UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 12 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
9 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 9
1 The Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights.
2 The decision of the Sub-Divisional Level Committee on the record of forest rights is final and binding.
3 Under the Rules, the Forest Rights Committee elected by the Gram Sabha has not less than ten and not more than fifteen members, and not less than one-third of its members shall be women.
4 A forest right conferred under the Act is heritable but not alienable or transferable.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Act says ‘The Gram Sabha shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both’.
Statement 2Incorrect
The Sub-Divisional Level Committee examines the Gram Sabha’s resolution, prepares the record of forest rights and forwards it to the District Level Committee ‘for a final decision’; it is the decision of the District Level Committee that is ‘final and binding’.
Statement 3Correct
Rule 3(1) provides for a Forest Rights Committee of not less than ten but not exceeding fifteen persons, and not less than one-third of such members shall be women.
Statement 4Correct
A right conferred under the Act ‘shall be heritable but not alienable or transferable’.
Analysis
The Second Regional Review Conference in Kolkata named timely disposal of pending claims and review of rejected claims in accordance with the Act and Rules among its key priorities; knowing which committee decides at each step is what makes a rejection open to review.
Concept note
The Forest Rights Act sets out a ladder for every claim. The Gram Sabha receives claims, consolidates and verifies them and prepares a map delineating the area of each recommended claim.
A person aggrieved by its resolution may petition the Sub-Divisional Level Committee within sixty days. That committee examines the resolution, prepares the record of forest rights and forwards it to the District Level Committee for a final decision; an appeal against the Sub-Divisional Level Committee also lies to the District Level Committee within sixty days.
The District Level Committee finally approves the record, and its decision is final and binding. The State Level Monitoring Committee only monitors the process and reports to the nodal agency.
Rule 12A(10) adds that every modification or rejection must give detailed reasons, and that no rejection of claims shall be merely on any technical or procedural grounds. At the review conference in Kolkata on 9 October 2026, the keynote gave the national position as on 31 August 2026: over 54 lakh claims received, about 25 lakh titles distributed, about 11 lakh claims pending and over 18 lakh rejected.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (rights of vulnerable sections, local self-government, implementation of laws); GS3 (forest conservation); GS1 (tribal society). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Gram Sabha primacy, due process, reasoned decisions, community forest resource rights, pendency and rejection. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the Sub-Divisional Level Committee as the final authority; it prepares the record, the District Level Committee decides, and the State Level Monitoring Committee only monitors. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Gram Sabha initiates; SDLC examines and prepares the record; DLC finally approves (final and binding); SLMC monitors. Each petition: within sixty days. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How can States clear lakhs of pending forest rights claims quickly without weakening the authority of the Gram Sabha? |
Question 2 of 9
1 It is being conducted in two phases, House Listing and Housing Census followed by Population Enumeration.
2 Its reference date for most of the country is 00:00 hours of 1 March 2027, with an earlier reference date for Ladakh and certain snow-bound non-synchronous areas.
3 Enumeration of castes is to be done during the House Listing and Housing Census phase.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Phase I is House Listing and Housing Census (HLO) and Phase II is Population Enumeration (PE).
Statement 2Correct
The reference date is 00:00 hours of 1 March 2027; for the UT of Ladakh and the snow-bound non-synchronous areas of the UT of Jammu and Kashmir and the States of Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh it is 00:00 hours of 1 October 2026.
Statement 3Incorrect
‘As decided by CCPA, enumeration of Castes will also be done during second phase of Census’, that is, during Population Enumeration.
Analysis
Mizoram has decided to enumerate refugees living temporarily in the State as part of Census 2027, with their details on a list separate from that of Indian citizens; the decision followed a State-level meeting in Aizawl to review preparations for the second phase.
Concept note
Census 2027 has two phases. Phase I, the House Listing and Housing Census (HLO), was scheduled during six months from April to September 2026, in a period of 30 days chosen by each State or UT, with an option of self-enumeration for 15 days just before it; it collects information on the condition of houses, household amenities and assets.
Phase II, Population Enumeration, will be conducted during February 2027; in Ladakh and the snow-bound non-synchronous areas of Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh it was scheduled for September 2026. Phase II collects demographic, socio-economic, education, migration and fertility details from each individual, and, as decided by the CCPA, castes.
The Government’s intent to conduct the Census was notified in the Gazette of India on 16 June 2025. In Mizoram, the State Home Minister told the Assembly that 38,213 refugees had been registered as of 20 August: 29,575 from Myanmar, 6,959 from Manipur and 1,679 from Bangladesh.
The State will now record them on a list separate from that of Indian citizens, The Hindu reported.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (population, migration); GS2 (governance, data for policy); GS3 (internal security, border management). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** reference date, house listing, population enumeration, caste enumeration, refugee data. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing caste enumeration in the house listing phase; it is part of the second phase, Population Enumeration. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Two phases: HLO (houses, amenities, assets) and PE (individuals). Reference date 00:00 hours of 1 March 2027; 1 October 2026 for Ladakh and snow-bound non-synchronous areas. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should people who are not citizens be counted in the Census, and how should that data be kept apart from citizenship records? |
Question 3 of 9
1 It was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, which was amended in 2019.
2 The Paris Principles were adopted by the United Nations General Assembly at a session held in Paris in October 1991.
3 Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, 'human rights' means only the rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The NHRC’s statute is the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993, as amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019.
Statement 2Incorrect
The Paris Principles were adopted at the first International workshop on National Institutions for the Promotion and Protection of Human Rights, held in Paris in October 1991, and were later endorsed by the General Assembly, in the NHRC’s words ‘by its Regulations 48/134 of 20 December, 1993’.
Statement 3Incorrect
Section 2(1)(d) covers the rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual ‘guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the International Covenants and enforceable by courts in India’.
Analysis
The trap is to merge two events two years apart: adoption at a workshop in Paris in 1991 and endorsement by the General Assembly in 1993.
Concept note
The National Human Rights Commission of India was established on 12 October 1993, so its foundation day falls on this edition’s date. Its statute is the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, as amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019.
Section 2(1)(d) of the Act defines human rights as the rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the International Covenants and enforceable by courts in India. So a right is covered either because the Constitution guarantees it, or because an International Covenant embodies it and courts in India can enforce it.
The Commission describes itself as in conformity with the Paris Principles. Those principles were adopted at the first International workshop on National Institutions for the Promotion and Protection of Human Rights, held in Paris in October 1991, and endorsed by the General Assembly of the United Nations on 20 December 1993 (48/134).
For Prelims, keep the order straight: a workshop in Paris first, the General Assembly’s endorsement two years later, and the NHRC itself was set up in between, on 12 October 1993.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (statutory bodies, rights issues); GS4 (human dignity, accountability). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Paris Principles, independence of national human rights institutions, statutory body, International Covenants. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading the definition of human rights in the 1993 Act as limited to constitutional rights; it also covers rights embodied in the International Covenants and enforceable by courts in India. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NHRC: statutory, not constitutional; PHRA 1993, amended 2019; Paris Principles adopted at a workshop in Paris (October 1991), endorsed by the UN General Assembly (20 December 1993). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What makes a national human rights institution credible to the people it is meant to protect? |
Question 4 of 9
1 TRISHNA stands for Thermal Infra-Red Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural Resource Assessment.
2 It is a collaborative mission of ISRO and the French space agency CNES.
3 It is the third satellite that India and France are developing together, after Megha-Tropiques and SARAL.
4 SARAL stands for Satellite with ARGOS and ALTIKA.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
TRISHNA expands to Thermal Infra-Red Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural Resource Assessment.
Statement 2Correct
The mission is a collaborative endeavour between ISRO and the French space agency CNES.
Statement 3Correct
An ISRO official said it is the third satellite India and France are developing, after Megha-Tropiques and SARAL.
Statement 4Correct
SARAL is the Satellite with ARGOS and ALTIKA.
Analysis
TRISHNA will be launched in the next 12 to 16 months, an official of ISRO’s U.R. Rao Satellite Centre said, so it is a mission in development, not one in orbit.
Concept note
TRISHNA, the Thermal Infra-Red Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural Resource Assessment, is an Indo-French satellite being developed by ISRO and the French space agency CNES. Jasvinder Singh Khoral, Director (Projects) at ISRO’s U.R. Rao Satellite Centre (URSC), said at the TRISHNA Water for Tomorrow workshop that it will be launched in the next 12 to 16 months.
He said the project had been around for a decade or so in its conceptualisation and formalisation and had now come to the realisation stage. It is the third satellite India and France are developing together, after Megha-Tropiques and SARAL, the Satellite with ARGOS and ALTIKA.
For Prelims, keep the three in order and read each expansion closely: TRISHNA’s own name tells you its job, imaging in the thermal infra-red at high resolution for natural resource assessment. Because it has not yet been launched, any statement that calls TRISHNA operational, or in orbit, is false.
Questions on joint satellites usually test the partner agency, the expansion and the sequence, so learn all three together.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (space technology, remote sensing, water resources); GS2 (India-France relations). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** thermal infra-red imaging, natural resource assessment, space partnership, Earth observation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling TRISHNA operational; it is due for launch in the next 12 to 16 months. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** India-France satellites in order: Megha-Tropiques, SARAL (Satellite with ARGOS and ALTIKA), TRISHNA. Partner agency: CNES. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What does India gain from building Earth observation satellites with a partner rather than alone? |
Question 5 of 9
1 Its formulation is spearheaded by the Department of Fisheries, with the Bay of Bengal Programme Inter-Governmental Organisation (BOBP-IGO) facilitating and coordinating the consultation process.
2 It is being developed in line with the FAO Voluntary Guidelines for Securing Sustainable Small-Scale Fisheries and India’s National Policy on Marine Fisheries, 2017.
3 It has already been notified by the Department of Fisheries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The initiative is spearheaded by the Department of Fisheries, Government of India, and BOBP-IGO is facilitating and coordinating the consultation process.
Statement 2Correct
The plan is being developed in line with the Voluntary Guidelines for Securing Sustainable Small-Scale Fisheries of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations and India’s National Policy on Marine Fisheries, 2017.
Statement 3Incorrect
The draft NPOA-SSF is only targeted for release on World Fisheries Day, 21 November 2026, followed by public review, finalisation and official notification in 2027.
Analysis
A stakeholder consultation at ICAR-CIFT, Kochi, sought the views, concerns and priorities of fishing communities for the plan.
Concept note
India is drafting a National Plan of Action for Securing Sustainable Small-Scale Fisheries (NPOA-SSF) through consultations with fishing communities. One was held at the ICAR-Central Institute of Fisheries Technology (ICAR-CIFT), Kochi, on 10 October 2026, to bring the views, concerns and priorities of fishing communities into the plan.
The process is spearheaded by the Department of Fisheries, and the Bay of Bengal Programme Inter-Governmental Organisation (BOBP-IGO) is facilitating and coordinating it. The plan follows the FAO Voluntary Guidelines for Securing Sustainable Small-Scale Fisheries and India’s National Policy on Marine Fisheries, 2017.
According to the Department of Fisheries, the livelihoods of approximately 30 million people in India are linked to fisheries and allied activities, which also make a significant contribution to the country’s food and nutritional security. The timeline is a plan, not an outcome: the draft is targeted for release on World Fisheries Day, 21 November 2026, followed by public review, finalisation and official notification in 2027.
A statement that calls the plan notified, or in force, is testing exactly that difference.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (fisheries, food security, livelihoods); GS2 (participatory policymaking, regional organisations). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** small-scale fisheries, participatory planning, livelihood security, blue economy, community consultation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating a draft plan targeted for release as a notified policy; notification is planned for 2027. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NPOA-SSF: Department of Fisheries leads; BOBP-IGO facilitates; basis = FAO Voluntary Guidelines on small-scale fisheries + National Policy on Marine Fisheries, 2017. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How can a national plan protect small-scale fishers without shutting them out of a growing blue economy? |
Question 6 of 9
1 It is established by the Central Government by notification under the Act.
2 It consists of a Chairperson and such number of other Members as the Central Government may notify, and at least one among them shall be an expert in the field of law.
3 Its Chairperson and Members hold office for a term of five years and are not eligible for re-appointment.
4 The Act requires it to function as an independent body.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 18 provides that, with effect from such date as the Central Government may by notification appoint, there shall be established a Board to be called the Data Protection Board of India; G.S.R. 844(E) of 13 November 2025 established it.
Statement 2Correct
Section 19 says the Board shall consist of a Chairperson and such number of other Members as the Central Government may notify, and section 19(3) says at least one among them shall be an expert in the field of law.
Statement 3Incorrect
Section 20(2) gives a term of two years, and the holder is eligible for re-appointment.
Statement 4Correct
Section 28(1) says the Board shall function as an independent body.
Analysis
The Kerala High Court has said it expects the Board to be made functional within eight weeks, after the Union’s counsel submitted that it ‘has been constituted but has not made functional’.
Concept note
The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 (No. 22 of 2023) received assent on 11 August 2023. Section 18 provides for a Data Protection Board of India, established from a date the Central Government notifies; G.S.R. 844(E) of 13 November 2025 established it, with its head office in the National Capital Region.
The Board consists of a Chairperson and such other Members as the Government may notify, at least one of them an expert in the field of law; they hold office for two years and are eligible for re-appointment; and the Board must function as an independent body. Appeals against its orders lie to the Appellate Tribunal.
In a public interest litigation on passenger data collected at airports through systems such as Digi Yatra, the Kerala High Court found that ‘the privacy of citizens is being compromised’. The Union’s counsel told the Bench the Board ‘has been constituted but has not made functional’.
As LiveLaw reported on 10 October 2026, the court said: ‘we expect that the Board will be made functional within a period of eight weeks from date.’ Establishing a body on paper is not the same as making it work.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (statutory bodies, judiciary, right to privacy); GS3 (cyber security, digital public infrastructure). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** data fiduciary accountability, independent regulator, grievance redress, institutional capacity, privacy by design. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming a body set up by notification is already working; the Union itself told the court the Board was constituted but not made functional. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** DPDP Act 2023: Board under section 18; composition section 19 (one law expert); two-year term with re-appointment (section 20(2)); independent body (section 28(1)); appeal to the Appellate Tribunal. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What should a citizen be able to expect from a data protection regulator in its first year? |
Question 7 of 9
Statement-I: When any other Election Commissioner is appointed, the Chief Election Commissioner acts as the Chairman of the Election Commission.
Statement-II: Article 324 of the Constitution fixes the number of Election Commissioners at three.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Article 324(3) says ‘When any other Election Commissioner is so appointed the Chief Election Commissioner shall act as the Chairman of the Election Commission.’
Statement IIIncorrect
Article 324(2) says the Commission ‘shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix’; the Constitution sets no number.
Analysis
Questions on the Election Commission often test what the Constitution fixes and what it leaves to the President or to Parliament; the number of Election Commissioners is left to the President.
Concept note
Article 324(1) vests the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, elections to Parliament, the State Legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President in the Election Commission. Clause (2) says the Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix, so the Constitution does not fix the size of the Commission.
Clause (3) makes the Chief Election Commissioner the Chairman when other Election Commissioners are appointed. Clause (5) protects tenure: the Chief Election Commissioner can be removed only in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court, and any other Election Commissioner only on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
The Article does not mention Deputy Election Commissioners. Prakash Rajpurohit, a 2010-batch IAS officer of the Rajasthan cadre, has been appointed Deputy Election Commissioner for a tenure up to 8 April 2030, cleared by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, The Hindu reported.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (constitutional bodies, elections, separation of powers). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** independence of the Election Commission, security of tenure, multi-member Commission, free and fair elections. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the Constitution fixes a three-member Commission; Article 324(2) leaves the number of other Election Commissioners to the President. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 324: (1) superintendence, direction and control; (2) CEC plus such number of ECs as the President fixes; (3) CEC acts as Chairman; (5) CEC removable like a Supreme Court Judge, other ECs only on the CEC’s recommendation. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the size of the Election Commission be fixed in the Constitution rather than left to the executive? |
Question 8 of 9
Statement-I: In the National Biodiversity Authority’s distribution of access and benefit-sharing contributions from seed companies, the beneficiary share was apportioned among State Biodiversity Boards and Union Territory Biodiversity Councils based on the cultivation area of the biological resources concerned.
Statement-II: Where biological resources are procured through markets or traders and individual benefit claimers cannot be identified, the National Biodiversity Authority applies distribution modalities, recommended by an expert committee and approved by the Authority, that apportion the beneficiary share by the cultivation area of the resources.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Of the Rs 2.02 crore disbursed to 27 State Biodiversity Boards and 3 Union Territory Biodiversity Councils, the beneficiary share was apportioned based on the cultivation area of the respective biological resources, as reflected in the agricultural statistics published by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
Where biological resources were procured through markets or traders and individual benefit claimers could not be identified, the NBA applied the distribution modalities recommended by an expert committee and approved by the Authority, and accordingly apportioned the share by cultivation area.
Analysis
When the growers of a resource cannot be traced, the area under its cultivation in each State becomes the basis for sharing the benefit.
Concept note
Target 13 of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework is about the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilisation of genetic resources and associated traditional knowledge; Target 19 is about resource mobilisation. India’s access and benefit-sharing (ABS) framework supports both and implements the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 and the National Biodiversity Strategy and Action Plan (NBSAP) 2024-2030.
The NBA’s latest release, of Rs 2.02 crore, came from the utilisation of agricultural biological resources including rice, eggplant, cauliflower, cucumber, hot pepper, bottle gourd, bitter gourd, tomato and okra, with contributions from seven seed companies. It went to 27 State Biodiversity Boards and 3 Union Territory Biodiversity Councils, and the top 10 States accounted for Rs 1.43 crore.
Such disbursements support Biodiversity Management Committees, People’s Biodiversity Registers, the conservation of traditional crop varieties and medicinal plants, and the restoration of habitats. India is preparing to participate in COP 17 of the Convention on Biological Diversity, commencing on 19 October 2026 in Yerevan, Armenia.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (biodiversity, conservation, agriculture); GS2 (statutory bodies, cooperative federalism). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** access and benefit-sharing, traditional knowledge, Biodiversity Management Committees, People’s Biodiversity Registers, resource mobilisation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming ABS money always goes to identified farmers or communities; where claimers cannot be identified, it is apportioned among State Biodiversity Boards and UT Biodiversity Councils by cultivation area. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** ABS under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002; links to KMGBF Target 13 (benefit-sharing) and Target 19 (resource mobilisation); this release went to 27 State Biodiversity Boards and 3 UT Biodiversity Councils. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How can benefit-sharing money reach the farming communities that kept these crop varieties alive? |
Question 9 of 9
1 KONKAN is a bilateral maritime exercise between India and the United Kingdom.
2 INDRA 2026 is a bilateral exercise between the Indian Navy and the Russian Federation Navy.
3 MAHASAGAR, a vision of the Government of India, stands for Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
KONKAN is a bilateral maritime exercise of the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy; the PIB release calls KONKAN-26 the India-UK annual bilateral maritime exercise.
Statement 2Correct
The release describes INDRA 2026 as a bilateral exercise between the Indian Navy and the Russian Federation Navy (RuFN).
Statement 3Correct
MAHASAGAR stands for Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions, and the release places the INDRA deployment in consonance with that vision.
Analysis
Exercise names recur every year; what a question can test is the partner, the format and the vision a deployment is tied to.
Concept note
Two naval deployments are in the news. INS Trishul, a guided missile stealth frigate, arrived at Plymouth for KONKAN-26 with the Royal Navy, conducted off Plymouth in two phases from 8 to 15 October 2026; the release says the exercise has grown significantly in scale and complexity over the past two decades.
INS Sahyadri arrived at Vladivostok on 10 October 2026 for INDRA 2026, scheduled from 13 to 18 October 2026. The release placed the deployment in consonance with the Government of India’s vision of MAHASAGAR (Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions) and said it would carry forward the momentum generated during the 23rd India-Russia Annual Summit held on 4 and 5 December 2025.
Separately, the Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel Shreyas was launched at GRSE, Kolkata, on 10 October 2026; NGOPVs, indigenously designed and built, are under construction at two shipyards, GSL in Goa and GRSE in Kolkata. Learn the partner and the format of each exercise, and the full form of MAHASAGAR, rather than the dates.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (India-UK and India-Russia relations); GS3 (maritime security, defence indigenisation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** interoperability, maritime partnership, MAHASAGAR, Indian Ocean security, indigenous shipbuilding. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Mixing up exercise partners; KONKAN is with the UK and INDRA 2026 is with the Russian Federation Navy. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** KONKAN = India-UK, annual, bilateral, maritime. INDRA 2026 = Indian Navy and RuFN, bilateral. MAHASAGAR = Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can India deepen naval ties with both the UK and Russia at the same time, and what does it gain from each? |
Performance
Question-wise Result