UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 22 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
17 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 17
1 It is compiled by the Office of the Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
2 It covers eight core industries.
3 Refinery products carry the highest weight among its industries.
4 The provisional index for a month is released on the 20th of the following month, and the final index a month later.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The ICI is compiled by the Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA), DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce and Industry, and released through PIB.
Statement 2Incorrect
The 2022-23 series has nine core industries; in the words of the July 2026 release, ‘the number of core industries have increased from eight to nine in the new series’, with iron ore added.
Statement 3Incorrect
Electricity carries the highest weight (30.932), ahead of refinery products (22.572) and steel (17.584); refinery products led only in the old 2011-12 series (28.037).
Statement 4Correct
The OEA publishes the provisional index on the 20th of the following month (or the next working day) and the final index a month later.
Analysis
The release of 21 October 2026 put September’s provisional growth at 7.9 per cent and revised August up to 5.9 per cent (final).
Concept note
The Index of Core Industries is a production volume index that measures the combined and individual performance of key infrastructure-based industries, and it is read as a lead indicator for overall industrial performance. It is compiled by the Office of the Economic Adviser in DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce and Industry, while the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is compiled by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI); the ICI comes out about ten days before the IIP.
The current series, with base year 2022-23, covers nine industries: coal, natural gas, crude oil, refinery products, fertilizers, steel, cement, electricity and iron ore, the last added in the new series. The heaviest weights are electricity (30.932), refinery products (22.572) and steel (17.584).
Electricity’s weight rose from 19.853 in the old series, partly from including renewable sources. In a weighted index, a fast-growing small industry moves the total less than a moderately growing large one: in September 2026 iron ore grew fastest, at 18.4 per cent, on a weight of 4.905, while electricity grew 11.4 per cent on a weight of 30.932.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 Indian economy: growth, industrial output and its measurement; GS3 infrastructure: energy. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** lead indicator, base-year revision, weighted index, provisional and final estimates. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Writing "eight core industries"; that is the old series, and the 2022-23 series has nine, with iron ore added. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** OEA, DPIIT compiles the ICI and MoSPI the IIP; electricity (30.932) is the heaviest weight; provisional on the 20th, final a month later. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** If a lead indicator covers only part of industry, how much should policy read into one strong month? |
Question 2 of 17
1 It was announced by the Prime Minister of India at the UN Climate Action Summit 2019 in New York.
2 Its secretariat in New Delhi has the status of an International Organization.
3 A country’s request to join it is reviewed and approved by the UN General Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced the CDRI at the UN Climate Action Summit 2019 in New York, on 23 September 2019.
Statement 2Correct
The secretariat is headquartered in New Delhi with the status of an International Organization; the Union Cabinet approved that status, and the signing of a Headquarters Agreement, in June 2022.
Statement 3Incorrect
A country joins by endorsing the CDRI Charter and designating a focal point and a lead representative, and it is the CDRI’s Governing Council that reviews and approves the request.
Analysis
In the India-Poland Joint Statement, India welcomed Poland’s announcement of joining the CDRI. An announcement is not yet membership.
Concept note
The CDRI was announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the UN Climate Action Summit in New York on 23 September 2019. Its secretariat is headquartered in New Delhi with the status of an International Organization, which the Union Cabinet approved in June 2022 together with the signing of a Headquarters Agreement.
According to the CDRI, it has 59 member countries and 13 partner organisations. A country joins by endorsing the CDRI Charter and designating a focal point and a lead representative; the Governing Council then reviews and approves the request, a process that typically takes around six weeks.
During Polish Prime Minister Donald Tusk’s official visit to India, the Joint Statement listed four outcomes of different weight: a target of doubling bilateral trade by 2030 (trade was US$ 6.36 billion in 2025, per the MEA citing Poland’s Central Statistical Office), Poland’s announcement on the CDRI, a proposed Defence Industry Dialogue, and a dialogue on counter-terrorism. India also invited Poland to join the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative, the International Solar Alliance and the Global Biofuels Alliance: invitations, not accessions.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 disaster management; GS2 bilateral relations (India-Poland) and India-led multilateral initiatives. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** disaster-resilient infrastructure, India-led coalitions, Strategic Partnership, Central Europe. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating an announcement of joining as membership; membership follows endorsement of the Charter and the Governing Council’s approval. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CDRI announced on 23 September 2019 at the UN Climate Action Summit, New York; secretariat in New Delhi with International Organization status (Cabinet, June 2022). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What does India gain when a European country joins a coalition that India launched? |
Question 3 of 17
1 Under Section 175(4), a Magistrate may order investigation on a complaint against a public servant arising in the course of official duties subject to a report from the officer superior to him and consideration of the public servant’s assertions.
2 Section 156(3) of the Code of Criminal Procedure contained a similar requirement of a report from the public servant’s superior.
3 Under Section 218, the sanction needed before a court takes cognizance against a public servant is deemed granted if the government does not decide within 120 days.
4 Section 175(3) considers an application to the Magistrate supported by an affidavit.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 175(4) lets a Magistrate empowered under section 210 order investigation on such a complaint ‘subject to’ a report containing facts and circumstances ‘from the officer superior to him’ and ‘consideration of the assertions made by the public servant’.
Statement 2Incorrect
Section 156(3) of the CrPC let a Magistrate empowered under section 190 order an investigation with no step involving the public servant or the superior; Section 175(4) is new, not a renumbered old clause.
Statement 3Correct
Section 218 (earlier CrPC Section 197) deems sanction granted if there is no decision in 120 days.
Statement 4Correct
Section 175(3) considers ‘the application supported by an affidavit’ made under Section 173(4), writing the rule of Priyanka Srivastava (2015) into the law.
Analysis
A special Bench of Justices Joymalya Bagchi and V. Mohana observed on 21 October 2026 that Section 175(4) expands the safeguards for public servants; the Court did not rule on the merits.
Concept note
The BNSS, 2023 (Act No. 46 of 2023) received assent on 25 December 2023 and has been in force since 1 July 2024. A cognizable offence is one for which a police officer may arrest without warrant (Section 2(1)(g)); information about it goes to the officer in charge of a police station (Section 173(1), corresponding to CrPC Section 154), and the police may investigate without a Magistrate’s order (Section 175(1)).
If the police refuse to record it, the person aggrieved may write to the Superintendent of Police and then apply to a Magistrate (Section 173(4)), who may order an investigation (Section 175(3)). In Lalita Kumari (Constitution Bench, 12 November 2013) the Supreme Court held FIR registration mandatory if the information discloses a cognizable offence; in Priyanka Srivastava (2015) it required Section 156(3) applications to be supported by an affidavit.
Two other shields sit alongside Section 175(4): Section 17A of the Prevention of Corruption Act (inserted in 2018) needs previous approval before police enquire into a public servant’s decision or recommendation, and Section 218 needs previous sanction before cognizance. Section 175(4) states no time limit for the superior’s report.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 judiciary and criminal justice reform; GS2 accountability of public servants; GS4 probity in governance. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** judicial intervention, safeguards for honest officers, accountability, previous sanction, new criminal laws. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Writing that the Supreme Court "held" or "ruled" on Section 175(4); it observed, and did not rule on the merits. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** BNSS 175(3) affidavit; 175(4) superior’s report plus the public servant’s assertions; Section 218 deemed sanction after 120 days; PC Act Section 17A previous approval (2018). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you protect an honest officer from motivated complaints without shielding a corrupt one? |
Question 4 of 17
Statement-I: An election to a Municipality can be called in question only by an election petition presented under a law made by the State Legislature.
Statement-II: The conduct of all elections to the Municipalities is vested in the State Election Commission referred to in Article 243K of the Constitution.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Under Article 243ZG(b), no election to any Municipality ‘shall be called in question except by an election petition’ presented under a law made by the State Legislature.
Statement IICorrectDoes not explain Statement I
Article 243ZA(1) vests the superintendence, direction and control of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Municipalities in the State Election Commission referred to in Article 243K. It says who runs the polls; the bar on other challenges comes from Article 243ZG(b).
Analysis
Hearing a plea on Andhra Pradesh’s municipal elections, the Supreme Court left it to the SEC to decide on more time for nominations, and observed that ‘Free and fair elections are a basic structure of the Constitution’.
Concept note
Article 243K provides for the State Election Commission for elections to the Panchayats, and the same body serves the Municipalities: Article 243ZA(1) vests the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Municipalities in the State Election Commission referred to in Article 243K. Article 243ZG(b) then limits the courts: no election to a Municipality can be called in question except by an election petition under a law made by the State Legislature.
On 21 October 2026 a special Bench of Justices Joymalya Bagchi and V. Mohana directed the Andhra Pradesh SEC to decide on a plea to extend the deadline for municipal nominations; if the SEC extends the time, the extension is to run for at least 48 hours from publication of its decision. The Bench called it ‘a constitutional duty vested on the State Election Commission under Article 243ZA’ to conduct municipal elections in a free and fair manner, and said ‘All grievances to such election process may be agitated in an election petition after the process is over’.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 local self-government (Panchayats and Municipalities); GS2 constitutional bodies and the judiciary. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** free and fair elections, State Election Commission, election petition, judicial restraint. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking municipal polls have a separate election commission; Article 243ZA uses the SEC of Article 243K. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 243K SEC (Panchayats); 243ZA SEC for Municipalities; 243ZG(b) election petition under State law. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** If candidates cannot file nominations because of violence, should a court step in during the election or wait for an election petition? |
Question 5 of 17
1 They are issued by a Not for Profit Organization registered on the Social Stock Exchange.
2 The subscriber receives interest at maturity, though no principal is repaid.
3 They may be issued in physical form as well as in dematerialised form.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Under SEBI’s Master Circular on the Social Stock Exchange (SSE) of 19 January 2026, a ZCZP is issued by a Not for Profit Organization (NPO) registered on the SSE.
Statement 2Incorrect
The subscriber gets no interest (zero coupon) and no principal back (zero principal).
Statement 3Incorrect
A ZCZP is issued in dematerialised form only.
Analysis
The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) made its SSE debut with a maiden ZCZP issue, to which NABARD subscribed Rs 4 crore; that is NABARD’s subscription, not the size of the issue.
Concept note
The Social Stock Exchange lets social-purpose organisations raise money on a stock exchange platform. A ZCZP instrument, in PIB’s words, ‘enables eligible social-purpose organisations to mobilise resources without conventional interest or principal repayment obligations’: the subscriber gets neither interest nor principal back.
Under SEBI’s Master Circular on the SSE of 19 January 2026, a ZCZP is issued by an NPO registered on the SSE, in dematerialised form only; the minimum issue size is Rs 50 lakh, the minimum application Rs 1,000, and the minimum subscription 75 per cent of the funds proposed to be raised. The first listing on the SSE, SGBS Unnati Foundation, came in December 2023, according to the NSE.
NSDC’s issue funds a programme for 600 young people from economically weaker OBC households in Madhya Pradesh to find jobs abroad, 300 in Japan and 300 in Germany, at an estimated Rs 11.25 crore. Beneficiaries bear 15 per cent, SSE financing 35 per cent, and the Government of Madhya Pradesh 50 per cent ‘upon successful international placement’, under a Social Impact Bond framework.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 capital markets and mobilisation of resources; GS2 role of NGOs and SHGs in development; GS3 skilling and employment. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** social finance, outcome-based funding, Social Impact Bond, Social Stock Exchange. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading "zero coupon" as a discounted bond that repays principal; a ZCZP repays neither interest nor principal. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** ZCZP: issued by a registered NPO on the SSE; demat only; minimum issue Rs 50 lakh; minimum subscription 75 per cent. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why would an investor put money into an instrument that returns nothing, and should the State encourage it? |
Question 6 of 17
1 It is constituted by the Central Government by notification under the CAQM Act, 2021.
2 Stage I of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) applies when Delhi’s Air Quality Index is in the 'Poor' band of 201 to 300.
3 The GRAP Sub-Committee is one of the three sub-committees named in the CAQM Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Central Government constitutes the CAQM by notification under Section 3(1) of the CAQM Act, 2021 (Act No. 29 of 2021), deemed in force from 13 April 2021; its seat is in Delhi.
Statement 2Correct
Stage I applies to ‘Poor’ air quality, a Delhi AQI of 201 to 300.
Statement 3Incorrect
Section 11(1) names three sub-committees, on Monitoring and Identification, Safeguarding and Enforcement, and Research and Development; the GRAP Sub-Committee is not one of the three.
Analysis
The CAQM’s GRAP Sub-Committee invoked all 25 action points of Stage I across the entire NCR on 21 October 2026, when Delhi’s average AQI was 244 (‘Poor’) at 2 PM.
Concept note
The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021 (Act No. 29 of 2021) is deemed to have come into force on 13 April 2021. The Central Government constitutes the Commission by notification under Section 3(1), and its seat is in Delhi.
Section 11(1) of the Act names three sub-committees: Monitoring and Identification; Safeguarding and Enforcement; and Research and Development. The Graded Response Action Plan is applied in stages linked to Delhi’s AQI, and Stage I covers ‘Poor’ air, an AQI of 201 to 300.
On 21 October 2026 the CAQM’s Sub-Committee on GRAP invoked all 25 Stage I action points ‘with immediate effect, in the entire NCR’, after Delhi’s daily average AQI reached 244 at 2 PM and 245 at 4 PM. The actions include dust mitigation at construction and demolition sites, a prohibition on open burning of biomass and municipal solid waste, strict enforcement of PUC norms for vehicles, and enforcement of the NGT and Supreme Court orders banning overaged diesel and petrol vehicles.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 environmental pollution and degradation; GS2 statutory bodies and Centre-State coordination in the NCR. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** graded response, airshed management, inter-State coordination, enforcement. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the GRAP Sub-Committee among the three sub-committees of Section 11(1); it is not one of them. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CAQM Act, 2021 (Act No. 29 of 2021), deemed in force 13 April 2021; seat in Delhi; GRAP Stage I = AQI 201 to 300. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Delhi’s air turns 'Poor' every autumn; is a graded emergency plan the right tool, or does it treat a chronic problem as a seasonal one? |
Question 7 of 17
1. Component A : Small grid-connected renewable energy plants on barren or fallow land
2. Component B : Solarisation of existing grid-connected agricultural pumps
3. Component C : Standalone solar pumps
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
Component A covers small grid-connected renewable energy plants on barren or fallow land.
Pair 2Incorrect
Component B covers standalone solar pumps.
Pair 3Incorrect
Component C covers the solarisation of existing grid-connected agricultural pumps.
Analysis
The Union Minister for New and Renewable Energy said 30 lakh agricultural pumps had so far been connected to solar energy under PM-KUSUM, and announced that an AgriVoltaics programme would soon be launched under its next phase; that is an announcement, not a launch.
Concept note
PM-KUSUM, launched in 2019, has three components: small grid-connected renewable energy plants on barren or fallow land (A), standalone solar pumps (B), and solarisation of existing grid-connected agricultural pumps (C). At the 7th AgriVoltaics World Conference, which opened at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, on 21 October 2026, the Union Minister for New and Renewable Energy said 30 lakh agricultural pumps had so far been connected to solar energy under the scheme, and that the government would soon launch ‘the world’s most ambitious AgriVoltaics programme under the next phase of PM-KUSUM’.
AgriVoltaics, as the Agriculture Minister described it, lets solar panels generate electricity above the ground while crops continue to grow below. The same week the Khet Bachao Abhiyan began as a rabi campaign on balanced fertiliser use.
Its background is the nationwide Soil Health Card scheme, launched by the Prime Minister from Suratgarh, Rajasthan, on 19 February 2015. For Prelims, keep the letters straight: A is land-based plants, B is new standalone pumps, C is solarising pumps already on the grid.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 agriculture: inputs, irrigation and technology; GS3 infrastructure: renewable energy. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** solar irrigation, farmer income, agrivoltaics, distributed renewable energy. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Swapping Components B and C: B is standalone solar pumps, C is solarising existing grid-connected pumps. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** PM-KUSUM (2019): A, plants on barren or fallow land; B, standalone solar pumps; C, solarising grid-connected pumps. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Could cheap solar power for pumps worsen groundwater depletion, and how would you guard against it? |
Question 8 of 17
1 It is an inventory of the sites on its territory that a State Party considers suitable for nomination to the World Heritage List.
2 A nomination is not complete unless the property is already on the State Party’s Tentative List.
3 Inclusion of a site on the Tentative List amounts to its inscription on the World Heritage List.
4 The Karst-mud-volcano Complex of Baratang, newly added to India’s Tentative List, is entered as a cultural site.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
UNESCO’s Operational Guidelines (paragraph 62) define a Tentative List as ‘an inventory of those sites situated on its territory which each State Party considers suitable for nomination to the World Heritage List’.
Statement 2Correct
Under paragraph 63, a nomination dossier is not complete unless the property is already on the Tentative List and has undergone a Preliminary Assessment.
Statement 3Incorrect
Tentative List inclusion is the State Party’s own inventory, a step before nomination; it is not inscription and not UNESCO approval.
Statement 4Incorrect
Baratang is entered as a Natural site, under criteria (viii), (ix) and (x); the cultural entry among the three new sites is Sirpur in Chhattisgarh.
Analysis
The three new entries are the Baratang complex and the Andaman Subduction Volcanoes (natural, Andaman and Nicobar Islands) and the Sirpur Cultural and Archaeological Landscape (cultural, Chhattisgarh).
Concept note
Under UNESCO’s Operational Guidelines (WHC.26/01, 29 July 2026), a Tentative List is a State Party’s inventory of the sites on its territory that it considers suitable for nomination (paragraph 62). A nomination dossier is not complete unless the property is already on that list and has undergone a Preliminary Assessment (paragraph 63), and States Parties ‘are encouraged to re-examine and re-submit their Tentative List at least every ten years’ (paragraph 65).
So a site moves in steps: Tentative List, Preliminary Assessment, nomination, and only then a decision on inscription. Three Indian sites now appear on India’s Tentative List on the UNESCO World Heritage Centre’s website; each page reads ‘Submitted by: Permanent Delegation of India to UNESCO’, with a submission date of 28 September 2026.
The Karst-mud-volcano Complex of Baratang and the Andaman Subduction Volcanoes are natural sites in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands; UNESCO’s page on the volcanoes names Barren Island and Narcondam. The Sirpur Cultural and Archaeological Landscape in Chhattisgarh is cultural, under criteria (ii) and (iv).
UNESCO’s India page shows 81 sites on India’s Tentative List and 45 properties inscribed.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 Indian culture: art forms and architecture; GS1 geophysical phenomena (volcanoes, mud volcanoes); GS2 international institutions (UNESCO). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** heritage conservation, natural and cultural heritage, nomination process, outstanding universal value. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading Tentative List inclusion as World Heritage status; it is a step before nomination. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Paragraph 62 (inventory), 63 (prior Tentative List and Preliminary Assessment), 65 (re-submit at least every ten years); Baratang and the Andaman volcanoes natural, Sirpur cultural. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** India has 81 sites on its Tentative List; how should it choose which to nominate first? |
Question 9 of 17
Facts
Option (d) is the statement that is NOT correct: the Law Commission is a non-statutory body, constituted by a notification of the Ministry of Law and Justice (Department of Legal Affairs), not under an Act of Parliament. Options (a), (b) and (c) are correct: it makes its recommendations to the Government in the form of reports, and the 23rd Commission is chaired by Justice (Retd.) Dinesh Maheshwari. The tempting distractor is (a): a body constituted by a government notification can look statutory, but the Commission is constituted by a notification, not under an Act of Parliament, and so it is non-statutory.
Analysis
The 23rd Law Commission convened a National Conference on ‘Co-operative Federalism and Law Reforms: National and State Perspectives’ at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, on 22 October 2026.
Concept note
The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body: it is constituted by a notification of the Ministry of Law and Justice (Department of Legal Affairs), and it makes recommendations to the Government in the form of reports. The 23rd Law Commission is chaired by Justice (Retd.) Dinesh Maheshwari.
On 22 October 2026 it convened a National Conference on ‘Co-operative Federalism and Law Reforms: National and State Perspectives’ at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi. There the Chairperson spoke of a ‘citizen friction test’ to assess ‘whether a proposed law reduces the time, cost and procedural burden on citizens’.
The priorities set out at the conference were ‘continuous institutional dialogue; evidence-based and participatory law reform; technology with human oversight; and citizen-centric legal design’. For Prelims, the classic trap is the body’s status: the Law Commission is non-statutory, unlike bodies created by an Act.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 statutory, regulatory and quasi-judicial bodies; GS2 Centre-State relations and cooperative federalism. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** law reform, cooperative federalism, evidence-based legislation, citizen-centric legal design. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling the Law Commission statutory; it is constituted by a notification of the Ministry of Law and Justice. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Non-statutory; Department of Legal Affairs notification; recommendations as reports; 23rd Commission chaired by Justice (Retd.) Dinesh Maheshwari. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Many Law Commission reports are never acted upon; should its recommendations carry more weight? |
Question 10 of 17
Statement-I: The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 applies to a member of a Scheduled Tribe who is a Hindu by religion.
Statement-II: Under Section 2(2) of the Act, nothing in it applies to the members of any Scheduled Tribe unless the Central Government, by notification in the Official Gazette, otherwise directs.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement IIncorrect
Section 2(2) keeps members of Scheduled Tribes outside the Act, so a tribal family stays outside it even if it is Hindu by religion, and disputes over its land are decided by the custom of the tribe.
Statement IICorrect
Section 2(2) says nothing in the Act applies to members of any Scheduled Tribe ‘unless the Central Government, by notification in the Official Gazette, otherwise directs’.
Analysis
The door to change is a notification, not a court order. In Kamla Neti (9 December 2022) the Supreme Court said ‘It is for the legislature to amend the law and not the Court’, and urged the Central Government to look into the matter.
Concept note
Under Article 342(1) the President, by public notification, specifies the tribes or tribal communities deemed to be Scheduled Tribes, and under Article 342(2) Parliament may by law include a community in, or exclude it from, that list; Article 366(25) defines Scheduled Tribes by reference to Article 342. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 covers Hindus by religion, Buddhists, Jainas, Sikhs and others who are not Muslim, Christian, Parsi or Jew (section 2(1)), but section 2(2) excludes Scheduled Tribes unless the Central Government notifies otherwise.
Succession among them therefore turns on custom, and Article 13(3)(a) counts a ‘custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law’ as ‘law’ for Article 13. In Bejla Oraon v Kali Das Oraon (9 July 2026), a Bench of Justices Sanjay Karol and N. Kotiswar Singh held that the party alleging a custom must prove it, under section 48 of the Evidence Act, 1872.
PESA, in force from 24 December 1996 in 10 States, requires State laws on Panchayats in Schedule V areas to conform to customary law. Shalini Saboo argues in The Hindu that this leaves tribal women’s land claims to male-dominated custom; that critique is the author’s, not the Court’s.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 role of women and tribal society; GS2 Constitution (Articles 13, 342, 366(25)) and the judiciary; GS2 protection of vulnerable sections. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** legal pluralism, gender justice, proof of custom, tribal autonomy, PESA. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming a tribal family that is Hindu by religion is governed by the Hindu Succession Act; section 2(2) excludes it unless the Centre notifies otherwise. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 2(2): Central Government notification; Article 342(1) President notifies STs, 342(2) Parliament changes the list by law; Article 13(3)(a) custom as 'law'. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the Centre extend the Act to Scheduled Tribes by notification, or should change come from within each community? |
Question 11 of 17
1 While approving the National Mission on Edible Oils - Oilseeds, the Government stated that imports account for more than half of India’s domestic demand for edible oils.
2 Under PM-AASHA, oilseed farmers receive the Minimum Support Price through the price support scheme and the price deficiency payment scheme.
3 The National Food Security and Nutrition Mission is a Central Sector Scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
PIB’s release of 3 October 2024 on the Cabinet’s approval of NMEO-Oilseeds says imports ‘account for 57% of its domestic demand for edible oils’.
Statement 2Correct
PM-AASHA ‘ensures that oilseed farmers receive MSP through price support scheme and price deficiency payment scheme’.
Statement 3Incorrect
The National Food Security and Nutrition Mission, formerly the National Food Security Mission (NFSM), is a centrally sponsored scheme to increase the production of rice, wheat, pulses and nutri-cereals/coarse cereals.
Analysis
S. Mahendra Dev and S. K. Singla argue in The Hindu that land recognised under the Forest Rights Act could grow pulses and oilseeds; that is the authors’ proposal, not a government plan.
Concept note
India’s two crop missions for import-dependent foods run to 2030-31. The National Mission on Edible Oils - Oilseeds (NMEO-Oilseeds) covers 2024-25 to 2030-31 with an outlay of Rs 10,103 crore and aims to raise primary oilseed production from 39 million tonnes (2022-23) to 69.7 million tonnes by 2030-31; when the Cabinet approved it, PIB said on 3 October 2024 that imports account for 57 per cent of domestic demand for edible oils.
The Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses, approved by the Cabinet on 1 October 2025, covers 2025-26 to 2030-31 with Rs 11,440 crore, targets 350 lakh tonnes of pulses by 2030-31, and provides 88 lakh free seed kits. PM-AASHA ensures that oilseed farmers receive the MSP through two routes, price support and price deficiency payment.
The National Food Security and Nutrition Mission, formerly the NFSM, is a centrally sponsored scheme for rice, wheat, pulses and nutri-cereals/coarse cereals. The authors propose converging these schemes with the Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan for tribal-majority villages; the district counts in their column are their own analysis.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 agriculture: cropping patterns, MSP and food security; GS2 government schemes for tribal areas. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** edible oil import dependence, crop diversification, price support, convergence of schemes. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling the National Food Security and Nutrition Mission a Central Sector Scheme; it is centrally sponsored, and it was formerly the NFSM. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NMEO-Oilseeds Rs 10,103 crore (39 MT to 69.7 MT); Pulses Mission Rs 11,440 crore (350 lakh tonnes); PM-AASHA pays MSP through price support and price deficiency payment. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** If India imports most of its edible oil, should it pay farmers more to grow oilseeds or keep import duties low for consumers? |
Question 12 of 17
1 The individual right to hold and live in forest land for habitation or self-cultivation is capped at four hectares of land under actual occupation.
2 Other traditional forest dwellers must have primarily resided in and depended on forests for at least three generations before 13 December 2005.
3 The Gram Sabha initiates the process of recognising forest rights.
4 Forest land under the Act includes Sanctuaries and National Parks.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The individual right under section 3(1)(a) is capped at four hectares, limited to land under actual occupation (section 4(6)).
Statement 2Correct
Other traditional forest dwellers qualify if they did so for at least three generations, of 25 years each, before 13 December 2005.
Statement 3Correct
The Gram Sabha initiates the process (section 6(1)); the Sub-Divisional Level Committee reviews, and the District Level Committee’s decision is final and binding.
Statement 4Correct
‘forest land’ (section 2(d)) includes protected and reserved forests, Sanctuaries and National Parks.
Analysis
As on 31 August 2026, about 25 lakh titles had been distributed, according to the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Concept note
The Forest Rights Act (Act No. 2 of 2007; President’s assent 29 December 2006) recognises rights of forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes, who primarily reside in and depend on forests or forest lands for bona fide livelihood needs, and of other traditional forest dwellers who did so for at least three generations (25 years each) before 13 December 2005. Its main rights include the individual right to hold and live in forest land for habitation or self-cultivation (section 3(1)(a)), ownership of minor forest produce (section 3(1)(c)), and the right to protect, regenerate, conserve and manage a community forest resource (section 3(1)(i)).
The individual right is capped at four hectares, limited to land under actual occupation (section 4(6)). Forest land (section 2(d)) includes protected and reserved forests, Sanctuaries and National Parks.
The Gram Sabha initiates the process (section 6(1)), the Sub-Divisional Level Committee reviews, and the District Level Committee’s decision is final and binding. As on 31 August 2026, about 25 lakh titles had been distributed (Ministry of Tribal Affairs).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 mechanisms for the protection of vulnerable sections; GS3 conservation and forest governance; GS1 tribal society. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** tenure security, Gram Sabha, community forest resource rights, historical injustice. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the FRA excludes Sanctuaries and National Parks; its definition of forest land includes them. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 4(6): four hectares under actual occupation; cut-off 13 December 2005; three generations of 25 years for other traditional forest dwellers; Gram Sabha initiates (section 6(1)). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you balance forest rights with conservation inside a National Park? |
Question 13 of 17
1 The Strait of Hormuz lies between Oman and Iran and connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman.
2 The Bab al-Mandeb Strait connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden.
3 Perim Island lies in the Strait of Hormuz.
4 Saudi Aramco’s East-West pipeline, from Abqaiq to Yanbu, lets Saudi oil avoid the Strait of Hormuz.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Hormuz lies between Oman and Iran and connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea.
Statement 2Correct
The Bab al-Mandeb, between the Horn of Africa and West Asia, connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden; it is 18 miles wide at its narrowest.
Statement 3Incorrect
Perim Island lies in the middle of the Bab al-Mandeb.
Statement 4Correct
The pipeline runs from Abqaiq, near the Persian Gulf, to Yanbu on the Red Sea, so it bypasses Hormuz, though oil loaded at Yanbu still needs the Red Sea route open.
Analysis
In September 2026, according to FDD’s Long War Journal, the Houthis took Mocha, the Red Sea coast and Perim Island, though government forces claimed some ground back on 13 September; the East-West pipeline was shut down, as reported on 11 September, after drone attacks on 10 September that Saudi officials said were launched from Iraq.
Concept note
Two chokepoints frame Saudi Arabia’s oil exports. The Strait of Hormuz, between Oman and Iran, joins the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea; the US Energy Information Administration (EIA) put its oil flow at about 20 million barrels a day in 2024, with 84 per cent of the crude and condensate going to Asia.
The Bab al-Mandeb, between the Horn of Africa and West Asia, joins the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden and is 18 miles wide at its narrowest; a closure could keep Gulf tankers from the Suez Canal and the SUMED pipeline, forcing them around the southern tip of Africa. Saudi Aramco’s East-West pipeline, which EIA describes as a 5 million barrels a day line from the Abqaiq processing centre to Yanbu (temporarily raised to 7 million in 2019), bypasses Hormuz but ends on the Red Sea, so a bypass is only as safe as its own chokepoint.
India imported 33.14 million tonnes of crude from Saudi Arabia in FY2024-25, 13.58 per cent of its crude imports (MEA), and the two countries signed a Strategic Partnership Council Agreement during the Prime Minister’s Riyadh visit of 28 and 29 October 2019.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 world geography: straits and chokepoints; GS2 India and West Asia; GS3 energy security. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** maritime chokepoints, energy security, supply diversification, Red Sea security. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the East-West pipeline bypasses the Bab al-Mandeb; it bypasses Hormuz and ends on the Red Sea. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Hormuz: Oman-Iran, Persian Gulf to Gulf of Oman; Bab al-Mandeb: Red Sea to Gulf of Aden, 18 miles; Perim Island in the Bab al-Mandeb; pipeline Abqaiq to Yanbu. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** With both Gulf chokepoints under pressure, how should India secure its crude and LPG supplies? |
Question 14 of 17
Statement-I: Under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, the custody of a child who has not completed the age of five years shall ordinarily be with the mother.
Statement-II: The Act names the mother, and after her the father, as the natural guardian of a minor boy or an unmarried minor girl.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Section 6 places the custody of a child under five ordinarily with the mother.
Statement IIIncorrect
Section 6 names the father, ‘and after him, the mother’, as the natural guardian of a boy or unmarried girl.
Analysis
The Act makes the welfare of the minor ‘the paramount consideration’ (Section 13), while under the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 the court is ‘guided by’ welfare (Section 17). Neither Act uses the word ‘visitation’, which the Karnataka High Court has directed courts to replace with ‘parenting time’.
Concept note
Two statutes govern guardianship of Hindu minors. The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 (Act 8 of 1890), in force from 1 July 1890, is the general law: a court appoints or declares a guardian when this is for the welfare of the minor (Section 7), guided by that welfare and by the child’s age, sex and religion and the proposed guardian’s character and capacity (Section 17).
The Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 applies in addition to the 1890 Act (Section 2); a minor is a person under eighteen (Section 4); the father, and after him the mother, is the natural guardian of a boy or unmarried girl, but custody of a child under five shall ordinarily be with the mother (Section 6); and the welfare of the minor is the paramount consideration (Section 13). ‘Visitation’ appears in neither Act; it is court usage.
In an interim order of 29 September 2026 (WP 26958/2026), Justice Lalitha Kanneganti of the Karnataka High Court directed Family Courts and courts dealing with guardianship matters to use ‘parenting time’ instead. The Supreme Court released its Handbook on Combating Gender Stereotypes on 16 August 2023, and a report, Judgments and Gender, in August 2026.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 judiciary and family law; GS1 role of women and social empowerment; GS4 empathy and fairness in public institutions. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** best interests of the child, gender-sensitive language, shared parenting, judicial sensitivity. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the mother first as natural guardian; Section 6 names the father, and after him the mother, while giving the mother ordinary custody of a child under five. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** GWA 1890: Section 7 appointment, Section 17 'guided by' welfare; HMGA 1956: Section 4 minor under 18, Section 6 natural guardians, Section 13 welfare 'paramount'. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does changing a word like 'visitation' to 'parenting time' change anything for the child? |
Question 15 of 17
1 Every person in a priority household is entitled to 5 kg of foodgrains per month, and every Antyodaya Anna Yojana household to 35 kg per month.
2 The NFSA covers up to 50 per cent of the rural and 75 per cent of the urban population.
3 The eldest woman aged 18 years or above is the head of the household for the issue of a ration card.
4 ONORC was implemented in all States and Union Territories from its start in August 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 3(1) entitles priority households to 5 kg per person per month and Antyodaya Anna Yojana households to 35 kg per household per month.
Statement 2Incorrect
The percentages are reversed, since section 3(2) covers up to 75 per cent of the rural and 50 per cent of the urban population.
Statement 3Correct
Section 13(1) makes the eldest woman aged 18 or above the head of the household for the ration card.
Statement 4Incorrect
Inter-State portability began ‘in just 4 States’ in August 2019, covered 34 States/UTs by August 2021, and reached all 36 on 21 June 2022, when Assam became the 36th.
Analysis
PIB counts more than 195.9 crore portability transactions by 31 December 2025, inter-State and intra-State together, so the national total cannot by itself separate migrant use from local choice.
Concept note
The National Food Security Act, 2013 (Act No. 20 of 2013) was deemed in force from 5 July 2013 and published in the Gazette on 10 September 2013. It entitles priority households to 5 kg of foodgrains per person per month and Antyodaya Anna Yojana households to 35 kg per household per month (section 3(1)), and covers up to 75 per cent of the rural and 50 per cent of the urban population (section 3(2)).
A fair price shop is a shop licensed under section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 (section 2(4)). The reform clause, section 12(2), lists end-to-end computerisation, the use of Aadhaar and full transparency of records, and prefers Panchayats, self-help groups and co-operatives in licensing fair price shops; section 13(1) makes the eldest woman the head of the household for the ration card.
ONORC was sanctioned in 2018-19 at an outlay of Rs 127 crore over four years, began with inter-State portability in 4 States in August 2019, and covered all 36 States/UTs on 21 June 2022. Since January 2024 grain under the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana is free, for about 81.35 crore beneficiaries for five years.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 welfare schemes and the Public Distribution System; GS3 food security; GS1 migration. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** portability, rights-based entitlement, fair price shop accountability, women as head of household. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Writing that ONORC started nationwide in 2019; it began in 4 States and reached all 36 States/UTs only on 21 June 2022. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NFSA: 5 kg per person (priority), 35 kg per household (AAY); coverage 75 per cent rural, 50 per cent urban; eldest woman 18 or above is head of household. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** If beneficiaries use portability to leave a poorly run ration shop in their own village, what does that tell a district administrator? |
Question 16 of 17
1 Article 27 uses the word 'veto' for the power of the permanent members of the Security Council.
2 Under Article 97, the Security Council appoints the Secretary-General on the recommendation of the General Assembly.
3 Under Article 108, an amendment comes into force for all members once it is adopted by a two-thirds vote of the General Assembly.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
Article 27 requires nine votes on matters other than procedural ones ‘including the concurring votes of the permanent members’; that rule is what is called the veto, but the Charter never uses the word.
Statement 2Incorrect
It is the other way round, as the General Assembly appoints the Secretary-General ‘upon the recommendation of the Security Council’.
Statement 3Incorrect
Article 108 also needs ratification by two-thirds of the members, including all the permanent members, so any one of the five can block an enlargement.
Analysis
Shashi Tharoor argues in The Indian Express that a Council built on the realities of 1945 has lost legitimacy and must be recreated; Article 108 is why that is hard.
Concept note
Under Article 23 of the UN Charter, the Security Council has fifteen members: five permanent members and ten non-permanent members elected by the General Assembly for two years, and a retiring member cannot be re-elected at once. Under Article 27, procedural decisions need nine votes, and all other decisions need nine votes including the concurring votes of the permanent members, the rule called the veto.
Under Article 97, the General Assembly appoints the Secretary-General on the Council’s recommendation; before that the Council holds straw polls, informal ballots marking each candidate ‘encouraged’, ‘discouraged’ or ‘no opinion expressed’. Under Article 108, an amendment needs a two-thirds vote of the General Assembly and ratification by two-thirds of members, including all the permanent members.
The General Assembly decided to begin intergovernmental negotiations on Council reform by decision 62/557 of 15 September 2008. The Pact for the Future, adopted on 22 September 2024 (A/RES/79/1), deals with the Council in Actions 39 to 41.
India is a member of the G4 with Brazil, Germany and Japan. United Nations Day, 24 October, marks the entry into force of the Charter in 1945.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 important international institutions, their structure and mandate; GS2 India and the UN. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** representational deficit, veto restraint, legitimacy, text-based negotiations, Article 108. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying the Charter grants a 'veto' by that name; Article 27(3) speaks only of the concurring votes of the permanent members. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 23 (15 members, two-year terms), Article 27 (nine votes, concurring votes of the permanent members), Article 97 (GA appoints on SC recommendation), Article 108 (two-thirds plus all P5 ratify). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** If every permanent member must ratify a Charter amendment, is a permanent seat for India realistic, and what should India pursue meanwhile? |
Question 17 of 17
Facts
Austria is not a member: the V4 is a group of Poland, Hungary, the Czech Republic and the Slovak Republic. The tempting distractor is the Slovak Republic, which is easy to leave out when the group is recalled as Poland, Hungary and the Czech Republic; it is a member.
Analysis
In the India-Poland Joint Statement, the leaders welcomed the first Foreign Ministers’ meeting of India and the V4 and reaffirmed cooperation through the V4+India format.
Concept note
The Visegrad Group (V4) is a Central European grouping of Poland, Hungary, the Czech Republic and the Slovak Republic, and India engages it through the V4+India format. In the Joint Statement issued during Polish Prime Minister Donald Tusk’s official visit to India in October 2026, the leaders welcomed the first Foreign Ministers’ meeting of India and the V4.
India and Poland established diplomatic relations in 1954, and the Indian Embassy opened in Warsaw in 1957. During Prime Minister Modi’s official visit to Poland on 21 and 22 August 2024, on the 70th anniversary of diplomatic relations, ties were raised to a Strategic Partnership and an Action Plan 2024-2028 was adopted.
In the 2026 Joint Statement, Poland expressed support for India’s membership of a reformed and expanded UN Security Council and reiterated its support for India’s candidature for a non-permanent seat for 2028-29. India also invited Poland to join the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative, which Prime Minister Modi launched on 4 November 2019 at the East Asia Summit in Bangkok.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 bilateral, regional and global groupings involving India; GS2 India and Europe. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Central Europe, Strategic Partnership, V4+India, minilateral formats. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Leaving the Slovak Republic out of the V4, or adding a neighbour such as Austria. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** V4: Poland, Hungary, Czech Republic, Slovak Republic; India-Poland Strategic Partnership and Action Plan 2024-2028. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why should India invest diplomatic time in Central Europe rather than only in the larger EU capitals? |
Performance
Question-wise Result