UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 2 November 2026
Test Your Knowledge
10 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 10
1 The Defence Acquisition Council is chaired by the Raksha Mantri.
2 An Acceptance of Necessity accorded by the Defence Acquisition Council is an in-principle administrative approval of a proposal and not a contract.
3 INS Kamorta, the first of the Project 28 anti-submarine warfare stealth corvettes, was designed by the Indian Navy’s in-house design organisation.
4 Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers Limited is a Navratna Defence Public Sector Undertaking located at Visakhapatnam.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
PIB records the DAC meeting ‘chaired by Raksha Mantri’.
Statement 2Correct
PIB describes Acceptance of Necessity as ‘in-principle administrative’ approval; bids, negotiation and a signed contract come later.
Statement 3Correct
A 2014 PIB release calls INS Kamorta the first of four ASW stealth corvettes ‘designed by the Navy’s in-house organisation, the Directorate of Naval Design (DND), under Project 28’.
Statement 4Incorrect
GRSE is a Navratna DPSU, but it is in Kolkata.
Analysis
on 2 November 2026 the Ministry of Defence signed contracts worth Rs 53,866.50 crore with GRSE (five ships) and Goa Shipyard Limited (three) for eight Next Generation Corvettes; the AoN for them came in 2022.
Concept note
Capital acquisition for the armed forces runs through stages. The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), chaired by the Raksha Mantri, first accords an Acceptance of Necessity (AoN), which is only an in-principle administrative approval of a proposal.
Bids and negotiation follow, and only then is a contract signed. The Next Generation Corvette programme shows the gap: the AoN came in 2022, the contracts only in November 2026.
Under the Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020, the Buy (Indian-IDDM) category is reserved for Indian vendors and needs at least 50 per cent indigenous content, calculated on the base contract price. Two Defence Public Sector Undertakings under the Ministry of Defence won the work: GRSE in Kolkata, a Navratna DPSU that built the four Project 28 (Kamorta class) corvettes, and Goa Shipyard Limited at Vasco-da-Gama.
The Navy’s in-house design organisation, the Warship Design Bureau, has supported the design and construction of more than a hundred warships in Indian yards, a 2025 government backgrounder says. The pattern is Navy design, DPSU construction and Indian content; PIB does not name the procurement category.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 security, defence production and indigenisation; GS2 government policies on public sector undertakings. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Acceptance of Necessity, Buy (Indian-IDDM), indigenous content, in-house warship design. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** treating an AoN as a contract or an order; it is only an in-principle approval, and contracts can follow years later. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** pair each shipyard with its city: GRSE, Kolkata; Goa Shipyard Limited, Vasco-da-Gama; and remember Project 28 as the Kamorta class ASW corvettes. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** should the long gap between AoN and contract be cut by fixed timelines in the acquisition procedure? |
Question 2 of 10
1 Where the Court is satisfied that a foreign award is enforceable, the award is deemed to be a decree of that Court.
2 India applies the New York Convention only to awards made in the territory of another Contracting State and only to differences considered commercial under Indian law.
3 While testing whether enforcement contravenes the fundamental policy of Indian law, the Court may review the merits of the dispute.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 49 says that where the Court is satisfied the foreign award is enforceable, ‘the award shall be deemed to be a decree of that Court’.
Statement 2Correct
India ratified the Convention with two reservations, reciprocity (awards made in another Contracting State) and commercial disputes only.
Statement 3Incorrect
Explanation 2 to Section 48 says the fundamental-policy test ‘shall not entail a review on the merits of the dispute’.
Analysis
the Ravva awards rest on these sections; as Bar & Bench reported, the Supreme Court on 2 November 2026 dismissed the Centre’s appeal against the Delhi High Court’s ruling allowing enforcement.
Concept note
Part II, Chapter I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 governs foreign awards under the New York Convention. Section 44 defines a foreign award: one on differences considered commercial under Indian law, made on or after 11 October 1960, under a written arbitration agreement, in a territory the Central Government has notified as reciprocating.
Section 47 lists what the applicant must produce: the award, the arbitration agreement and proof that the award is foreign. Section 48 sets out limited grounds on which enforcement may be refused, among them incapacity of a party, lack of proper notice, an award beyond the scope of the submission, an irregular tribunal or procedure, an award not yet binding or set aside at the seat, and public policy.
Since the 2016 amendment, public policy is limited to fraud or corruption, the fundamental policy of Indian law and the most basic notions of morality or justice, with no review on the merits. Section 49 makes an enforceable award a deemed decree.
India signed the Convention on 10 June 1958 and ratified it on 13 July 1960; it entered into force for India on 11 October 1960.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 judiciary and dispute redressal mechanisms; GS3 investment climate and contract enforcement. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** pro-enforcement bias, narrow public policy, reciprocity reservation, minimal judicial intervention. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** assuming an Indian court can re-examine the merits of a foreign award under public policy; the 2016 Explanation bars that. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** remember the trio of dates for India and the Convention: signed 1958, ratified 13 July 1960, in force 11 October 1960, the same date that appears in Section 44. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** does strict enforcement of foreign awards against the State help India’s image as an investment destination more than it costs the exchequer? |
Question 3 of 10
Statement-I: A petition to enforce a foreign arbitral award in India is governed by Article 137 of the Limitation Act, 1963, which prescribes a period of three years from when the right to apply accrues.
Statement-II: A foreign award is not a decree of a civil court in India, so Article 136 of the Limitation Act does not apply to its enforcement.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
In 2020 the Supreme Court held that enforcement under Sections 47 and 49 ‘would be governed by Article 137 of the Limitation Act, 1963 which prescribes a period of three years from when the right to apply accrues’.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
The Court held that ‘Article 136 of the Limitation Act would not be applicable for the enforcement / execution of a foreign award, since it is not a decree of a civil court in India’, which is why Article 137 governs.
Analysis
on 1 July 2026 the Delhi High Court applied Article 137 to the Ravva awards and found the petition within limitation.
Concept note
The Limitation Act, 1963 fixes the time within which a claim may be brought before a court. The question of which Article governs a foreign award came to the Supreme Court in the Ravva dispute itself.
In Union of India v. Vedanta Ltd., (2020) 10 SCC 1, a Bench of Justices S. Abdul Nazeer, Indu Malhotra and Aniruddha Bose held that a petition to enforce a foreign award under Sections 47 and 49 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 falls under Article 137, three years from when the right to apply accrues. The Court rejected Article 136, because a foreign award is not a decree of a civil court in India.
The logic follows Section 49: the award becomes a deemed decree only after the Court is satisfied that it is enforceable, so before that stage it is an award, not a decree. Applying this, the Delhi High Court on 1 July 2026 held that the limitation clock began with a show cause notice of 10 July 2014 and that the enforcement petition was in time.
As Bar & Bench reported, the Supreme Court dismissed the Centre’s appeal on 2 November 2026.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 judiciary, statutory interpretation and dispute resolution. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** law of limitation, deemed decree, enforcement versus execution, finality of awards. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** applying the decree Article (136) to a foreign award; until the Court declares it enforceable, it is not a decree. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** link Article 137 of the Limitation Act with Sections 47 and 49 of the 1996 Act and the 2020 Vedanta ruling. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** should Parliament write a specific limitation period for foreign awards into the 1996 Act instead of leaving it to judicial interpretation? |
Question 4 of 10
Statement-I: The unemployment rate published in the monthly bulletin of the Periodic Labour Force Survey is measured on the usual status approach, with a reference period of the last 365 days.
Statement-II: Under the current weekly status approach, a person’s activity status is determined on the basis of a reference period of the last 7 days preceding the date of survey.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement IIncorrect
MoSPI’s monthly bulletin reports its figures ‘following the Current Weekly Status (CWS) approach’; the 365-day usual status is the basis of the annual estimates.
Statement IICorrect
MoSPI defines CWS as the status ‘determined on the basis of a reference period of last 7 days preceding the date of survey’.
Analysis
this is why the 5.0 per cent CWS rate of September 2026 cannot be set against the annual usual-status 3.2 per cent of 2023-24 as a rise in unemployment.
Concept note
The Periodic Labour Force Survey of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) measures employment with two yardsticks. Usual status looks back 365 days: the principal status is the activity on which a person spent relatively long time, and the subsidiary status adds economic activity of 30 days or more in that year, written together as ps+ss.
Current weekly status looks back only the last 7 days and is used in the monthly and quarterly bulletins. The three headline ratios are the labour force participation rate, the worker population ratio and the unemployment rate.
On usual status (ps+ss), age 15 and above, the unemployment rate for persons fell from 6.0 per cent in 2017-18 to 3.2 per cent in 2023-24 (men 6.1 to 3.2, women 5.6 to 3.2), while female labour force participation rose from 23.3 to 41.7 per cent. The survey was revamped from January 2025, and MoSPI says the 2025 annual estimates may not be strictly comparable with earlier annual reports.
A falling unemployment rate also says nothing by itself about job quality, which is the decent work question.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 employment and growth; GS2 government statistics and evidence-based policy. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** usual status (ps+ss), current weekly status, labour force participation, job quality. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** comparing a monthly CWS rate with an annual usual-status rate and calling the gap a rise in unemployment. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** remember the reference periods: usual status 365 days, CWS 7 days; subsidiary work counts at 30 days or more. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** is the unemployment rate the right headline number for an economy where most work is informal? |
Question 5 of 10
1 The International Labour Organization describes job creation, rights at work, social protection and social dialogue as the four pillars of decent work.
2 SDG 8 seeks to promote sustained, inclusive and sustainable economic growth, full and productive employment and decent work for all.
3 SDG target 8.8 seeks to protect labour rights and promote safe and secure working environments for all workers, including migrant workers.
4 The unemployment rate, by sex, age and persons with disabilities, is an indicator under SDG target 8.5.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The ILO’s agenda focuses on ‘job creation, rights at work, social protection and social dialogue’, which it calls the four pillars of decent work.
Statement 2Correct
This is the UN’s wording of SDG 8.
Statement 3Correct
Target 8.8 covers labour rights and safe working environments, ‘including migrant workers’.
Statement 4Correct
Indicator 8.5.2 is the ‘Unemployment rate, by sex, age and persons with disabilities’.
Analysis
the editorial argues that India’s falling unemployment rate must be read with these quality tests, not alone.
Concept note
Decent work is the International Labour Organization’s idea that a job should be productive and pay a fair income, offer security at the workplace and social protection, allow personal development and let workers organise and take part in decisions that affect their lives. The ILO groups this into four pillars: job creation, rights at work, social protection and social dialogue.
The 2030 Agenda took the idea into Sustainable Development Goal 8, which seeks sustained, inclusive and sustainable economic growth, full and productive employment and decent work for all. Target 8.5 aims, by 2030, at full and productive employment and decent work for all women and men, including young people and persons with disabilities, and equal pay for work of equal value; its indicators are average hourly earnings (8.5.1) and the unemployment rate (8.5.2).
Target 8.8 protects labour rights and safe and secure working environments for all workers, including migrant workers, in particular women migrants, and those in precarious employment. For India, the Labour Codes and the PLFS data on job quality are the natural Mains links to these targets.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 international institutions and welfare of vulnerable sections; GS3 inclusive growth and employment. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** decent work deficit, social protection floor, social dialogue, precarious employment. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** equating decent work with employment alone; the ILO adds rights, social protection and dialogue. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** learn SDG 8 targets 8.5 (full employment, equal pay) and 8.8 (labour rights, migrants) with indicator 8.5.2. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** can India claim progress on SDG 8 if unemployment falls but most new work remains informal? |
Question 6 of 10
1 The Directorate General of Trade Remedies deals with anti-dumping, countervailing duty and safeguard measures.
2 Quality Control Orders that make the Standard Mark compulsory for steel products are issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards on its own, without any role for the Central Government.
3 The Directorate General of Trade Remedies was earlier known as the Directorate General of Anti-dumping and Allied Duties.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The DGTR says it ‘now deals with Anti-dumping, CVD and Safeguard measures’.
Statement 2Incorrect
Under Section 16(1) of the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016, it is the Central Government that, ‘after consulting the Bureau’, notifies the goods by an order in the Official Gazette.
Statement 3Correct
The DGTR, ‘earlier known as Directorate General of Anti-dumping and Allied Duties’, was named in May 2018.
Analysis
the Indian Express column on the draft National Steel Policy Vision 2047 asks whether this protection should give way to competition.
Concept note
India protects domestic steel through two different kinds of tool. The first is trade remedies.
The Directorate General of Trade Remedies, named in May 2018 as an integrated single window agency for trade defence, handles anti-dumping duty, countervailing duty (CVD) and safeguard measures. In 2025 the government imposed a provisional safeguard duty of 12 per cent for 200 days on certain non-alloy and alloy steel flat products.
Standards are the second tool. Under Section 16(1) of the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016 (Act No. 11 of 2016), the Central Government, after consulting the Bureau, may by a Gazette order require goods to conform to a standard and carry the Standard Mark under a licence or certificate of conformity.
Steel Quality Control Orders use this power to bar sub-standard and defective steel from both domestic sales and imports. The column sets out both sides: protection may give an industry that must nearly triple its capacity some breathing room, but it raises input costs for construction, automobiles and small exporters.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 industrial policy, trade and effects of liberalisation; GS2 WTO-related issues. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** trade remedies, safeguard duty, Quality Control Orders, protection versus competitiveness. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** treating QCOs as a DGTR trade remedy; they are standards notified by the Central Government under the BIS Act. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** match each tool to its body: anti-dumping, CVD and safeguards to DGTR; QCOs to Section 16 of the BIS Act, 2016. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** when does protecting a core industry stop helping it and start hurting the industries that buy from it? |
Question 7 of 10
Facts
PIB places the 108 Stupas ‘along the Aie (Mau) River within Gelephu Mindfulness City near the border with Assam’. Option (c) is correct; Sikkim, West Bengal and Arunachal Pradesh are not the State PIB names.
Analysis
on 1 November 2026 Union Minister Kiren Rijiju represented the Government of India at the raising and consecration of 108 Stupas at Gelephu, led by the King of Bhutan.
Concept note
Gelephu Mindfulness City is a project of Bhutan that India supports, and it sits near the border with Assam. On 1 November 2026 the King of Bhutan led the raising and consecration of 108 Stupas there.
In a single day thousands of volunteers erected the Stupas, each 15 metres tall and set 108 metres apart, along an 11.7 km stretch of the Aie (Mau) River. Union Minister Kiren Rijiju represented the Government of India.
Stupa No. 76 was dedicated by the King of Bhutan to Prime Minister Narendra Modi for his commitment and steadfast support to the city; it is Bhutan’s dedication, not an Indian gift. During his visit from 31 October to 2 November 2026, Rijiju had an audience with King Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck, met Bhutan’s Prime Minister Dasho Tshering Tobgay and reaffirmed India’s support for the project.
For Prelims, the location question is the likely one: read a map of the India and Bhutan border and place Gelephu against Assam. For Mains, the visit fits the theme of India and its neighbourhood.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 location of places in the news; GS2 India and its neighbourhood (Bhutan). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** neighbourhood first, Buddhist cultural links, border connectivity, India and Bhutan partnership. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** reading the dedication of Stupa No. 76 as an Indian gift; the King of Bhutan dedicated it to the Prime Minister. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** pair Gelephu with Assam and the Aie (Mau) River, and mark it on an outline map of the India and Bhutan border. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** how can India support a neighbour’s flagship project without being seen to steer it? |
Question 8 of 10
1 Soreng district of Sikkim is India’s first Organic Fisheries Cluster launched under the PMMSY.
2 The Soreng cluster permits the use of antibiotics and pesticides in fish farming.
3 Biofloc and the Recirculatory Aquaculture System are among the fish-farming technologies in projects taken up under the PMMSY.
4 The Soreng cluster places special emphasis on Amur carp, Indian Major Carps and Trout.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
PIB says ‘Soreng District, Sikkim is India’s first Organic Fisheries Cluster launched under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY)’.
Statement 2Incorrect
PIB says the cluster focuses on ‘ecologically healthy fish farming without the use of harmful chemicals, antibiotics and pesticides’.
Statement 3Correct
The inaugurated projects include ‘Biofloc and Recirculatory Aquaculture system (RAS)’.
Statement 4Correct
The cluster has ‘special emphasis on Amur carp, Indian Major Carps (IMC) and Trout’.
Analysis
PIB reported on 2 November 2026 the Union Minister’s launch of a Standard Operating Procedure for organic certification and of projects worth Rs 375 lakh.
Concept note
The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) works in part through clusters: under the PMMSY, 34 fisheries production and processing clusters have been notified across the country. PIB calls Soreng District in Sikkim India’s first Organic Fisheries Cluster launched under the scheme.
The cluster aims at ecologically healthy fish farming without harmful chemicals, antibiotics and pesticides, with special emphasis on Amur carp, Indian Major Carps (IMC) and Trout. As PIB reported on 2 November 2026, the Union Minister launched a Standard Operating Procedure for Organic Certification of Fisheries in the Northeastern region and inaugurated projects worth Rs 375 lakh under the PMMSY: hatcheries, feed mills, cold storage facilities and technologies such as Biofloc and the Recirculatory Aquaculture System (RAS).
For Prelims, note the place (Soreng, Sikkim), the scheme (PMMSY) and the three species groups. For Mains, the item links organic certification, chemical-free farming and the development of fisheries in the Northeast.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 fisheries, agriculture and food processing; GS1 and GS3 development of the Northeast. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** cluster approach, organic certification, chemical-free fish farming, value chain. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** reading an organic cluster as merely low-chemical farming; the Soreng cluster aims at fish farming without harmful chemicals, antibiotics and pesticides. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** remember Soreng (Sikkim), the three species groups (Amur carp, Indian Major Carps, Trout) and the two technologies (Biofloc, RAS). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** can organic certification raise hill farmers' incomes, or does it mainly add cost and paperwork? |
Question 9 of 10
1 State Governments are to set up the grievance redressal mechanism at the Gram Panchayat, Block and District levels.
2 A grievance may be refused registration if it is not submitted in the prescribed format.
3 A grievance may be submitted only in person or through the central Digital Public Infrastructure, and not by post.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Rules provide a ‘multi-tier grievance redressal mechanism by State Governments at the Gram Panchayat, Block and District levels’.
Statement 2Incorrect
‘no grievance can be refused registration on the grounds of its format, language, manner of submission or any procedural deficiency’.
Statement 3Incorrect
The four channels include speed post with proof of delivery and telephone or helplines, besides personal submission and the Digital Public Infrastructure.
Analysis
PIB reported on 2 November 2026 that the Ministry of Rural Development has notified the Rules.
Concept note
The Viksit Bharat - Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin), or VB-G RAM G, is the scheme under the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025. Its Grievance Redressal Rules, 2026 set up a structured, multi-tier and time-bound mechanism for grievances about the scheme’s implementation.
State Governments are to establish it at three levels, the Gram Panchayat, the Block and the District, and the District Programme Coordinator oversees grievance redressal at the district level. A worker can file a grievance in four ways: in person with the Grievance Redressal Officer, by speed post with proof of delivery, through the central Digital Public Infrastructure, or by telephone, helpline or another mode set by the State.
A grievance is to be registered the same day, or the next working day if that is not feasible, with an acknowledgement giving the registration number, date and receiving authority, and none can be refused on grounds of format, language or procedural deficiency. The enquiry is to be completed within seven working days and the grievance resolved within 15 days of receipt; an unresolved grievance is escalated to the next higher level, and appeals follow Schedule I to the Act.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 governance, accountability and welfare schemes for vulnerable sections; GS3 rural employment. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** grievance redressal, time-bound delivery, social accountability, citizen-centric governance. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** assuming a procedural defect lets an officer refuse a grievance; the Rules bar refusal on format, language or procedure. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** remember the tiers (Gram Panchayat, Block, District) and the timelines (enquiry in 7 working days, resolution in 15 days). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** what makes a grievance mechanism trusted by a rural worker: the rules on paper or the officer who answers? |
Question 10 of 10
1 India is largely self-sufficient in iron ore.
2 India meets most of its requirement of coking coal from domestic mines.
3 The Ministry of Steel’s draft National Steel Policy Vision 2047 aims at a crude steel capacity of 604 million tonnes by 2047.
4 The National Steel Policy 2017 set its targets of capacity and per capita consumption for the year 2047.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The draft policy says India is ‘largely self-sufficient in iron ore’.
Statement 2Incorrect
The same draft says India ‘imports nearly 92% of its coking coal requirement’.
Statement 3Correct
The draft aims at 604 MT of crude steel capacity, 302 kg per capita consumption and 45 MT of exports by 2047.
Statement 4Incorrect
NSP 2017 projected 300 MT capacity, 255 MT production and 158 kg per capita consumption ‘by 2030 - 31’.
Analysis
the draft was put out for comments until 30 October 2026; it is a draft, not yet the policy.
Concept note
Steel is made mainly from iron ore and coking coal, and the two inputs place India very differently. The Ministry of Steel’s draft National Steel Policy Vision 2047 says India is largely self-sufficient in iron ore but imports nearly 92 per cent of its coking coal requirement, and that raw materials make up 65 to 70 per cent of steelmaking costs.
The draft records crude steel production rising from about 89 MT in 2014-15 to 170 MT in 2025-26, and installed capacity of 220 MTPA. For 2047 it aims at 604 MT of crude steel capacity, 505 MT of finished steel demand, 302 kg per capita consumption and 45 MT of exports, with emissions intensity cut to 1.54 tonnes of carbon dioxide per tonne of crude steel.
Stakeholders could comment until 30 October 2026, so it is not yet the policy. The earlier National Steel Policy 2017, approved by the Cabinet on 3 May 2017, projected 300 MT capacity, 255 MT production and 158 kg per capita consumption by 2030-31.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 distribution of key natural resources and location of industries; GS3 industrial policy, infrastructure and climate change. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** raw material security, coking coal import dependence, capacity build-out, green steel. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** mixing the two policies' horizons: NSP 2017 targets 2030-31, the draft Vision 2047 targets 2047. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** remember the contrast: iron ore largely domestic, coking coal mostly imported; and the numbers 300 MT (2030-31) and 604 MT (2047). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** should India cut coking coal imports through new technology or secure them through overseas mines? |
Performance
Question-wise Result