid-June 2026 extended the ceasefire and reopened the strait, easing crude prices for import-dependent India.
📌 Other chokepoints: Bab-el-Mandeb (Yemen and Djibouti/Eritrea), Strait of Malacca (Malaysia, Singapore and Indonesia), Suez Canal (Egypt).
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Recommendations of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) are not a treaty and do not by themselves bind countries in law. Statement-II: The FATF was established in 1989 at the G7 summit held in Paris. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Both are correct, but II does not explain I. The FATF's standards are "soft law": they bind through peer review, mutual evaluations and the grey and black lists, not through a treaty. That the FATF was created at the 1989 Paris G7 summit is a fact about its origin, not the reason its Recommendations lack legal force. ANALYSIS: At the Paris plenary of June 17 to 19, 2026, India was elected FATF Vice-President for 2026-27, the first time it has held the post.
📌 FATF secretariat: Paris (hosted by the OECD). India became a full member in 2010. Grey list = increased monitoring; black list = call for action.
Consider the following pairs: Place : Country 1. Evian : Switzerland 2. Jeju : South Korea 3. Victoria : Seychelles 4. Bratislava : Slovakia How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C Only three
- D All four
Pairs 2, 3 and 4 are correct. (1) Is incorrect: Evian-les-Bains is in France, on the southern shore of Lake Geneva, across the lake from Lausanne in Switzerland. (2) Jeju is South Korea's island province, host of the Jeju Forum. (3) Victoria, on Mahe, is the capital of Seychelles. (4) Bratislava is the capital of Slovakia. ANALYSIS: In June 2026 the Prime Minister attended the G7 at Evian, visited Slovakia and Seychelles, and the External Affairs Minister spoke at the Jeju Forum.
📌 Slovakia and the Czech Republic separated peacefully on January 1, 1993 (the "Velvet Divorce"). Do not confuse Slovakia (Bratislava) with Slovenia (Ljubljana).
Economy & Development
Consider the following statements: 1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is compiled by the Office of the Economic Adviser in the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. 2. The WPI covers services as well as goods. 3. A Producer Price Index measures the prices received by domestic producers for their output and can cover services. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 and 3 only
- C 1, 2 and 3
- D 1 and 3 only
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. (1) The Office of the Economic Adviser, DPIIT, compiles the WPI; the CPI is compiled by the NSO under MoSPI. (2) Is incorrect: the WPI covers only goods (primary articles, fuel and power, manufactured products). (3) A PPI records producers' selling prices, excluding taxes, and can include services, which is why most countries prefer it to a wholesale index. ANALYSIS: On June 15, 2026 India rebased the WPI to 2022-23 and launched its first Producer Price Indices (output, input and services); the WPI is to be phased out in about five years.
📌 The RBI targets CPI (Combined) inflation, not WPI. WPI inflation for May 2026 was 9.68 per cent, led by fuel and power.
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A Navratna Central Public Sector Enterprise may invest up to Rs 1,000 crore or 15 per cent of its net worth in a single project without the government's approval. Statement-II: Only Maharatna Central Public Sector Enterprises may set up joint ventures and subsidiaries without the government's approval. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I is correct; Statement-II is incorrect. Navratnas may invest up to Rs 1,000 crore or 15 per cent of net worth in one project, and up to 30 per cent of net worth in a year, and they too may form joint ventures and subsidiaries within these limits. Maharatnas have higher limits (up to Rs 5,000 crore). The Department of Public Enterprises, under the Ministry of Finance, confers the status. ANALYSIS: In June 2026 Chennai Petroleum Corporation became the 28th Navratna and Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers the 29th.
📌 Tiers of CPSE autonomy: Maharatna, Navratna, Miniratna Category-I and Category-II.
With reference to the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), consider the following statements: 1. The MPC has six members, three of whom, including the Governor, are from the Reserve Bank of India. 2. The inflation target is set by the Central Board of the Reserve Bank of India. 3. The current target is 4 per cent consumer price inflation, with a band of 2 per cent on either side. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 and 3 only
- B 1 and 2 only
- C 2 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. (1) Three members are from the RBI (the Governor, a Deputy Governor and one officer) and three are external members appointed by the Central Government; the Governor has a casting vote. (2) Is incorrect: under Section 45ZA of the RBI Act, 1934, the Central Government sets the target in consultation with the RBI. (3) The target is 4 per cent CPI inflation within 2 to 6 per cent. ANALYSIS: On June 5, 2026 the MPC held the repo rate at 5.25 per cent with a neutral stance and raised its FY27 inflation forecast to 5.1 per cent.
📌 Flexible inflation targeting came into force in 2016 through amendments to the RBI Act. If inflation stays outside the band for three consecutive quarters, the RBI must report the reasons to the government.
Consider the following pairs: Indicator : New base 1. Gross Domestic Product : 2022-23 2. Index of Industrial Production : 2022-23 3. Consumer Price Index : 2024 4. Wholesale Price Index : 2022-23 How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C Only three
- D All four
All four are correct. MoSPI moved the GDP series to a 2022-23 base in February 2026 and the IIP in June; the CPI now has a 2024 base (from 2012); and the WPI was rebased from 2011-12 to 2022-23 on June 15, 2026. ANALYSIS: The first provisional GDP estimates on the new base, released on June 5, 2026, put FY26 growth at 7.7 per cent.
📌 A base year is the reference period set to 100. Rebasing updates the basket and weights so that an index reflects the current structure of the economy.
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Remittance inflows help India finance its merchandise trade deficit. Statement-II: Personal remittances are recorded in the capital account of India's balance of payments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I is correct; Statement-II is incorrect. Remittances are recorded as private transfers under secondary income in the current account, where together with the services surplus they offset a large part of the merchandise deficit. Unlike borrowing, they create no repayment obligation. ANALYSIS: India remains the world's largest recipient of remittances, and the source mix has shifted from the Gulf towards advanced economies.
📌 Current account: goods, services, primary income, secondary income (transfers). Capital and financial account: FDI, FPI, loans, banking capital, reserves.
Environment & Ecology
Consider the following statements: 1. The Ramsar Convention was signed in 1971 at Ramsar, Iran. 2. The Montreux Record lists Ramsar sites where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur. 3. India's first Ramsar sites were Chilika Lake and Keoladeo National Park. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
All three are correct. (1) The Convention on Wetlands was adopted at Ramsar in 1971 and entered into force in 1975; India joined in 1982. (2) The Montreux Record flags sites needing priority attention; Keoladeo and Loktak are India's listed sites. (3) Chilika and Keoladeo were designated in 1981. ANALYSIS: On World Environment Day 2026, Surha Tal (Jai Prakash Narayan Bird Sanctuary) in Ballia, Uttar Pradesh became India's 100th Ramsar site, the most in Asia and third in the world after the UK and Mexico.
📌 World Wetlands Day is February 2, the date the Convention was signed. Chilika was removed from the Montreux Record in 2002.
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The spread of Lantana camara in tiger reserves can intensify human-wildlife conflict. Statement-II: Lantana camara displaces native grasses and fodder plants, reducing the prey base available to large carnivores. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Both are correct and II explains I. Lantana, an invasive shrub from tropical America, forms dense thickets that smother the grasses on which deer and other herbivores feed. With less natural prey, tigers and leopards turn to livestock near villages, sharpening conflict. ANALYSIS: The State of India's Environment 2026 report (CSE and Down To Earth) flagged Lantana as a driver of tiger-habitat degradation even as tiger numbers rise.
📌 Invasive alien species in India also include Prosopis juliflora, Parthenium and water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes).
Which of the following are among the nine planetary boundaries? 1. Ocean acidification 2. Stratospheric ozone depletion 3. Novel entities 4. Soil salinisation Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 3 and 4 only
- C 1, 2, 3 and 4
- D 1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 are boundaries; soil salinisation is not one of the nine. The framework, proposed in 2009 by Johan Rockstrom and the Stockholm Resilience Centre, covers climate change, biosphere integrity, land-system change, freshwater change, biogeochemical flows, ocean acidification, atmospheric aerosol loading, stratospheric ozone depletion and novel entities. ANALYSIS: Drawing on the 2025 Planetary Health Check, the State of India's Environment 2026 noted that seven of the nine are now breached; only ozone and aerosols remain within safe limits.
📌 Novel entities are human-made substances such as plastics, synthetic chemicals and genetically modified organisms.
With reference to the Great Indian Bustard, consider the following statements: 1. It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List. 2. It is the state bird of Rajasthan. 3. Collision with overhead power lines is a leading cause of its deaths. 4. It is found mainly in the wet grasslands of the Terai. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C Only three
- D All four
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. (4) Is incorrect: the Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps) lives in arid and semi-arid grasslands, now mainly in Rajasthan's Thar (Desert National Park) with small numbers in Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. The wet Terai grasslands are home to the Bengal Florican. ANALYSIS: In June 2026 three new chicks took the captive count to 94 at the Sudasari and Ramdevra centres in Jaisalmer.
📌 The Great Indian Bustard is in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. The Supreme Court has dealt with undergrounding power lines in its habitat since 2021.
With reference to the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, consider the following statements: 1. The National Biodiversity Authority has its headquarters at Chennai. 2. Biodiversity Management Committees maintain People's Biodiversity Registers. 3. Under Section 38, the National Biodiversity Authority on its own notifies species that are on the verge of extinction. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 1 and 3 only
- C 2 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Act sets up a three-tier structure: the NBA (Chennai, 2003), State Biodiversity Boards and local Biodiversity Management Committees, which keep People's Biodiversity Registers. (3) Is incorrect: Section 38 empowers the Central Government, in consultation with the State Government, to notify species on the verge of extinction and to regulate or prohibit their collection. ANALYSIS: On June 26, 2026 the NBA issued a standard procedure for states to identify and assess threatened species for such notification.
📌 The Act implements the Convention on Biological Diversity (1992) and the Nagoya Protocol on access and benefit sharing (in force 2014); it was amended in 2023.
Science & Technology
Consider the following statements: 1. A semi-cryogenic rocket engine uses refined kerosene as fuel with liquid oxygen as oxidiser. 2. A cryogenic rocket engine uses liquid hydrogen with liquid oxygen. 3. Semi-cryogenic propellants are hypergolic, igniting on contact with each other. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 1 and 2 only
- C 2 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. (3) Is incorrect: kerosene and liquid oxygen need an ignition system; hypergolic pairs, such as UDMH with nitrogen tetroxide used in the Vikas engine, ignite on contact but are toxic. Semi-cryogenic engines offer high thrust with cheaper, non-toxic, easily stored fuel. ANALYSIS: On June 24, 2026 ISRO ran the eighth hot test of its semi-cryogenic power head test article at Mahendragiri, reaching about 175 tonnes, 88 per cent of rated thrust, for the Next Generation Launch Vehicle.
📌 ISRO calls its refined kerosene ISROSENE. The CE-20 cryogenic engine powers the upper stage of LVM3.
Consider the following pairs: Satellite-based augmentation system : Country or region 1. WAAS : United States 2. EGNOS : Europe 3. MSAS : Japan 4. BDSBAS : Russia How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C Only three
- D All four
Pairs 1, 2 and 3 are correct. (4) Is incorrect: BDSBAS is China's BeiDou-based system; Russia's is SDCM. An SBAS corrects GNSS signals so that aircraft can fly precision approaches with vertical guidance without ground-based ILS. India's GAGAN, developed by ISRO and the Airports Authority of India, was certified in 2015, after the systems of the US, Japan and Europe. ANALYSIS: On June 27, 2026 an IndiGo A320 flew India's first GAGAN-based approach by a jet, at Udaipur.
📌 LPV = Localiser Performance with Vertical guidance. NavIC (IRNSS) is India's regional navigation system; GAGAN augments GPS.
Consider the following statements: 1. The VVER is a pressurised water reactor design. 2. The reactors at Kudankulam use natural uranium as fuel and heavy water as moderator. 3. The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board is India's nuclear safety regulator. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 2 and 3 only
- C 1, 2 and 3
- D 1 and 3 only
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. (2) Is incorrect: Kudankulam's Russian-designed VVER-1000 units use enriched uranium, with ordinary (light) water as both coolant and moderator. Natural uranium with heavy water is the design of India's indigenous Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs). ANALYSIS: In June 2026 NPCIL installed the reactor pressure vessel of Kudankulam Unit-5.
📌 India three-stage programme: PHWRs (natural uranium), fast breeder reactors (plutonium), thorium-based reactors. The AERB was set up in 1983.
Security & Defence
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Anti-radiation missiles are used for the suppression of enemy air defences. Statement-II: An anti-radiation missile homes in on the radio-frequency emissions of enemy radars. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Both are correct and II explains I. Because an anti-radiation missile guides itself onto the signals a radar emits, it can destroy or silence air-defence radars, which is the core of suppressing enemy air defences before strike aircraft go in. ANALYSIS: On June 2, 2026 DRDO and the IAF tested the RudraM-II air-launched anti-radiation missile from a Su-30MKI over the Bay of Bengal.
📌 RudraM-I was India's first indigenous anti-radiation missile. BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile; Astra is a beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile.
With reference to the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS), consider the following statements: 1. The CDS heads the Department of Military Affairs. 2. The CDS is the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee. 3. The CDS exercises military command over the three Service Chiefs. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. (3) Is incorrect: the CDS has no military command, including over the Service Chiefs, so that he can give impartial advice; he is the principal military adviser to the Defence Minister on tri-service matters. ANALYSIS: On June 30, 2026 Gen Dhiraj Seth took over as the 31st Chief of the Army Staff, succeeding Gen Upendra Dwivedi.
📌 The CDS post was created in December 2019; Gen Bipin Rawat took office on January 1, 2020. The Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act, 2023 supports jointness.
With reference to Project 17A of the Indian Navy, consider the following statements: 1. Its frigates belong to the Nilgiri class. 2. They are built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders and Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers. 3. They were designed by the Indian Navy's Warship Design Bureau. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
All three are correct. Project 17A covers seven stealth frigates of the Nilgiri class, four built by Mazagon Dock in Mumbai and three by GRSE in Kolkata, to a Warship Design Bureau design, as successors to the Shivalik class (Project 17). ANALYSIS: On June 21, 2026 the Prime Minister commissioned INS Dunagiri, the fifth ship of the class, at Kolkata, together with the survey vessel INS Sanshodhak and the anti-submarine craft INS Agray.
📌 Project 15B: Visakhapatnam-class destroyers. Project 75: Kalvari-class (Scorpene) submarines.
Geography
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: El Nino years are often associated with below-normal Indian summer monsoon rainfall. Statement-II: A positive Indian Ocean Dipole always cancels the effect of El Nino on the Indian monsoon. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I is correct; Statement-II is incorrect. During El Nino the warm pool shifts to the central and eastern Pacific and the Walker circulation weakens, which tends to suppress Indian monsoon rain. A positive Indian Ocean Dipole can offset this partly, as in 1997, but it does not always do so, and not every El Nino year is a drought year. ANALYSIS: The 2026 monsoon reached Kerala on June 4 and then stalled; June ended about 40 per cent below normal as El Nino developed.
📌 ENSO phases: El Nino (warm), La Nina (cool), neutral. The IMD calls 90 to 95 per cent of the Long Period Average "below normal".
Which of the following rivers are tributaries of the Yamuna? 1. Tons 2. Hindon 3. Chambal 4. Gomti Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A 1 and 3 only
- B 1, 2 and 3 only
- C 2 and 4 only
- D 1, 2, 3 and 4
The Tons, Hindon and Chambal join the Yamuna; the Gomti flows into the Ganga near Ghazipur. The Tons, its largest tributary, rises in the Garhwal Himalaya; the Chambal, Sind, Betwa and Ken join it from the south. ANALYSIS: In June 2026 six states agreed in principle on the Kishau dam on the Tons, and Haryana and Rajasthan signed a pact to carry Yamuna water from the Hathnikund Barrage to Shekhawati.
📌 The Yamuna rises at the Yamunotri glacier and joins the Ganga at Prayagraj, the largest tributary of the Ganga.
History, Art & Culture
Arrange the following dynasties of the Vijayanagara Empire in chronological order: 1. Saluva 2. Sangama 3. Aravidu 4. Tuluva Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A 1-2-4-3
- B 2-4-1-3
- C 4-2-1-3
- D 2-1-4-3
The order is Sangama (from 1336, founded by Harihara and Bukka), Saluva (from 1485), Tuluva (from 1505, including Krishnadevaraya) and Aravidu (from 1570, after the Battle of Talikota in 1565). ANALYSIS: In June 2026 the ASI documented trilingual inscriptions (Telugu, Tamil and Kannada) of the Tuluva ruler Sadasiva Raya in the Seshachalam forest of Tirupati district.
📌 Hampi, the Vijayanagara capital on the Tungabhadra, has been a World Heritage Site since 1986. Krishnadevaraya wrote Amuktamalyada in Telugu.
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A Geographical Indication is a collective right of the producers of a region, unlike a trademark, which identifies the goods or services of a particular enterprise. Statement-II: A Geographical Indication registered in India is valid for ten years and can be renewed. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Both are correct, but II does not explain I. A GI belongs to all authorised producers of a place, while a trademark belongs to one proprietor; the ten-year renewable term is a feature of registration, not the reason the right is collective. The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 came into force in 2003, and the GI Registry is in Chennai. ANALYSIS: In June 2026 Jharkhand received GI tags for 11 products, including Kuchai silk, Munda jewellery and Dokra craft, and the Puri temple administration trademarked the Nilachakra under the Trade Marks Act, 1999.
📌 Darjeeling Tea was the first Indian GI (2004-05). GI protection flows from the WTO TRIPS Agreement.