UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 21 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
12 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 12
1 It flows from the National Civil Aviation Policy, 2016.
2 The Airports Authority of India is its Implementing Agency.
3 The Regional Air Connectivity Fund levy on scheduled airlines' domestic operations was imposed by amending the Aircraft Rules, 1937.
4 Under the original scheme, a selected airline receives Viability Gap Funding on a route for five years.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
UDAN followed the National Civil Aviation Policy (NCAP), 2016, which envisaged a Regional Connectivity Scheme.
Statement 2Correct
The Airports Authority of India (AAI) is the Implementing Agency.
Statement 3Correct
The RCF levy, the fund’s major source, was imposed by amending the Aircraft Rules 1937 from 1 December 2016.
Statement 4Incorrect
The original UDAN gives VGF for three years; only Modified UDAN allows up to five years, tapered from the third year.
Analysis
UDAN turned ten on 21 October 2026, and the three-year window is exactly where the CAG found routes failing.
Concept note
UDAN was launched by the Ministry of Civil Aviation on 21 October 2016, in the Ministry’s words ‘a market-based mechanism in which airlines bid for seat subsidies’. An airline that wins a route flies it at capped fares and receives Viability Gap Funding (VGF) for three years, shared between the Ministry and the State Governments in the ratio 80:20, or 90:10 for the North-Eastern States and Union Territories.
The Regional Air Connectivity Fund Trust, formed in April 2017, manages the fund. CAG Report No. 22 of 2023, a compliance audit of the first three rounds, found that 403 of 774 awarded routes (52 per cent) could not commence operations, and that only 54 routes sustained operations beyond the three-year concession period, as of March 2023.
As of October 2026, per the Ministry, 687 routes have been operationalised: a cumulative count of routes ever started, not the number flying today. Modified UDAN, approved by the Union Cabinet on 25 March 2026 for FY 2026-27 to FY 2035-36 with an outlay of Rs 28,840 crore, was launched from Jodhpur Airport on 4 July 2026; it pays VGF for up to five years per route, tapered from the third year.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 infrastructure (airports, civil aviation); GS2 government schemes and Centre-State cost sharing; GS3 audit of public expenditure by the CAG. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** viability gap funding, capped fares, route sustainability, regional connectivity. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Taking VGF as five years under the original UDAN; it is three, and up to five (tapered) applies only to Modified UDAN. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NCAP 2016; AAI the Implementing Agency; RCF levy via the Aircraft Rules 1937; VGF shared 80:20 (90:10 for the North-East and UTs). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** If most UDAN routes stop once the subsidy ends, should the State keep funding them or let them close? |
Question 2 of 12
1 The Council of Heads of Government is the SCO’s supreme governing body.
2 The SCO Secretariat is located in Tashkent.
3 The member state that hosts the Council of Heads of Government in a year is always the state holding the SCO chairmanship.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
The Council of Heads of State is the supreme governing body; the Council of Heads of Government (CHG) is the second-highest council and adopts the budget.
Statement 2Incorrect
The Secretariat is in Beijing; Tashkent hosts the Executive Committee of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS).
Statement 3Incorrect
The two councils rotate separately.
Analysis
Tajikistan chaired the 25th CHG at Dushanbe on 20 October 2026, although Pakistan holds the SCO chairmanship for 2026-2027; Defence Minister Rajnath Singh represented India.
Concept note
The SCO has two top councils. The Council of Heads of State (CHS) is the supreme governing body and determines strategic priorities; it meets once a year, chaired by the head of state hosting the meeting.
Its 26th summit was held at Bishkek from 31 August to 1 September 2026, where the chairmanship for 2026-2027 passed to Pakistan. The Council of Heads of Government (Prime Ministers) is the second-highest council: it adopts the organisation’s budget and addresses economic interaction.
At its 25th meeting, held at Dushanbe on 20 October 2026 under Tajikistan’s chairmanship, the Heads of Delegation adopted the Joint Communique, including the SCO budget for 2027 and the PMTEC (Multilateral Trade and Economic Cooperation Programme) Action Plan for 2026-2030, according to the Ministry of Defence. The SCO’s permanent bodies are the Secretariat in Beijing and the RATS, whose Executive Committee in Tashkent has worked since 17 January 2004.
The SCO has 10 members: Belarus, India, Iran, Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. Afghanistan and Mongolia are observers.
Iran joined at the summit hosted virtually by India on 4 July 2023, and Belarus at Astana on 4 July 2024.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 regional groupings involving India; GS3 security (RATS and counter-terrorism cooperation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** SCO budget, RATS, Eurasian connectivity, counter-terrorism cooperation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the SCO Secretariat in Tashkent; Tashkent hosts the RATS Executive Committee, and the Secretariat is in Beijing. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CHS supreme, CHG second-highest; Secretariat in Beijing, RATS in Tashkent; observers Afghanistan and Mongolia. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does India gain more from the SCO than it gives up by sitting at the same table as China and Pakistan? |
Question 3 of 12
Statement-I: Police Commemoration Day is observed in India every year on 21 October.
Statement-II: On 21 October 1959, ten policemen were killed in an ambush by heavily armed Chinese troops at Hot Springs, Ladakh.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The Ministry of Home Affairs says the day is observed every year on 21 October.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
On 21 October 1959, ten policemen ‘laid down their lives in an ambush laid by heavily armed Chinese troops at Hot Springs, Ladakh’, and the day has been observed in their memory every year since.
Analysis
The Union Home Minister will pay homage at the National Police Memorial on 21 October 2026. The trap is to call the Hot Springs dead soldiers: they were policemen.
Concept note
Police Commemoration Day honours police personnel who have died in the line of duty. Its origin is the Hot Springs incident in Ladakh: on 21 October 1959, ten policemen were killed in an ambush by heavily armed Chinese troops.
The focal point is the National Police Memorial (NPM) at Chanakyapuri, New Delhi, dedicated to the nation by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Police Commemoration Day, 21 October 2018. It has three parts: a Central Sculpture, a 30-foot-high granite monolith cenotaph; the Wall of Valour, engraved with the names of police personnel who laid down their lives in the line of duty since Independence; and a Museum, a ‘historical and evolving exhibition on policing in India’.
At the 2018 dedication the Prime Minister honoured the three surviving members of the Hot Springs incident and announced an award in the name of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose for police and paramilitary personnel involved in disaster response operations. In a release of 19 October 2026, the Ministry of Home Affairs said that Union Home Minister Amit Shah will pay homage at the NPM on 21 October 2026, and that the CAPFs and CPOs will hold commemorative events there from 22 to 30 October.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 security forces and agencies and their mandate; GS2 India-China relations; GS4 duty and sacrifice in public service. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** police welfare, line of duty, CAPFs, police modernisation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling the Hot Springs dead Army soldiers; they were policemen, which is why the day belongs to the police. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 21 October; Hot Springs, Ladakh, 1959; National Police Memorial at Chanakyapuri, dedicated on 21 October 2018. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Police deaths on duty draw less public attention than military ones; as a district Superintendent of Police, how would you change that? |
Question 4 of 12
1 The Feasibility Agreement on it is between the Central Transmission Utility of India Ltd. (CTUIL) and the Saudi National Electricity Transmission Company (National Grid).
2 India’s Ministry of Power lists its grid-interconnection agreements with Saudi Arabia and the UAE under the One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG) initiative.
3 India and Saudi Arabia have concluded an agreement to construct the interconnection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Feasibility Agreement, reached in Riyadh in October 2024, is between CTUIL and the Saudi National Grid.
Statement 2Correct
The Ministry of Power places its interconnection agreements with Saudi Arabia and the UAE under OSOWOG.
Statement 3Incorrect
The interconnection is still a proposal; the instruments so far are two MoUs of 2023 and the 2024 Feasibility Agreement.
Analysis
The review of 19 October 2026 was an official-level virtual meeting, not a new agreement.
Concept note
India and Saudi Arabia have approached a grid link in stages. An MoU on energy cooperation signed at New Delhi on 10 September 2023 lists ‘Electricity and Grid Interconnection between the two countries’ among its areas.
A second MoU, signed at Riyadh on 8 October 2023 on the sidelines of MENA Climate Week, covers electrical interconnections, green or clean hydrogen and supply chains; it aims at a general framework for cooperation in electrical interconnection and the exchange of electricity during peak times and emergencies. In October 2024, during the Commerce and Industry Minister’s visit to Riyadh on 29 and 30 October, CTUIL and the Saudi National Grid entered into a Feasibility Agreement, witnessed by Piyush Goyal.
The Ministry of Power lists its interconnection agreements with Saudi Arabia and the UAE under One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG). In a release of 19 October 2026, the Ministry said that Power Secretary Pankaj Agarwal had held a virtual bilateral meeting with Saudi Arabia’s Eng.
Nasser Al-Qahtani to review the proposed interconnection. For Prelims, keep three stages apart: the MoUs, the feasibility agreement, and the interconnection itself, which is still a proposal.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 infrastructure: energy; GS2 India and the Gulf, bilateral agreements involving India. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** cross-border grid, energy security, OSOWOG, India-Gulf partnership. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading an MoU or a feasibility agreement as a decision to build; the link is still a proposal. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** MoUs of 10 September 2023 (New Delhi) and 8 October 2023 (Riyadh); Feasibility Agreement between CTUIL and National Grid, October 2024. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India tie part of its power supply to a cross-border link with the Gulf? |
Question 5 of 12
1 It serves as the national agency for performing specified functions in the area of cyber security under Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
2 It is the national nodal agency for Critical Information Infrastructure Protection designated under Section 70A of the same Act.
3 The duty to report a cyber incident to it within six hours of noticing the incident is laid down in the text of the Act itself.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Under Section 70B(4), CERT-In ‘shall serve as the national agency for performing the following functions in the area of cyber security’.
Statement 2Incorrect
The agency designated under Section 70A is the NCIIPC, not CERT-In.
Statement 3Incorrect
The six-hour duty comes from CERT-In’s Directions of 28 April 2022, issued under Section 70B(6).
Analysis
The Hindu’s editorial on advisory CIAD-2026-0049 argues that a reporting deadline does not ensure detection.
Concept note
The IT Act, 2000 builds two separate cyber institutions. Section 70A lets the Centre designate a government organisation as the national nodal agency for Critical Information Infrastructure Protection; that agency is the National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC).
Section 70B makes CERT-In, under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, the national agency for cyber security functions. Under Section 70B(6), CERT-In may call for information and give directions to service providers, intermediaries, data centres and others, and Section 70B(7) makes non-compliance punishable with imprisonment up to one year, or a fine up to one lakh rupees, or both.
CERT-In’s Directions of 28 April 2022, issued under Section 70B(6), require listed cyber incidents to be reported within six hours of noticing them, and logs to be kept securely for a rolling 180 days within Indian jurisdiction. The National Cyber Security Policy, 2013 set out an umbrella framework and provided for a 24x7 NCIIPC.
CERT-In’s advisory CIAD-2026-0049, issued on 15 October 2026 with Critical severity, records AI agents under research and evaluation that exceeded their task authorisation and reached Indian ICT assets. The Hindu argues that many organisations are incapable of, or unwilling to, discover such an intrusion.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 cyber security and internal security; GS2 transparency and accountability in government. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** detection gap, incident reporting, critical information infrastructure, agentic AI. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating CERT-In and the NCIIPC as one body; CERT-In works under Section 70B, the NCIIPC under Section 70A. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 70A NCIIPC; 70B CERT-In; 70B(6) directions; 70B(7) penalty; six hours and 180 days come from the 2022 Directions. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should a cyber agency that asks firms for six-hour disclosure publish more about its own findings? |
Question 6 of 12
1 Under Article 341(2), the list of Scheduled Castes notified by the President can be varied only by a law made by Parliament.
2 Article 342A was first inserted into the Constitution by the 105th Amendment Act, 2021.
3 The Mandal Commission gave equal weight to its social, educational and economic indicators of backwardness.
4 The Justice K.G. Balakrishnan Commission, on Scheduled Caste status for converts, was appointed under the Commissions of Inquiry Act, 1952.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The President’s notification ‘shall not be varied by any subsequent notification’; only Parliament, by law, may include or exclude.
Statement 2Incorrect
Article 342A was inserted by the 102nd Amendment Act, 2018; the 105th Amendment Act, 2021 substituted it and inserted clause (3) on State lists.
Statement 3Incorrect
Social indicators carried 3 points each, educational 2 and economic 1.
Statement 4Correct
It was appointed by S.O. 4742(E) under section 3 of the Commissions of Inquiry Act, 1952.
Analysis
K. Kannan’s Text and Context piece in The Hindu explains the Supreme Court’s ruling of 15 October 2026 on converts.
Concept note
Reservation runs on two separate constitutional routes. Scheduled Caste status runs through Article 341: the President specifies the castes by public notification under Article 341(1), and under Article 341(2) only Parliament, by law, may vary the list.
Backward-class identification runs through Articles 15(4) and 16(4), and Article 342A. That Article was inserted by the 102nd Amendment Act, 2018 (from 15 August 2018) and substituted by the 105th Amendment Act, 2021 (from 15 September 2021), whose clause (3) lets every State, by law, prepare and maintain its own list.
Method matters too: as the Supreme Court recorded in Indra Sawhney (16 November 1992), the Mandal Commission evolved eleven indicators, social (4), educational (3) and economic (4), weighted 3, 2 and 1 points for a total of 22, and castes scoring 11 points or more were listed as socially and educationally backward. The Justice K.G. Balakrishnan Commission, appointed by S.O. 4742(E) of 6 October 2022, examines SC status for persons who claim to have historically belonged to the Scheduled Castes but have converted to other religions.
Tamil Nadu has kept 3.5 per cent for Backward Class Muslims within its 30 per cent Backward Classes quota since 2007.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 constitutional provisions on reservation (Articles 15(4), 16(4), 341, 342A); GS1 social empowerment and religion; GS2 statutory commissions of inquiry. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** SEBC identification, State lists, empirical backwardness, objective criteria. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Crediting the 105th Amendment with creating Article 342A; the 102nd inserted it in 2018, and the 105th recast it and added clause (3). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 341(2) Parliament only; 342A(3) State lists from 15 September 2021; Mandal: 11 indicators, 22 points, cut-off 11; Balakrishnan Commission: S.O. 4742(E), 6 October 2022. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should Scheduled Caste status follow social disability rather than religion, and who should decide that? |
Question 7 of 12
1 It provides for a Data Bank of paddy land and wetland.
2 A section inserted in 2015 allowed conversions of paddy land made before the Act to be regularised on payment of a fee.
3 Section 27A provides for changing the nature of 'unnotified land', which is recorded as paddy land in the basic tax register but is not notified in the Data Bank.
4 Applications under Section 27A are decided by the Agricultural Officer of the area.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Data Bank of Paddy Land and Wetland is constituted under Section 5(4)(i).
Statement 2Correct
Section 3A, inserted by the Kerala Finance (No. 2) Act, 2015, let pre-2008 conversions be regularised for a fee of 25 per cent of the land’s fair value.
Statement 3Correct
This is the ‘unnotified land’ route of Section 27A.
Statement 4Incorrect
The Revenue Divisional Officer decides, after reports of the Village Officer; the Agricultural Officer convenes the Local Level Monitoring Committee.
Analysis
The authors of an op-ed in The Hindu argue that the regulator earns from what it regulates.
Concept note
The 2008 Act restricts the conversion of paddy land and wetland and keeps a Data Bank under Section 5(4)(i); when an owner applies to have land removed from it, the Revenue Divisional Officer seeks a report from the Agricultural Officer, who convenes the Local Level Monitoring Committee. Two later changes opened exits.
Section 3A, inserted by the Kerala Finance (No. 2) Act, 2015, let the Collector regularise conversions made before the 2008 Act for a fee of 25 per cent of fair value; a 2016 amendment Bill sought to omit it. Section 27A, added in 2018, lets the owner of unnotified land apply to the Revenue Divisional Officer, who must ensure no disruption to the free flow of water to neighbouring fields; where the parcel exceeds 20.2 ares, ten per cent is set apart for water conservancy measures.
The State told the Kerala High Court that it had collected more than Rs 1,510 crore in regularisation charges by 18 October 2024, and the court found only Rs 6 lakh allocated for restoring paddy land. On 28 November 2024 it directed that fees be credited to the Agricultural Promotion Fund under Section 27D, with a yearly audit.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 conservation of wetlands and land-use change; GS2 State legislation and the High Court’s role; GS3 food security. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** land-use conversion, regularisation fee, wetland services, conflict of interest. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Naming the Agricultural Officer as the deciding authority; the Revenue Divisional Officer decides Section 27A applications. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Data Bank under Section 5(4)(i); Section 3A (2015, regularisation); Section 27A (2018, unnotified land); Agricultural Promotion Fund under Section 27D. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can a State that earns from conversion fees be trusted to refuse conversions? |
Question 8 of 12
1. Virippu : Autumn
2. Mundakan : Summer
3. Puncha : Winter
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
Virippu is the autumn crop.
Pair 2Incorrect
Mundakan is the winter crop, not the summer crop.
Pair 3Incorrect
Puncha is the summer crop, not the winter crop.
Analysis
The Hindu op-ed on paddy conservation compares 8.82 lakh hectares under paddy in 1974-75 with 1.76 lakh hectares under rice in 2024-25. These are crop areas, so the fall includes land moved to other crops as well as land converted to other uses.
Concept note
Kerala grows rice in three seasons: Virippu (autumn), Mundakan (winter) and Puncha (summer). The State’s Department of Agriculture Development and Farmers’ Welfare runs a Rice Development scheme with special emphasis on identified zones such as Kuttanad, Onattukara, Pokkali, Kole, Palakkad, Wayanad and Kaipad; its programmes include area expansion, assistance for fallow land cultivation and royalty to paddy land owners.
Area figures need care. The Kerala State Planning Board’s Economic Review 2016 put the area under paddy at 8.82 lakh hectares in 1974-75, and the Economic Review 2025 put the area under rice (wetland) at 1.76 lakh hectares in 2024-25, a fall of about four-fifths.
Because these are crop areas, the fall includes land moved to other crops as well as land converted to other uses. The counter-view in the analysis notes that most of the fall, to 1.96 lakh hectares by 2015-16, came before the 2018 amendment that opened the unnotified-land route.
Under that route, no fee is collected for land filled up before 4 July 1967, the date of commencement of the Kerala Land Utilisation Order, 1967. For Prelims, learn the three season names as a set, and the rice zones the State’s scheme names.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 agricultural geography and cropping patterns; GS3 food security and land-use change. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** cropping seasons, rice tracts, crop-area decline, land-use conversion. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Swapping Mundakan and Puncha; Mundakan is the winter crop and Puncha the summer crop. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Virippu autumn, Mundakan winter, Puncha summer; tracts Kuttanad, Onattukara, Pokkali, Kole, Palakkad, Wayanad and Kaipad. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is a fall in paddy area always a loss, or can a shift to other crops be a rational choice for farmers? |
Question 9 of 12
1 India’s Ministry of External Affairs describes India-US relations as a Comprehensive Global Strategic Partnership.
2 The United States has designated the Russian oil companies Rosneft and Lukoil under Executive Order 14024.
3 India and the United States have signed a Bilateral Trade Agreement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The MEA said the two sides discussed ways to ‘further strengthen the Comprehensive Global Strategic Partnership’.
Statement 2Correct
The US Treasury designated Rosneft and Lukoil under E.O. 14024 on 22 October 2025.
Statement 3Incorrect
The MEA ‘welcomed the progress made in negotiations’ on the BTA and seeks its early conclusion; it has not been signed.
Analysis
C. Raja Mohan argues in The Indian Express that capital and corporate investment now carry weight in diplomacy.
Concept note
US Secretary of State Marco Rubio held talks with External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar in Mumbai on 20 October 2026 and was scheduled to visit Reliance Industries’ refineries at Jamnagar on 21 October; the announced Indian itinerary named only Mumbai and Jamnagar, not New Delhi. C. Raja Mohan reads this as the power of capital in diplomacy.
The MEA said the two sides reviewed the Comprehensive Global Strategic Partnership, welcomed progress on the Bilateral Trade Agreement and referred to the India-US COMPACT (Catalysing Opportunities for Military Partnership, Accelerated Commerce & Technology) for the 21st century. The sanctions backdrop shapes India’s oil imports.
The US Treasury designated Rosneft and Lukoil under E.O. 14024 on 22 October 2025; the Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act of 2026 was signed into law on 18 September 2026; OFAC’s General License No. 135 of 9 October 2026 authorises transactions in Russian-origin diesel fuel through 7 April 2027; and an executive order of 16 October 2026 waived the duties in sections 112 and 113 of the Act until the President or the Secretary of State decides otherwise. Relief is therefore temporary.
For Prelims, keep apart a partnership’s name, a negotiation and a signed agreement.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 India-US relations and the effect of policies of developed countries on India’s interests; GS3 energy security and investment. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** economic statecraft, sanctions waiver, capital diplomacy, trade negotiations. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating progress in BTA negotiations as a signed agreement; the MEA speaks of negotiations and an early conclusion. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Comprehensive Global Strategic Partnership; COMPACT; E.O. 14024 (Rosneft, Lukoil); OFAC General License No. 135 (diesel, to 7 April 2027). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** The US, European states and China have long used their companies in diplomacy; should India do the same with its own? |
Question 10 of 12
1 UNICEF’s Child Nutrition Report 2025 found that, globally, obesity has overtaken underweight as the more prevalent form of malnutrition among children and adolescents aged 5-19.
2 The same report found that obesity has overtaken underweight among children and adolescents aged 5-19 in South Asia as well.
3 WHO’s guidelines on the integrated management of obesity in children cover children aged 29 days to under 10 years.
4 FSSAI’s red hexagonal front-of-pack warning labels for packaged foods high in sugar, saturated fat and salt have been notified as regulations.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
About 188 million school-age children and adolescents, one in ten, live with obesity, and it now exceeds underweight globally.
Statement 2Incorrect
South Asia and sub-Saharan Africa are the exceptions.
Statement 3Correct
WHO’s guidelines of October 2026 give recommendations for ages 29 days to under 10 years, using a primary health care approach.
Statement 4Incorrect
FSSAI has only proposed the labels, and the Supreme Court reserved its order on 28 September 2026.
Analysis
Rajib Dasgupta argues in The Indian Express that policy must change the obesogenic environment.
Concept note
India carries a double burden of malnutrition. NFHS-5 (2019-21) records 35.5 per cent of children under five stunted, 19.3 per cent wasted and 32.1 per cent underweight, while overweight among them rose from 2.1 per cent in NFHS-4 (2015-16) to 3.4 per cent.
Undernutrition is still the larger problem in South Asia. UNICEF’s Child Nutrition Report 2025, titled Feeding Profit: How Food Environments are Failing Children, finds that among 5-19-year-olds globally, obesity rose from 3 per cent in 2000 to 9.4 per cent while underweight fell from nearly 13 per cent to 9.2 per cent, but it excepts South Asia and sub-Saharan Africa from the crossover.
WHO’s guidelines on the integrated management of obesity in children, published on 7 October 2026, cover dietary interventions, physical activity, sedentary behaviour and sleep for ages 29 days to under 10 years. Dasgupta notes that Type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease and MASLD (metabolic dysfunction-associated steatotic liver disease) are increasingly diagnosed in children with obesity, which pushes screening to younger ages.
Labelling is the live policy test: in August 2026 FSSAI proposed red hexagonal warning labels, with thresholds based on the ICMR-National Institute of Nutrition’s Dietary Guidelines for Indians, 2024.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 health and issues relating to poverty and hunger; GS1 changing food habits and urbanisation; GS3 food processing and its regulation. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** double burden of malnutrition, obesogenic environment, front-of-pack labelling, primary health care approach. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Extending the global crossover to India; UNICEF excepts South Asia, and NFHS-5 (2019-21) showed high stunting and underweight. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** UNICEF Child Nutrition Report 2025 (Feeding Profit); WHO child obesity guidelines, 29 days to under 10 years; NFHS-5 overweight under five, 3.4 per cent. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the State tax foods high in sugar, fat and salt, or is a warning label enough? |
Question 11 of 12
Statement-I: According to China’s Ministry of Commerce, offering API calls or SaaS applications built on a restricted large model falls outside large-model technology export management.
Statement-II: China’s Catalogue of Technologies Prohibited or Restricted from Export is made under its Foreign Trade Law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
MOFCOM says API calls, app or web interaction and SaaS applications built on restricted large models are outside large-model technology export management, so the line falls at transfer, not use.
Statement IICorrectDoes not explain Statement I
The Catalogue rests on the Foreign Trade Law and the Regulations on the Administration of Technology Import and Export, but that legal basis does not explain where MOFCOM draws the line.
Analysis
Bharath Reddy argues in The Indian Express that the draft is ‘designed more as a switch than a wall’.
Concept note
On 16 October 2026, China’s Ministry of Commerce (MOFCOM) and Ministry of Science and Technology (MOST) issued Announcement No. 48 of 2026, a draft revision of the Catalogue of Technologies Prohibited or Restricted from Export. It proposes to add 40 technologies, 23 in artificial intelligence, 5 in biotechnology and 12 in solar manufacturing, with 14 proposed as prohibited and 26 as restricted.
The draft is open for public comment until 15 November 2026 and is not in force, but a pre-export registration requirement applies at once: before exporting a listed technology, firms must disclose the parties, the destination, the use and the expected value. Technology already public through open source or published papers is outside the scope.
Because the line falls at transfer rather than use, foreign users can still reach restricted Chinese models through APIs, which keeps them dependent on a Chinese provider, while licences would apply only if the list is adopted. The measure is separate from Announcement No. 50 of 2026 on tunnel-boring machines.
Bharath Reddy, an associate fellow at the Takshashila Institution, reads the draft as a switch Beijing can flip when it chooses. For India, the lesson drawn is to diversify model sources across jurisdictions.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 science and technology (artificial intelligence) and economic statecraft; GS2 India-China relations and the effect of other countries' policies on India. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** export controls, technology denial, AI sovereignty, open-weight models. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the 40-technology list as in force; it is a draft for comment, and only the pre-export registration applies now. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Announcement No. 48 of 2026 (MOFCOM and MOST); 40 technologies, 14 proposed as prohibited and 26 as restricted; comment until 15 November 2026; No. 50 covers tunnel-boring machines. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India build its own frontier model or rely on open models from many countries? |
Question 12 of 12
1 The Fund of Funds for Startups invests through Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) rather than directly in startups.
2 SIDBI is an Implementation Agency of the Startup India Fund of Funds 2.0.
3 The Startup India initiative was launched in 2016.
4 The Union Budget 2024-25 proposed to abolish the angel tax for all classes of investors.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Its entire Rs 10,000 crore corpus has been committed to 145 AIFs, which in turn invest in startups.
Statement 2Correct
The notification of April 2026 said SIDBI would operationalise the scheme as an Implementation Agency, with another domestic Implementation Agency also to be selected.
Statement 3Correct
Startup India was launched on 16 January 2016.
Statement 4Correct
The Budget proposed abolishing the angel tax ‘for all classes of investors’.
Analysis
Roopa Kudva asks in The Indian Express who captures the value India’s developers create, and points to shrinking seed capital.
Concept note
India’s public venture capital works at one remove. The Fund of Funds for Startups, set up in 2016 ‘to address funding gaps and catalyse the domestic venture capital market for startups’, has committed its entire Rs 10,000 crore corpus to 145 AIFs, and over Rs 25,500 crore has been invested in more than 1,370 startups (PIB, 14 February 2026).
The Startup India Fund of Funds 2.0, approved by the Union Cabinet on 14 February 2026 with a corpus of Rs 10,000 crore, was notified on 13 April 2026, with SIDBI as an Implementation Agency and priority for deep tech startups, early growth-stage startups supported by smaller AIFs, and technology-driven and innovative manufacturing startups. The gap Roopa Kudva highlights is at the seed stage: Tracxn, a private data firm, counts seed funding for 1 January to 21 September 2026 down 37 per cent to $698 million, while early-stage funding rose 27 per cent to $4.2 billion.
Software products remain a small slice, about $23 billion of a $315 billion industry in NASSCOM’s FY26 estimates. Because the funds of funds work through AIFs, whether public money reaches seed-stage founders depends on the funds they back.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 Indian economy: investment models and mobilisation of resources; GS3 science and technology: IT and innovation; GS2 government policies and interventions. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** risk capital, value capture, intellectual property, fund of funds. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the Fund of Funds for Startups invests directly in startups; it commits to AIFs, which choose the startups. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Fund of Funds for Startups (2016): Rs 10,000 crore committed to 145 AIFs; Fund of Funds 2.0 notified on 13 April 2026, with SIDBI as an Implementation Agency. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should public money take seed-stage risk directly, or keep working through private fund managers? |
Performance
Question-wise Result