Polity & Governance

Q1 Statement-Based

With reference to the alteration of the name of a State, consider the following statements: 1. A Bill for the purpose can be introduced in either House of Parliament only on the recommendation of the President. 2. Parliament is bound to accept the views of the State Legislature expressed on such a Bill. 3. A law made under Article 3 that amends the First Schedule is not deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. A Only one
  2. B Only two
  3. C All three
  4. D None
Q2 Statement-Based

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The President can make a regulation for a Union Territory without a legislature that repeals or amends an Act of Parliament in its application to that territory. Statement-II: Regulations made under Article 240 have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  2. B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  3. C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  4. D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q3 Statement-Based

Consider the following statements: 1. Articles 323A and 323B were inserted in the Constitution by the Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976. 2. Under Article 323A, only Parliament may by law provide for administrative tribunals for recruitment and conditions of service of public servants. 3. Under Article 323B, a State Legislature may also by law provide for tribunals on the matters listed in that Article. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A 1 only
  2. B 1 and 2 only
  3. C 2 and 3 only
  4. D 1, 2 and 3
Q4 Statement-Based

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: State Legislatures can levy taxes on mineral rights, but Parliament can limit that power by a law relating to mineral development. Statement-II: Entry 50 of the State List makes taxes on mineral rights subject to any limitations imposed by Parliament by law relating to mineral development. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  2. B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  3. C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  4. D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q5 Statement-Based

With reference to access to a First Information Report (FIR), consider the following statements: 1. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, a copy of the information recorded must be given free of cost to the informant or the victim. 2. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita expressly entitles an accused to a copy of the FIR during investigation. 3. In Youth Bar Association of India v. Union of India, the Supreme Court directed that FIRs be uploaded on police websites within 24 hours, except in sensitive cases. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A 1 only
  2. B 1 and 3 only
  3. C 2 and 3 only
  4. D 1, 2 and 3

Social Issues

Q6 Statement-Based

Consider the following statements: 1. India has ratified ILO Convention No. 169 on Indigenous and Tribal Peoples. 2. After the first notification by the President under Article 342, any inclusion in or exclusion from the list of Scheduled Tribes requires a law made by Parliament. 3. The Sixth Schedule applies to tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A 1 and 2 only
  2. B 1 and 3 only
  3. C 2 and 3 only
  4. D 1, 2 and 3
Q7 Statement-Based

Consider the following statements: 1. A settlement agreement reached through mediation under the Mediation Act, 2023 is enforceable in the same manner as a judgment or decree of a court. 2. An award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no appeal lies against it. 3. Lok Adalats are organised under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. A Only one
  2. B Only two
  3. C All three
  4. D None

International Relations

Q8 Statement-Based

With reference to India-China boundary mechanisms, consider the following statements: 1. The Special Representatives mechanism on the boundary question was set up in 2003. 2. The Working Mechanism for Consultation and Coordination on India-China Border Affairs functions at the level of National Security Advisers. 3. The Line of Actual Control has been demarcated on the ground by joint survey. How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. A Only one
  2. B Only two
  3. C All three
  4. D None

Geography

Q9 Statement-Based

Consider the following pairs: Pass : State 1. Shipki La : Himachal Pradesh 2. Lipulekh : Sikkim 3. Nathu La : Sikkim 4. Bum La : Arunachal Pradesh How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. A Only one pair
  2. B Only two pairs
  3. C Only three pairs
  4. D All four pairs
Q10 Statement-Based

With reference to the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), consider the following statements: 1. The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure of the SCO is located at Tashkent. 2. Uzbekistan was a founding member of the Shanghai Five. 3. India and Pakistan became full members of the SCO in the same year. How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. A Only one
  2. B Only two
  3. C All three
  4. D None
Q11 Statement-Based

Which of the following are doubly landlocked countries? 1. Uzbekistan 2. Liechtenstein 3. Kyrgyzstan 4. Nepal Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A 1 and 3 only
  2. B 2 and 4 only
  3. C 3 and 4 only
  4. D 1 and 2 only

Security & Defence

Q12 Statement-Based

India is a member of how many of the following? 1. Missile Technology Control Regime 2. Wassenaar Arrangement 3. Australia Group 4. Nuclear Suppliers Group Select the correct answer.

  1. A Only one
  2. B Only two
  3. C Only three
  4. D All four

Economy & Development

Q13 Statement-Based

With reference to the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), consider the following statements: 1. The MPC is constituted under Section 45ZB of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. 2. In the event of an equality of votes, the Governor has a second or casting vote. 3. The inflation target is set by the Reserve Bank of India in consultation with the Central Government. How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. A Only one
  2. B Only two
  3. C All three
  4. D None
Q14 Statement-Based

Consider the following statements: 1. The zero merchant discount rate on UPI and RuPay debit card payments rests on Section 10A of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. 2. The National Payments Corporation of India is a not-for-profit company promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Indian Banks' Association. 3. UPI was built on the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) infrastructure. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A 1 and 2 only
  2. B 2 and 3 only
  3. C 1 and 3 only
  4. D 1, 2 and 3
Q15 Statement-Based

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, consider the following statements: 1. An account holder can get an overdraft of up to Rs 10,000. 2. The accident insurance cover of Rs 2 lakh on the RuPay card applies to all cards issued since the scheme began in 2014. 3. Accounts are Basic Savings Bank Deposit Accounts with no minimum balance requirement. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A 1 and 2 only
  2. B 2 and 3 only
  3. C 1 and 3 only
  4. D 1, 2 and 3
Q16 Statement-Based

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A non-resident Indian holding an FCNR(B) deposit does not bear exchange-rate risk on the principal. Statement-II: FCNR(B) deposits are maintained in a permitted foreign currency, not in Indian rupees. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  2. B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  3. C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  4. D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Environment & Ecology

Q17 Statement-Based

With reference to wetlands of international importance, consider the following statements: 1. India acceded to the Ramsar Convention in 1982. 2. Designation as a Ramsar site by itself gives a wetland statutory protection under Indian law. 3. Keoladeo National Park and Loktak Lake are on the Montreux Record. How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. A Only one
  2. B Only two
  3. C All three
  4. D None
Q18 Statement-Based

Consider the following pairs: Species : IUCN Red List status 1. Clouded leopard : Vulnerable 2. Snow leopard : Endangered 3. Asiatic lion : Endangered 4. Indian star tortoise : Vulnerable How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. A Only one pair
  2. B Only two pairs
  3. C Only three pairs
  4. D All four pairs
Q19 Statement-Based

Consider the following statements: 1. Heatwave and lightning are among the notified calamities for which assistance can be given from the State Disaster Response Fund. 2. The Centre contributes 90 per cent of the State Disaster Response Fund allocation for North-Eastern and Himalayan States. 3. The National Disaster Response Fund is constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A 1 only
  2. B 1 and 2 only
  3. C 2 and 3 only
  4. D 1, 2 and 3
Q20 Statement-Based

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A landslide-dam outburst flood can occur in a valley that had no lake a few days earlier. Statement-II: In such a flood, the lake forms when a landslide or rock avalanche blocks a river channel, and the dam later breaches. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  2. B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  3. C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  4. D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q21 Statement-Based

Which of the following rivers are part of the Sapta Koshi system? 1. Arun 2. Tamor 3. Trishuli 4. Dudh Koshi Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A 1 and 2 only
  2. B 1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. D 1, 2, 3 and 4

Science & Technology

Q22 Statement-Based

With reference to liquid-propellant rocket engines, consider the following statements: 1. In a gas-generator cycle, the gas that drives the turbopump is dumped overboard rather than burned in the main chamber. 2. In a full-flow staged combustion cycle, both the fuel and the oxidiser pass through preburners before reaching the main chamber. 3. The cryogenic upper stage of India's LVM3 burns liquid methane with liquid oxygen. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A 1 only
  2. B 1 and 2 only
  3. C 2 and 3 only
  4. D 1, 2 and 3
Q23 Statement-Based

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Committee on Space Research (COSPAR) is a specialised agency of the United Nations. Statement-II: The Vikram Sarabhai Medal is conferred jointly by COSPAR and the Indian Space Research Organisation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  2. B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  3. C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  4. D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q24 Statement-Based

With reference to African swine fever, consider the following statements: 1. It can be transmitted from pigs to humans. 2. It is caused by the same virus that causes classical swine fever. 3. It is a notifiable disease under the World Organisation for Animal Health. How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. A Only one
  2. B Only two
  3. C All three
  4. D None
Q25 Statement-Based

With reference to India's nuclear doctrine, consider the following statements: 1. It was formally adopted by the Cabinet Committee on Security in 2003. 2. It keeps open the option of nuclear retaliation against a major biological or chemical attack on India or its forces. 3. It pledges not to use nuclear weapons against non-nuclear-weapon states. How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. A Only one
  2. B Only two
  3. C All three
  4. D None
Q26 Statement-Based

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: An Open General Export Licence removes the defence items it covers from India's export control regime. Statement-II: Munitions List items fall under Category 6 of India's SCOMET list and are licensed by the Department of Defence Production. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  2. B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  3. C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  4. D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

History, Art & Culture

Q27 Statement-Based

With reference to the Quit India Movement, consider the following statements: 1. Usha Mehta ran a clandestine Congress Radio. 2. The parallel government (Prati Sarkar) at Satara was led by Nana Patil. 3. Aruna Asaf Ali hoisted the Congress flag at Gowalia Tank Maidan after the leaders were arrested. How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. A Only one
  2. B Only two
  3. C All three
  4. D None
Q28 Statement-Based

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: National Handloom Day is observed on 7 August. Statement-II: The Swadeshi Movement was formally proclaimed at a meeting in the Calcutta Town Hall on 7 August 1905. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  2. B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  3. C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  4. D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q29 Statement-Based

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The number of young people not in education, employment or training can be larger than the number of unemployed young people. Statement-II: The unemployment rate counts only those available for and seeking work, and leaves out those outside the labour force. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. A Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  2. B Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  3. C Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  4. D Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q30 Statement-Based

Consider the following statements: 1. The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013 superseded the 1993 law on manual scavenging and dry latrines. 2. Cleaning a sewer or septic tank without protective gear is treated as hazardous cleaning. 3. In Dr. Balram Singh v. Union of India, the Supreme Court raised the compensation for sewer deaths to Rs 30 lakh. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A 1 only
  2. B 1 and 2 only
  3. C 2 and 3 only
  4. D 1, 2 and 3
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