UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 19 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
11 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 11
1 A Tariff Rate Quota lets a fixed volume of imports in at a lower duty, while imports above the quota pay the out-of-quota rate.
2 A Minimum Import Price is the ceiling above which a product cannot be imported.
3 Under the India-New Zealand Free Trade Agreement, India keeps dairy, sugar and edible oils out of its tariff concessions.
4 Under the same agreement, India liberalises tariffs on all of its tariff lines.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
A Tariff Rate Quota admits a fixed volume of imports at a lower duty, and imports above the quota pay the out-of-quota rate.
Statement 2Incorrect
A Minimum Import Price is a floor, the price below which the product cannot be imported, not a ceiling.
Statement 3Correct
Dairy, sugar and edible oils are excluded from India’s offer.
Statement 4Incorrect
India liberalises tariffs on 70.03% of its tariff lines, covering 95% of bilateral trade value, and excludes 29.97% of lines.
Analysis
The agreement will enter into force on 20 October 2026. New Zealand removes duties on all its tariff lines for Indian exports, while India opens apples, kiwifruit and Mānuka honey only through quotas and price floors. The asymmetry is the design: full access for Indian goods, guarded access for sensitive farm products.
Concept note
The India-New Zealand Free Trade Agreement is a useful case for two Prelims ideas that recur in every trade question: how a country protects sensitive products without a blanket ban, and how far its tariff offer actually goes. A Tariff Rate Quota is a volume tool.
A fixed quantity enters at a lower duty and anything above it pays the out-of-quota rate, so domestic producers face competition only up to a known limit. A Minimum Import Price is a price tool.
It is a floor below which the product cannot be imported, which stops cheap imports from undercutting local growers. India uses both for apples, kiwifruit and Mānuka honey.
India’s offer covers 70.03% of its tariff lines, which account for 95% of bilateral trade value, and 29.97% of lines are excluded altogether, including dairy, sugar and edible oils. New Zealand, by contrast, removes duties on all its tariff lines for Indian exports.
Read the numbers carefully in any question: share of tariff lines and share of trade value are different measures, and a high trade-value share can sit beside a much lower line share.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 agriculture and food security (protection of dairy and farm incomes); GS2 bilateral relations with New Zealand. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Tariff Rate Quota, Minimum Import Price, sensitive list, asymmetric market access, tariff lines versus trade value. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating a Minimum Import Price as a ceiling; it is a floor below which imports are barred. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Check whether a figure is a share of tariff lines or a share of trade value before marking it. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should India balance export access with protection for small dairy and fruit farmers in its FTAs? |
Question 2 of 11
1 Parliament may by law establish a common High Court for two or more States, or for two or more States and a Union territory.
2 A regulation made by the President under Article 240 for a Union territory may repeal or amend an Act of Parliament that applies to that territory.
3 The Ladakh Bench is a separate High Court for Ladakh with its principal seat at Leh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 231(1) says ‘Parliament may by law establish a common High Court for two or more States or for two or more States and a Union territory.’
Statement 2Correct
Under Article 240(2), such a regulation ‘may repeal or amend any Act made by Parliament or any other law, which is for the time being applicable to the Union territory’ and, when promulgated by the President, has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Ladakh Bench is a Bench of the common High Court of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh, not a new High Court, and the principal seat stays where it was before the regulation came into force.
Analysis
Chief Justice of India Surya Kant inaugurated the Ladakh Bench at Melongthang, Leh. It was enabled by a regulation under Article 240, read with Section 58(2) of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, rather than by a new Act of Parliament.
Concept note
Three Articles frame the question of a High Court for a Union territory. Article 214 gives a High Court to each State, and Ladakh is a Union territory, not a State.
Article 231(1) lets Parliament set up a common High Court for two or more States, or for two or more States and a Union territory. Article 241(1) lets Parliament constitute a High Court for a Union territory.
For Ladakh, Section 75(1)(a) of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 made the High Court of Jammu and Kashmir the common High Court for both Union territories. The Ladakh Bench did not need a new law.
The President’s power under Article 240 to make regulations for certain Union territories is strong: under Article 240(2) a regulation may repeal or amend an Act of Parliament applicable to the territory and has the same force as such an Act. The regulation lets Judges and Division Courts sit in Ladakh, with arrangements made by the Chief Justice with the approval of the Lieutenant Governor.
It is a Bench, not a separate High Court, and the principal seat is unchanged.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 Union territories and their administration (Article 240) alongside the judiciary (Articles 214, 231, 241). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** common High Court, Bench versus High Court, Article 240 regulation, access to justice, Reorganisation Act 2019. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling the Ladakh Bench a new High Court; it is a Bench of the common High Court and the principal seat is unchanged. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 231 is the common High Court; Article 241 is a High Court for a Union territory; Article 240 is the President’s regulation power. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is a regulation under Article 240 an adequate route for judicial access in a Union territory without a legislature? |
Question 3 of 11
1 The CCPA is set up under Section 10(1) of the Act.
2 The CCPA’s Investigation Wing is headed by a Director-General.
3 An appeal against a CCPA order lies to the High Court within sixty days.
4 The consumer rights defined in the Act include the right to be protected against the marketing of goods and services that are hazardous to life and property.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 10(1) sets up the CCPA ‘to regulate matters relating to violation of rights of consumers, unfair trade practices and false or misleading advertisements’.
Statement 2Correct
The Director-General heads the CCPA’s Investigation Wing under Section 15(1).
Statement 3Incorrect
Under Section 24 the appeal lies to the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) ‘within a period of thirty days from the date of receipt of such order’, not to the High Court within sixty days.
Statement 4Correct
Section 2(9)(i) includes ‘the right to be protected against the marketing of goods, products or services which are hazardous to life and property’.
Analysis
The CCPA says 3,940 sellers and listing entries offering explosive substances such as ammonium nitrate have been delisted from online platforms after its intervention, and it has passed three final orders, each with a penalty of Rs 10 lakh.
Concept note
The CCPA is the regulator of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, and its powers are a regular Prelims target. Section 10(1) creates it to deal with violations of consumer rights, unfair trade practices and false or misleading advertisements.
Investigation goes to the Director-General, who heads its Investigation Wing under Section 15(1). After a hearing, Section 20 lets it order the recall of dangerous goods or the discontinuation of unfair practices, and Section 21(2) allows a penalty on a manufacturer or an endorser for a false or misleading advertisement of up to Rs 10 lakh, and up to Rs 50 lakh for every subsequent contravention.
The appeal route is the detail most often confused: under Section 24 an order goes on appeal to the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission within thirty days, not to a High Court. The online sale of explosives brings in Section 2(9)(i), the right to be protected against goods hazardous to life and property, and Section 18(2)(j), which lets the CCPA issue safety notices about dangerous or unsafe goods.
Remember that Section 10(1) charges the CCPA with enforcing the rights of consumers as a class.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 internal security (online sale of explosive precursors) and GS2 regulatory bodies. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** consumer rights, class action by a regulator, e-commerce accountability, safety notice, Investigation Wing. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Sending a CCPA appeal to the High Court; Section 24 sends it to the NCDRC within thirty days. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Pair each power with its section: 10 (creation), 15 (Investigation Wing), 20 (orders), 21 (penalties), 24 (appeal). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should online platforms be made liable for verifying licences before listing hazardous goods? |
Question 4 of 11
1 Gunpowder and picric acid are named in the definition of 'explosives' in Section 4(d) of the Explosives Act, 1884.
2 Ammonium nitrate is named in the definition of 'explosives' in Section 4(d) of the Explosives Act, 1884.
3 Ammonium nitrate is deemed an explosive only in a combination with more than 75 per cent ammonium nitrate by weight.
4 The Ammonium Nitrate Rules, 2012 were made under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Gunpowder and picric acid are named in the definition of ‘explosives’ in Section 4(d).
Statement 2Incorrect
Ammonium nitrate is not named in Section 4(d); it is brought in by a notification.
Statement 3Incorrect
Ammonium nitrate, or any combination with more than 45 per cent ammonium nitrate by weight, is deemed an explosive by a notification dated 21 July 2011.
Statement 4Incorrect
The Ammonium Nitrate Rules, 2012, notified on 11 July 2012 (G.S.R. 553(E)), were made under the Explosives Act, 1884.
Analysis
The CCPA’s action covered online listings of ammonium nitrate, gunpowder, picric acid and PETN, and the release asks platforms to disclose sellers’ PESO licence details and verify buyers. PESO describes pure ammonium nitrate as an oxidising agent and one of the base ingredients used in making commercial explosives.
Concept note
This question tests the legal layer beneath the CCPA story, and it belongs to internal security as much as to consumer law. The Explosives Act, 1884 defines ‘explosives’ in Section 4(d), and that definition names substances such as gunpowder, picric acid and PETN (as ‘penta-erythritol-tetranitrate’).
Ammonium nitrate is not named there. It was brought under the Act by a notification dated 21 July 2011, which deems ammonium nitrate, or any combination with more than 45 per cent ammonium nitrate by weight, to be an explosive.
Its possession for sale or use is then governed by the Ammonium Nitrate Rules, 2012, notified on 11 July 2012 under the Explosives Act, so the rules sit with explosives law, not environmental law. Section 5(1) of the Act allows rules that regulate or prohibit, except under a licence, the manufacture, possession, use and sale of explosives.
PESO describes pure ammonium nitrate as an oxidising agent of Class 5.1 (UN1942) and as one of the base ingredients of commercial explosives. That is why its sale is licensed, and why platforms are now asked to show sellers’ PESO licence details and verify buyers before a purchase.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 internal security (explosive precursors) and GS2 consumer protection (the CCPA’s action against listings). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** dual-use chemicals, licensing, deemed explosive, precursor control, platform due diligence. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the Ammonium Nitrate Rules under environmental law; they are made under the Explosives Act, 1884. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Named in Section 4(d): gunpowder, picric acid, PETN. Ammonium nitrate: deemed above 45 per cent by the 2011 notification. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How can India control dual-use chemicals without hurting farmers and small industries that need them? |
Question 5 of 11
Statement-I: Under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, a 'disaster' can include a grave occurrence arising by accident or negligence that causes substantial loss of life and is beyond the coping capacity of the affected community.
Statement-II: The Disaster Management (Amendment) Act, 2025 removes every man-made occurrence from the definition of 'disaster'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Section 2(d) defines a ‘disaster’ to include a catastrophe, mishap, calamity or grave occurrence ‘arising from natural or man made causes, or by accident or negligence’ that causes substantial loss of life and is beyond the coping capacity of the affected community.
Statement IIIncorrect
The 2025 amendment adds an Explanation that ‘man made causes’ does not include ‘any law and order related matter or situation’. It narrows that one phrase; it does not remove every man-made occurrence.
Analysis
The Hindu’s editorial on the Chorbagan pandal stampede in Kolkata asks what crowd management at mass gatherings must learn. The legal frame is the Disaster Management Act, 2005: the NDMA lays down guidelines under Section 6, and a District Authority can restrict entry and movement under Section 34.
Concept note
The NDMA’s 2014 guide on managing crowds records that most crowd disasters in India have occurred at religious places, and the Disaster Management Act, 2005 (Act No. 53 of 2005) is the law that frames the response. The definition in Section 2(d) is broad: a disaster may arise from natural or man-made causes, or by accident or negligence, if it causes substantial loss of life and is beyond the coping capacity of the affected community.
The Disaster Management (Amendment) Act, 2025 adds a narrow Explanation: ‘man made causes’ does not include any law and order related matter or situation, or any situation arising from a law and order related matter or situation. The institutions follow the same chain.
The NDMA, chaired by the Prime Minister under Section 3(2)(a), lays down policies, plans and guidelines under Section 6(1). Section 34 lets a District Authority control and restrict traffic and the entry of persons into, movement within and departure from a vulnerable or affected area.
Section 54 punishes a false alarm about a disaster that leads to panic with imprisonment of up to one year or a fine. The NDMA’s 2014 crowd guide is guidance; the binding powers sit in the Act.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 statutory bodies (NDMA) and GS1 society (mass religious gatherings and urban crowding). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** crowd crush, carrying capacity, District Authority, Section 34 powers, guidance versus binding law. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading the 2025 amendment as excluding all man-made events; it excludes only law and order matters from 'man made causes'. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** The NDMA lays down guidelines (Section 6); the District Authority restricts entry and movement (Section 34). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Who should be accountable when a crowd crush happens at a privately organised festival? |
Question 6 of 11
1 Its legal basis is the Energy Conservation Act, 2001, as amended by the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022.
2 The Central Electricity Regulatory Commission is its administrator, and the Bureau of Energy Efficiency regulates trading.
3 Obligated entities must meet emission intensity targets set as emissions per unit of output, not an absolute cap.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022 amends the Energy Conservation Act, 2001, letting the Centre ‘specify the carbon credit trading scheme’ (Section 14(w)) and issue carbon credit certificates under a new Section 14AA.
Statement 2Incorrect
The roles are reversed; the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is the administrator, Grid India is the registry and the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) regulates trading.
Statement 3Correct
Obligated entities must meet Greenhouse Gas Emission Intensity (GEI) targets, emissions per unit of output, and those that beat their targets earn tradeable Carbon Credit Certificates.
Analysis
Writing in The Hindu, Vaibhav Chaturvedi and Catherine Wolfram argue that India should join the Open Coalition on Compliance Carbon Markets. India’s intensity-based targets, rather than an absolute cap, make linking with other systems less straightforward.
Concept note
The CCTS is India’s compliance carbon market. The legal base is the Energy Conservation Act, 2001, as amended in 2022: Section 14(w) lets the Centre specify a carbon credit trading scheme, and Section 14AA lets it issue a carbon credit certificate to a registered entity that complies.
The scheme was notified by S.O. 2825(E) of 28 June 2023. Three bodies run it, and their roles are easy to swap: the Bureau of Energy Efficiency administers it, Grid India keeps the registry and the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission regulates trading.
The most important design feature is the target. Obligated entities must meet Greenhouse Gas Emission Intensity targets, that is, emissions per unit of output, not an absolute cap on total emissions.
Entities that outperform their targets are eligible for Carbon Credit Certificates they can trade. Because the targets are intensity-based rather than an absolute cap, linking with other systems is less straightforward, which is part of the debate over joining international carbon coalitions.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 environment and climate change, and GS2 international climate cooperation (carbon market coalitions). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** compliance carbon market, emission intensity target, absolute cap, market linking, carbon credit certificate. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Swapping the BEE and CERC roles; BEE administers, CERC regulates trading, Grid India keeps the registry. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** India’s CCTS uses emissions per unit of output (GEI targets), not an absolute cap. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India move from intensity targets to an absolute cap as its carbon market matures? |
Question 7 of 11
1 It grew out of a declaration adopted at COP30 in Belem.
2 Membership is open to countries operating nationwide compliance carbon markets, including both emissions trading systems and carbon taxes.
3 Its work plan describes it as a voluntary platform for mutual learning rather than a body that imposes legally binding requirements on members.
4 Brazil chairs the coalition, with China and the European Commission as co-chairs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The coalition grew out of a declaration adopted on 7 November 2025 at COP30 in Belem, and was formally launched by the European Union, China and Brazil at Florence on 7 May 2026.
Statement 2Correct
‘membership is open to countries operating nationwide compliance carbon markets’, including emissions trading systems (ETSs) and carbon taxes, while subnational authorities and other organisations may take part as observers.
Statement 3Correct
As reported by Carbon Herald, the work plan describes the group as a voluntary platform, with its work meant to support mutual learning rather than impose legally binding requirements on members.
Statement 4Correct
Brazil chairs it for its first two years, with China and the European Commission as co-chairs.
Analysis
India runs its own Carbon Credit Trading Scheme but has not joined. Chaturvedi and Wolfram make the case in The Hindu for India joining; the counter-view is that a member could face pressure to align its rules before its own market matures.
Concept note
The Open Coalition on Compliance Carbon Markets is a new grouping of governments that price carbon through law. It grew out of a declaration adopted at COP30 in Belem on 7 November 2025 and was formally launched by the European Union, China and Brazil at Florence on 7 May 2026.
Membership is open to countries running nationwide compliance carbon markets, and both emissions trading systems and carbon taxes qualify; subnational authorities with carbon pricing schemes and other organisations can join only as observers. Brazil chairs it for its first two years, with China and the European Commission as co-chairs.
Its work is technical: strengthening monitoring, reporting and verification (MRV) systems, improving carbon accounting methods and exploring the use of high-integrity credits. It is described as a voluntary platform for mutual learning, not a body that binds its members.
India has its own compliance market, the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme, but has not joined. For Prelims, remember that it sets no legally binding requirements.
For Mains, weigh a seat at the table, where India could help write carbon-market rules, against the risk of pressure to align its rules before its own market matures.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 international groupings and India’s climate diplomacy; GS3 carbon pricing and the CCTS. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** compliance carbon markets, MRV, carbon accounting, high-integrity credits, rule-taker versus rule-shaper. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the coalition as a binding treaty body; it is a voluntary platform for mutual learning. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Chair Brazil; co-chairs China and the European Commission; open to ETSs and carbon taxes; India has not joined. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India join a carbon market coalition when the European Union, which also runs the CBAM, is a leading member? |
Question 8 of 11
1 India and ASEAN established a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership through a joint statement at Phnom Penh in 2022.
2 The AOIP is India’s Indo-Pacific initiative, while the IPOI is ASEAN’s outlook on the region.
3 The Comprehensive Strategic Partnership calls for cooperation between the AOIP and the IPOI, with a focus on maritime cooperation.
4 ASEAN has ten member states.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Comprehensive Strategic Partnership was established by the ASEAN-India joint statement at Phnom Penh on 12 November 2022, marking 30 years of dialogue relations.
Statement 2Incorrect
The names are reversed; the AOIP is the ASEAN Outlook on the Indo-Pacific, and the IPOI is India’s Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative.
Statement 3Correct
The 2022 partnership asks for AOIP-IPOI cooperation with a focus on maritime cooperation.
Statement 4Incorrect
The forum brings together representatives of all 11 ASEAN Member States and India.
Analysis
Writing in The Indian Express, Gurjit Singh discusses the first ASEAN-India Defence Think Tank Forum, proposed as a Track-1.5/2.0 platform and announced by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh at Kuala Lumpur on 31 October 2025, on the sidelines of the 12th ADMM-Plus.
Concept note
India’s ties with ASEAN rest on a few framework documents that Prelims tests by name. The Comprehensive Strategic Partnership was established by the ASEAN-India joint statement at Phnom Penh on 12 November 2022, marking 30 years of dialogue relations.
The two regional visions are easy to swap. The AOIP is the ASEAN Outlook on the Indo-Pacific; the IPOI is India’s Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative.
India presents its approach as complementing ASEAN’s, not competing with it, and the 2022 partnership asks for AOIP-IPOI cooperation with a focus on maritime cooperation. Defence ties now have a research track as well.
The first ASEAN-India Defence Think Tank Forum, which brings together representatives of all 11 ASEAN Member States and India, is proposed as a Track-1.5/2.0 platform connecting strategic research communities with defence policymakers and practitioners. Gurjit Singh suggests that India engage NADI, the Network of ASEAN Defence and Security Institutions, offer fellowships and exchanges, and let the IPOI complement the AOIP.
For Mains, link these to India’s Act East Policy.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 regional groupings and India’s Act East Policy; GS3 maritime security in the Indo-Pacific. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Act East Policy, Comprehensive Strategic Partnership, AOIP-IPOI convergence, Track-1.5 diplomacy, defence cooperation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Swapping AOIP and IPOI; the AOIP is ASEAN’s outlook, the IPOI is India’s initiative. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Comprehensive Strategic Partnership: Phnom Penh, 2022, 30 years of dialogue relations. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can think-tank dialogue build trust in defence ties where formal alliances are not on the table? |
Question 9 of 11
Statement-I: Chapter VII of the Charter of the United Nations deals with action with respect to threats to the peace, breaches of the peace and acts of aggression.
Statement-II: Under Article 39 of the Charter, the General Assembly determines the existence of any threat to the peace, breach of the peace or act of aggression.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Chapter VII of the UN Charter is titled ‘Action with Respect to Threats to the Peace, Breaches of the Peace, and Acts of Aggression’.
Statement IIIncorrect
Article 39, the first article of Chapter VII, says ‘The Security Council shall determine the existence of any threat to the peace, breach of the peace, or act of aggression’. The power lies with the Security Council, not the General Assembly.
Analysis
The fifth edition of the India-Australia joint military exercise AUSTRAHIND began at Thiruvananthapuram with the theme ‘Joint Sub-Conventional Operations in Island and Coastal Environment under Chapter VII of the UN Mandate’, and an observer delegation from New Zealand is taking part for the first time.
Concept note
Joint exercises often carry a theme that cites the UN Charter, and the reference is a reliable Prelims hook. Chapter VII of the Charter of the United Nations is titled ‘Action with Respect to Threats to the Peace, Breaches of the Peace, and Acts of Aggression’.
Its first article, Article 39, places the key judgement with the Security Council: it is the Security Council that determines the existence of any threat to the peace, breach of the peace or act of aggression. That is why Chapter VII action is associated with the Security Council rather than the General Assembly.
AUSTRAHIND, the India-Australia joint military exercise, trains for sub-conventional operations in island and coastal environments under such a UN mandate. Its fifth edition is being held at the Foreign Training Node, Thiruvananthapuram, with troops from the Garhwal Rifles and Australia’s 13 Brigade, and New Zealand has sent an observer delegation for the first time.
The fourth edition was held at Irwin Barracks, Perth. For Mains, connect such exercises to defence cooperation with Indo-Pacific partners in coastal and island security.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 security and defence cooperation (joint exercises) and GS2 international institutions (UN Security Council). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Chapter VII mandate, Security Council primacy, sub-conventional operations, island and coastal security, defence diplomacy. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assigning the Article 39 determination to the General Assembly; the Charter gives it to the Security Council. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Chapter VII begins at Article 39; the Security Council decides whether a threat to the peace exists. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why do India’s exercises with Indo-Pacific partners frame their training around a UN mandate? |
Question 10 of 11
1 The Governor is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
2 The same person may be appointed Governor for two or more States.
3 The Governor makes the oath in the presence of the Chief Justice of the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to the State, or, in his absence, the senior most Judge of that Court available.
4 A Governor whose five-year term has ended continues to hold office until the successor enters upon office.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 155 says ‘The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.’
Statement 2Correct
The proviso to Article 153 allows the same person to be appointed Governor for two or more States.
Statement 3Correct
Under Article 159 the oath is made ‘in the presence of the Chief Justice of the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to the State, or, in his absence, the senior most Judge of that Court available’.
Statement 4Correct
Article 156(3) gives a term of five years from the date of entering office, and its proviso keeps the Governor in office ‘until his successor enters upon his office’.
Analysis
Dr Dhal Singh Bisen was sworn in as Governor of Uttarakhand at Lok Bhavan, Dehradun, where Chief Secretary Anand Bardhan read out the warrant of appointment issued by the President.
Concept note
The Governor’s appointment and tenure are a regular Prelims theme. Article 155 makes the appointment the President’s, by warrant under his hand and seal, and that warrant is read out at the swearing-in.
Article 153 provides a Governor for each State, and its proviso allows one person to be appointed Governor of two or more States. Article 159 sets the oath: it is made before the Chief Justice of the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to the State, or in his absence the senior most Judge of that Court available, not before the President or the Chief Justice of India.
Article 156 is the tenure provision. Clause (1) says the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.
Clause (3) gives a five-year term from the date of entering office, but its proviso keeps the Governor in office until the successor enters upon office, so there is no vacancy in between. In Mains, the pleasure doctrine links to the debate on the Governor’s independence from the Union.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 Centre-State relations (the Governor as the link between the Union and the State) and constitutional offices. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** pleasure of the President, warrant of appointment, continuity of office, one Governor for two or more States, constitutional head. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the Governor’s oath before the President or the Chief Justice of India; it is before the Chief Justice of the High Court. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 155 appointment, Article 156 tenure, Article 159 oath, proviso to Article 153 for two or more States. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does tenure during the pleasure of the President weaken the Governor’s role as an impartial constitutional head? |
Question 11 of 11
1 In an off-stream closed-loop pumped storage scheme, neither reservoir is located on a river, perennial stream or perennial nallah.
2 India has the largest installed pumped storage capacity in the world.
3 The Central Electricity Authority’s projection of storage capacity for 2031-32 has more battery energy storage than pumped storage.
4 Off-stream closed-loop pumped storage schemes need the concurrence of the Central Electricity Authority whatever their capital expenditure.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
‘Neither reservoir in an off-stream closed-loop pumped storage scheme is located on a river, perennial stream or perennial nallah.’
Statement 2Incorrect
India ranks fourth, with 7.18 GW at the end of 2025, after China (nearly 66 GW), Japan (about 22 GW) and the USA (about 19 GW).
Statement 3Correct
The CEA projects 73.93 GW of storage by 2031-32, of which 26.69 GW is from pumped storage projects and 47.24 GW from Battery Energy Storage Systems.
Statement 4Incorrect
The capital expenditure limit above which hydro schemes need CEA concurrence was revised to Rs 3,000 crore, and off-stream closed-loop schemes are exempt whatever their cost.
Analysis
A PIB backgrounder calls pumped storage a ‘water battery’: a project pumps water to an upper reservoir when there is surplus electricity and releases it through turbines when demand rises, giving the long-duration storage a grid built on solar and wind needs.
Concept note
A Pumped Storage Project pumps water to an upper reservoir when there is surplus electricity and releases it through turbines when demand rises, which is why a PIB backgrounder calls it a ‘water battery’. There are three types: on-stream, where both reservoirs are on a river, stream or nallah; off-stream open-loop; and off-stream closed-loop, where neither reservoir is on a river, perennial stream or perennial nallah.
Policy favours the closed-loop design with lighter approval: the capital expenditure limit above which hydro schemes need Central Electricity Authority concurrence was revised to Rs 3,000 crore, and off-stream closed-loop schemes are exempt whatever their cost. India ranks fourth in installed pumped storage capacity, with 7.18 GW at the end of 2025, behind China, Japan and the USA.
Its identified potential is far larger, at 345.38 GW. Keep the two storage routes apart: the CEA projects 73.93 GW of storage capacity by 2031-32, with 26.69 GW from pumped storage and 47.24 GW from battery storage.
A grid built on variable solar and wind power needs both.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 energy and infrastructure, and GS1 physical geography (the CEA links the western region’s large potential to the steep gradients of rivers rising in the Western Ghats). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** long-duration storage, grid flexibility, closed-loop design, battery energy storage, renewable integration. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Ranking India first in pumped storage; it is fourth, and China leads. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Closed-loop means neither reservoir is on a river, perennial stream or perennial nallah. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India favour pumped storage or batteries for storing renewable power, given land, water and cost? |
Performance
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