Monthly Prelims Practice
August 2026
Question Bank with Full Solutions & Explanations
🎯 Monthly Prelims Question Bank
August 2026: Monthly Prelims Practice
Polity & Governance
With reference to the alteration of the name of a State, consider the following statements: 1. A Bill for the purpose can be introduced in either House of Parliament only on the recommendation of the President. 2. Parliament is bound to accept the views of the State Legislature expressed on such a Bill. 3. A law made under Article 3 that amends the First Schedule is not deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. (1) The proviso to Article 3 requires the President's recommendation, and the President must refer the Bill to the State Legislature for its views. (2) Those views are not binding; Parliament may proceed whatever the State says. (3) Article 4(2) provides that such laws are not amendments under Article 368, so a simple majority suffices. ANALYSIS: Kerala became Keralam in August 2026 through the Kerala (Alteration of Name) Act, 2026, passed by simple majority.
📌 Earlier renamings: United Provinces to Uttar Pradesh (1950), Madras to Tamil Nadu (1969), Mysore to Karnataka (1973), Uttaranchal to Uttarakhand (2007), Orissa to Odisha (2011). The language name Odia in the Eighth Schedule needed the 96th Amendment (2011).
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The President can make a regulation for a Union Territory without a legislature that repeals or amends an Act of Parliament in its application to that territory. Statement-II: Regulations made under Article 240 have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Both are correct and II explains I. Article 240(2) gives a regulation the force of an Act of Parliament, which is why it can repeal or amend a parliamentary law in its application to the territory. The power is confined to territories without a legislature (and Puducherry when its legislature is suspended or dissolved). ANALYSIS: In August 2026 a presidential regulation provided for a sitting of the High Court of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh in Ladakh, which has no legislature.
📌 Article 239: administration of UTs through an Administrator. Article 239A: legislatures for certain UTs. Article 239AA: Delhi. A bench of a High Court is not a new High Court.
Consider the following statements: 1. Articles 323A and 323B were inserted in the Constitution by the Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976. 2. Under Article 323A, only Parliament may by law provide for administrative tribunals for recruitment and conditions of service of public servants. 3. Under Article 323B, a State Legislature may also by law provide for tribunals on the matters listed in that Article. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 1 and 2 only
- C 2 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct. Article 323A is a power of Parliament alone; Article 323B speaks of the "appropriate Legislature", so States can also set up tribunals for subjects such as taxation, land reforms and elections. ANALYSIS: The Tribunals Reforms Bill, 2026, passed by Parliament in August 2026, provides for a National Tribunals Commission to handle appointments and service conditions of tribunal members.
📌 The Madras Bar Association cases (2010 to 2021) struck down successive provisions on tribunal tenure and selection; the 2020 judgment set a minimum five-year tenure. L. Chandra Kumar (1997) held that tribunal decisions are subject to High Court scrutiny.
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: State Legislatures can levy taxes on mineral rights, but Parliament can limit that power by a law relating to mineral development. Statement-II: Entry 50 of the State List makes taxes on mineral rights subject to any limitations imposed by Parliament by law relating to mineral development. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Both are correct and II explains I. Entry 50 of List II gives States the taxing power but makes it subject to limits Parliament imposes through a law on mineral development (Entry 54, List I). In Mineral Area Development Authority v. SAIL (2024) a nine-judge Bench held, 8:1, that royalty is not a tax and upheld State power to tax mineral rights and mineral-bearing land (Entries 50 and 49 of List II). ANALYSIS: The MMDR Amendment Act, 2026 inserted Section 9D to limit such State levies.
📌 Union List Entry 54: regulation of mines and mineral development under Union control, to the extent Parliament declares expedient. State List Entry 23: mines and mineral development subject to List I. The MMDR Act, 1957 is the Union law.
With reference to access to a First Information Report (FIR), consider the following statements: 1. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, a copy of the information recorded must be given free of cost to the informant or the victim. 2. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita expressly entitles an accused to a copy of the FIR during investigation. 3. In Youth Bar Association of India v. Union of India, the Supreme Court directed that FIRs be uploaded on police websites within 24 hours, except in sensitive cases. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 1 and 3 only
- C 2 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. (1) Section 173(2) BNSS provides a free copy to the informant or victim. (2) The statute is silent on the accused's access during investigation; the accused gets documents at the trial stage (Section 230 BNSS), and earlier access is judge-made. (3) The 2016 judgment set the 24-hour upload rule (extendable for connectivity reasons) with exceptions for sensitive categories. ANALYSIS: In August 2026 the Supreme Court directed the Ghaziabad Police to give a journalist a copy of the FIR registered against him.
📌 Section 230 BNSS corresponds to Section 207 CrPC. The 24-hour upload rule was first framed by the Delhi High Court in 2010. Article 21 and Article 22(1) underpin the accused's right to know the accusation.
Social Issues
Consider the following statements: 1. India has ratified ILO Convention No. 169 on Indigenous and Tribal Peoples. 2. After the first notification by the President under Article 342, any inclusion in or exclusion from the list of Scheduled Tribes requires a law made by Parliament. 3. The Sixth Schedule applies to tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 1 and 3 only
- C 2 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. (1) India has ratified the earlier ILO Convention No. 107 (1957), not No. 169 (1989). India does not use a separate "indigenous" category; it uses Scheduled Tribes. (2) Article 342(2) requires a law of Parliament to modify the list. (3) Article 244(2) and the Sixth Schedule cover those four States. ANALYSIS: The International Day of the World's Indigenous Peoples (August 9) in 2026 was themed on indigenous midwives.
📌 Fifth Schedule: Scheduled Areas in other States, with Tribes Advisory Councils. PESA, 1996 extends self-governance to Fifth Schedule areas. There are 75 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.
Consider the following statements: 1. A settlement agreement reached through mediation under the Mediation Act, 2023 is enforceable in the same manner as a judgment or decree of a court. 2. An award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no appeal lies against it. 3. Lok Adalats are organised under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
All three are correct. (1) The 2023 Act gives a mediated settlement agreement the status of a decree, open to challenge only on limited grounds such as fraud, corruption or impersonation. (2) and (3) Section 21 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 makes a Lok Adalat award final and deemed a decree. ANALYSIS: The Mediation Council of India, the statutory regulator for mediators, was notified in August 2026, about three years after the Act.
📌 Article 39A: equal justice and free legal aid (42nd Amendment). Section 89 CPC lets courts refer disputes to ADR. Pre-institution mediation has been mandatory for commercial disputes since the 2018 amendment of the Commercial Courts Act.
International Relations
With reference to India-China boundary mechanisms, consider the following statements: 1. The Special Representatives mechanism on the boundary question was set up in 2003. 2. The Working Mechanism for Consultation and Coordination on India-China Border Affairs functions at the level of National Security Advisers. 3. The Line of Actual Control has been demarcated on the ground by joint survey. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
Only statement 1 is correct. (1) The SR mechanism dates from Prime Minister Vajpayee's 2003 visit to Beijing. (2) The WMCC (2012) is an official-level mechanism, co-chaired by joint secretary or director-general rank officials; the SR talks are led by India's NSA. (3) The LAC is neither delineated on agreed maps nor demarcated on the ground. ANALYSIS: The 25th round of SR talks in Beijing (August 2026) produced an eight-point consensus of confidence-building steps, with no boundary settlement.
📌 Agreements: 1993 (peace and tranquillity), 1996 (military CBMs), 2005 (political parameters and guiding principles), 2013 (Border Defence Cooperation). Galwan, June 2020: 20 Indian soldiers killed.
Geography
Consider the following pairs: Pass : State 1. Shipki La : Himachal Pradesh 2. Lipulekh : Sikkim 3. Nathu La : Sikkim 4. Bum La : Arunachal Pradesh How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- A Only one pair
- B Only two pairs
- C Only three pairs
- D All four pairs
Pairs 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Lipulekh is in Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand, on the Kailash Mansarovar route; India's position is that the territory at Lipulekh is Indian. Shipki La lies on the Sutlej's route into India. ANALYSIS: India-China border trade through these three passes resumed in 2026 after six years.
📌 Nathu La reopened for trade in 2006. The border personnel meeting points include Daulat Beg Oldie and Chushul (Ladakh), Nathu La (Sikkim), and Kibithu and Bum La (Arunachal Pradesh).
With reference to the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), consider the following statements: 1. The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure of the SCO is located at Tashkent. 2. Uzbekistan was a founding member of the Shanghai Five. 3. India and Pakistan became full members of the SCO in the same year. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. (1) The Secretariat is at Beijing and RATS at Tashkent. (2) The Shanghai Five (1996) comprised China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan; the SCO was formed in 2001 when Uzbekistan joined. (3) Both joined at the Astana summit of 2017. ANALYSIS: The 26th SCO Summit opened at Bishkek on August 31, 2026, with Pakistan due to take the chair next.
📌 Later members: Iran (2023) and Belarus (2024). India does not endorse the Belt and Road Initiative in SCO documents because CPEC passes through Indian territory under illegal occupation.
Which of the following are doubly landlocked countries? 1. Uzbekistan 2. Liechtenstein 3. Kyrgyzstan 4. Nepal Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A 1 and 3 only
- B 2 and 4 only
- C 3 and 4 only
- D 1 and 2 only
Only Uzbekistan and Liechtenstein are doubly landlocked: every country they border is itself landlocked. Kyrgyzstan borders China, and Nepal borders India and China, both of which have coastlines. ANALYSIS: India and Uzbekistan raised ties to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership at Tashkent in August 2026; overland access to Central Asia remains India's constraint, hence Chabahar and the INSTC.
📌 Central Asian capitals: Astana, Tashkent, Bishkek, Dushanbe, Ashgabat. India joined the Ashgabat Agreement in 2018.
Security & Defence
India is a member of how many of the following? 1. Missile Technology Control Regime 2. Wassenaar Arrangement 3. Australia Group 4. Nuclear Suppliers Group Select the correct answer.
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C Only three
- D All four
India joined the MTCR (2016), the Wassenaar Arrangement (2017) and the Australia Group (2018), but is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group; its access to civil nuclear trade rests on the NSG waiver of 2008. ANALYSIS: India's defence export reforms of August 2026, which widened open general export licences, operate inside these regime commitments.
📌 India is outside the NPT and the CTBT. SCOMET is India's dual-use export control list, administered by the DGFT, with munitions licensed by the Department of Defence Production.
Economy & Development
With reference to the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), consider the following statements: 1. The MPC is constituted under Section 45ZB of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. 2. In the event of an equality of votes, the Governor has a second or casting vote. 3. The inflation target is set by the Reserve Bank of India in consultation with the Central Government. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. (3) is reversed: under Section 45ZA the Central Government sets the inflation target in consultation with the RBI, once every five years; it is 4 per cent CPI inflation with a band of plus or minus 2 per cent. ANALYSIS: In August 2026 the MPC held the repo rate at 5.25 per cent for the fourth time in a row.
📌 The MPC has six members, three from the RBI and three appointed by the Centre; quorum four. Failure is defined as inflation outside the band for three consecutive quarters. SDF is the floor and MSF the ceiling of the corridor.
Consider the following statements: 1. The zero merchant discount rate on UPI and RuPay debit card payments rests on Section 10A of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. 2. The National Payments Corporation of India is a not-for-profit company promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Indian Banks' Association. 3. UPI was built on the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) infrastructure. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 2 and 3 only
- C 1 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct. Section 10A bars any charge for the electronic modes prescribed under Section 269SU of the Income-tax Act; zero MDR has applied since January 2020. NPCI is a Section 8 company. UPI settles on the round-the- clock IMPS rails. ANALYSIS: UPI completed ten years of public operation in August 2026, as Parliament passed a Bill giving the Centre an enabling power over the zero-MDR rule.
📌 MDR is the fee a merchant pays its acquiring bank. The first real-time linkage of UPI with a foreign fast-payment system was with Singapore's PayNow (2023).
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, consider the following statements: 1. An account holder can get an overdraft of up to Rs 10,000. 2. The accident insurance cover of Rs 2 lakh on the RuPay card applies to all cards issued since the scheme began in 2014. 3. Accounts are Basic Savings Bank Deposit Accounts with no minimum balance requirement. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 2 and 3 only
- C 1 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. (1) The overdraft limit was raised from Rs 5,000 to Rs 10,000 in 2018. (2) The Rs 2 lakh cover applies to RuPay cards issued on or after August 28, 2018; earlier cards carry Rs 1 lakh. ANALYSIS: Jan Dhan completed twelve years on August 28, 2026 with 59.09 crore accounts.
📌 PMJDY is the J of the JAM trinity (Jan Dhan, Aadhaar, Mobile). Linked schemes: PMJJBY and PMSBY (2015), and the Atal Pension Yojana administered by PFRDA.
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A non-resident Indian holding an FCNR(B) deposit does not bear exchange-rate risk on the principal. Statement-II: FCNR(B) deposits are maintained in a permitted foreign currency, not in Indian rupees. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Both are correct and II explains I. Because the deposit is denominated in foreign currency, a fall in the rupee does not reduce its value to the depositor; the bank carries the currency exposure. NRE and NRO accounts, by contrast, are rupee-denominated. ANALYSIS: In 2026 the RBI's special swap window drew about USD 73 billion, and the FCNR(B) leg closed on August 31, a month early.
📌 A swap facility gives banks concessional forward cover, shifting exchange risk to the RBI. The 2013 FCNR(B) swap, during the taper tantrum, raised about USD 26 billion.
Environment & Ecology
With reference to wetlands of international importance, consider the following statements: 1. India acceded to the Ramsar Convention in 1982. 2. Designation as a Ramsar site by itself gives a wetland statutory protection under Indian law. 3. Keoladeo National Park and Loktak Lake are on the Montreux Record. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. (2) Ramsar listing creates no domestic legal protection on its own; protection comes from the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017 and any protected-area status. ANALYSIS: Glaw Lake in Arunachal Pradesh became India's 101st Ramsar site in August 2026, the State's first.
📌 Ramsar Convention: adopted 1971 at Ramsar, Iran; in force 1975. India's first sites were Chilika and Keoladeo. Wise use contemplates human use, not exclusion.
Consider the following pairs: Species : IUCN Red List status 1. Clouded leopard : Vulnerable 2. Snow leopard : Endangered 3. Asiatic lion : Endangered 4. Indian star tortoise : Vulnerable How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- A Only one pair
- B Only two pairs
- C Only three pairs
- D All four pairs
Pairs 1, 3 and 4 are correct. The snow leopard was moved from Endangered to Vulnerable in 2017, and the older status is still widely repeated. ANALYSIS: August 2026 brought India's first clouded leopard action plan, a snow leopard roundtable in Moscow under the International Big Cat Alliance, and the release of 216 rescued star tortoises in Tadoba.
📌 All four are in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. The Indian star tortoise was moved to CITES Appendix I in 2019. The clouded leopard is Meghalaya's state animal.
Consider the following statements: 1. Heatwave and lightning are among the notified calamities for which assistance can be given from the State Disaster Response Fund. 2. The Centre contributes 90 per cent of the State Disaster Response Fund allocation for North-Eastern and Himalayan States. 3. The National Disaster Response Fund is constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 1 and 2 only
- C 2 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct. The Centre's share is 75 per cent for general States and 90 per cent for North-Eastern and Himalayan States; the NDRF (the Fund) is constituted under Section 46, the SDRF under Section 48. ANALYSIS: The Lok Sabha was told in August 2026 that heatwave and lightning had been added, taking the list of notified calamities from 12 to 14.
📌 Do not confuse the National Disaster Response Fund (Section 46) with the National Disaster Response Force (Section 44). A State may spend up to 10 per cent of its SDRF on local disasters it notifies itself.
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A landslide-dam outburst flood can occur in a valley that had no lake a few days earlier. Statement-II: In such a flood, the lake forms when a landslide or rock avalanche blocks a river channel, and the dam later breaches. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Both are correct and II explains I. A glacial lake outburst flood needs a pre-existing lake held by moraine or ice, which can be inventoried and watched for years; a landslide-dammed lake can form and fail within days, leaving little warning. ANALYSIS: The Rasuwa flood in Nepal (August 26, 2026) followed an ice and rock collapse on Langtang Lirung; analyses suggested a brief debris dam on the Lhende Khola, and it was not classified as a GLOF.
📌 Reference events: Kedarnath 2013 (Chorabari lake plus extreme rain), Chamoli 2021 (rock and ice avalanche), South Lhonak, Sikkim, 2023 (a GLOF that destroyed the Chungthang dam).
Which of the following rivers are part of the Sapta Koshi system? 1. Arun 2. Tamor 3. Trishuli 4. Dudh Koshi Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A 1 and 2 only
- B 1, 2 and 4 only
- C 2, 3 and 4 only
- D 1, 2, 3 and 4
The Sapta Koshi comprises the Sun Koshi, Indravati, Tamba Koshi, Likhu, Dudh Koshi, Arun and Tamor. The Trishuli belongs to the Gandaki (Narayani) system, which enters India as the Gandak. ANALYSIS: The August 2026 Rasuwa flood ran down the Bhote Koshi of Rasuwa, the upper Trishuli; the Bhote Koshi of Sindhupalchok is a different river that feeds the Sun Koshi.
📌 Koshi barrage: Bhimnagar, inside Nepal, under the India-Nepal Koshi Agreement (1954). Gandak barrage: Valmikinagar, Bihar. The Koshi is called the Sorrow of Bihar.
Science & Technology
With reference to liquid-propellant rocket engines, consider the following statements: 1. In a gas-generator cycle, the gas that drives the turbopump is dumped overboard rather than burned in the main chamber. 2. In a full-flow staged combustion cycle, both the fuel and the oxidiser pass through preburners before reaching the main chamber. 3. The cryogenic upper stage of India's LVM3 burns liquid methane with liquid oxygen. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 1 and 2 only
- C 2 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The LVM3 cryogenic stage burns liquid hydrogen with liquid oxygen. Full-flow staged combustion is the hardest cycle to build and the most efficient, the cycle of SpaceX's Raptor. ANALYSIS: In August 2026 a Bengaluru start-up unveiled EVEREST, an 800 kN liquid oxygen and methane engine on this cycle.
📌 Methane is favoured for reusable and Mars-bound engines because it burns cleaner than kerosene and can be made from carbon dioxide and hydrogen (the Sabatier reaction).
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Committee on Space Research (COSPAR) is a specialised agency of the United Nations. Statement-II: The Vikram Sarabhai Medal is conferred jointly by COSPAR and the Indian Space Research Organisation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I is incorrect: COSPAR (1958) is a body of the International Science Council, not a UN agency. Statement-II is correct: the medal, instituted in 1990, is conferred jointly by COSPAR and ISRO, every two years. ANALYSIS: In August 2026 Annapurni Subramaniam, Director of the Indian Institute of Astrophysics, became the first Indian woman to receive it.
📌 Earlier Indian recipients: U.R. Rao (1996), G.S. Lakhina (2014), Anil Bhardwaj (2024). AstroSat (2015) was India's first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory.
With reference to African swine fever, consider the following statements: 1. It can be transmitted from pigs to humans. 2. It is caused by the same virus that causes classical swine fever. 3. It is a notifiable disease under the World Organisation for Animal Health. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
Only statement 3 is correct. African swine fever is not zoonotic, and it is caused by a different virus from classical swine fever; it is notifiable to WOAH (formerly the OIE). There is no cure, and mortality in infected pigs approaches 100 per cent. ANALYSIS: In August 2026 ICAR set out the details of India's first indigenous ASF vaccine, developed at ICAR-NIHSAD, Bhopal.
📌 ASF first entered India in 2020 through the North-East. Animal husbandry is a State subject (Entry 15, State List). DIVA vaccines let authorities tell infected from vaccinated animals.
With reference to India's nuclear doctrine, consider the following statements: 1. It was formally adopted by the Cabinet Committee on Security in 2003. 2. It keeps open the option of nuclear retaliation against a major biological or chemical attack on India or its forces. 3. It pledges not to use nuclear weapons against non-nuclear-weapon states. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
All three are correct. The doctrine rests on No First Use and credible minimum deterrence, with massive retaliation to a first strike and the biological or chemical exception; the Political Council of the Nuclear Command Authority, chaired by the Prime Minister, authorises use. ANALYSIS: The 81st anniversaries of Hiroshima and Nagasaki in August 2026 renewed attention to India's doctrine.
📌 The draft doctrine was released in August 1999. China declared unconditional No First Use in 1964; Pakistan has no declared NFU. India is outside the NPT and CTBT.
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: An Open General Export Licence removes the defence items it covers from India's export control regime. Statement-II: Munitions List items fall under Category 6 of India's SCOMET list and are licensed by the Department of Defence Production. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I is incorrect: an OGEL is an authorisation regime, not decontrol; sanctioned destinations stay barred and end-use monitoring continues. Statement-II is correct. ANALYSIS: In August 2026 the Department of Defence Production extended OGEL from 41 countries to all countries except sanctioned or sensitive destinations, and raised its validity from two years to three.
📌 Defence exports reached a record Rs 38,424 crore in FY 2025-26, against a target of Rs 50,000 crore by 2029. Defence production and defence exports are different figures.
History, Art & Culture
With reference to the Quit India Movement, consider the following statements: 1. Usha Mehta ran a clandestine Congress Radio. 2. The parallel government (Prati Sarkar) at Satara was led by Nana Patil. 3. Aruna Asaf Ali hoisted the Congress flag at Gowalia Tank Maidan after the leaders were arrested. How many of the above statements are correct?
- A Only one
- B Only two
- C All three
- D None
All three are correct. The leadership was arrested before dawn on August 9, 1942, and the movement ran on underground networks: Congress Radio (Usha Mehta), the Satara Prati Sarkar (Nana Patil, 1943 to 1946) and the Ballia national government (Chittu Pandey). ANALYSIS: August 8, 2026 marked the 84th anniversary of the Quit India resolution.
📌 The resolution was adopted at Gowalia Tank Maidan, Bombay, now August Kranti Maidan, with the call "Do or Die". The Cripps Mission (1942) preceded it.
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: National Handloom Day is observed on 7 August. Statement-II: The Swadeshi Movement was formally proclaimed at a meeting in the Calcutta Town Hall on 7 August 1905. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Both are correct and II explains I. National Handloom Day, instituted in 2015, commemorates the Swadeshi Movement, which was launched against the Partition of Bengal with a boycott of British cloth. ANALYSIS: The 12th National Handloom Day in August 2026 saw the President confer the Sant Kabir and National Handloom Awards.
📌 The Partition of Bengal took effect on October 16, 1905 and was annulled in 1911. National Handicrafts Day is a different observance.
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The number of young people not in education, employment or training can be larger than the number of unemployed young people. Statement-II: The unemployment rate counts only those available for and seeking work, and leaves out those outside the labour force. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Both are correct and II explains I. A young person who has stopped looking for work drops out of the labour force and so out of the unemployment rate, but still counts as NEET. ANALYSIS: A NITI Aayog report of August 2026 put the number of NEET youth aged 15 to 29 at 8.7 crore, on NSS 78th Round data.
📌 PLFS is conducted by the NSO under MoSPI; it moved to monthly estimates from January 2025. NCVET (2018) is the single regulator for vocational education.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013 superseded the 1993 law on manual scavenging and dry latrines. 2. Cleaning a sewer or septic tank without protective gear is treated as hazardous cleaning. 3. In Dr. Balram Singh v. Union of India, the Supreme Court raised the compensation for sewer deaths to Rs 30 lakh. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A 1 only
- B 1 and 2 only
- C 2 and 3 only
- D 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct. Manual scavenging (handling excreta from insanitary latrines, open drains or railway tracks) and hazardous cleaning are distinct categories, so a sewer death is a hazardous-cleaning case. Safai Karamchari Andolan (2014) had set Rs 10 lakh; Balram Singh (2023) raised it to Rs 30 lakh. ANALYSIS: In August 2026 a fresh survey found no manual scavengers, while 89,915 sewer and septic-tank workers were profiled under NAMASTE.
📌 Article 17 abolishes untouchability; Article 23 prohibits forced labour. NAMASTE is run by the Ministry of Social Justice with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.