UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 11 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
9 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 9
1 Article 19(1)(b) of the Constitution of India guarantees to all citizens the right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
2 Under Article 19(3), reasonable restrictions on the right to assemble may be imposed in the interests of decency or morality.
3 An order under Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which replaced Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, must be a written order stating the material facts of the case.
4 Article 358 frees the State’s law-making and executive power from the restrictions of Article 19 while a Proclamation of Emergency declared on the ground of armed rebellion is in operation.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 19(1)(b) gives all citizens the right ‘to assemble peaceably and without arms’.
Statement 2Incorrect
Article 19(3) allows reasonable restrictions on assembly only ‘in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order’; decency or morality is a ground in Article 19(2), the speech clause.
Statement 3Correct
Section 163 BNSS requires ‘a written order stating the material facts of the case’.
Statement 4Incorrect
Article 358 operates while an Emergency declared on the ground of war or external aggression is in force, not armed rebellion.
Analysis
At its special Sunday sitting on 11 October 2026, the Supreme Court directed that no one be detained except in accordance with law beyond the area where Section 163 orders were in force in Delhi.
Concept note
The right to protest rests on two freedoms: Article 19(1)(a), speech and expression, and Article 19(1)(b), the right to assemble peaceably and without arms. Each has its own restriction clause.
Article 19(2) limits speech and lists public order, decency or morality, contempt of court and defamation among its grounds. Article 19(3) limits assembly, and only in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
Section 163 of the BNSS, which replaced Section 144 CrPC and sits in Chapter XI, lets a District Magistrate, a Sub-divisional Magistrate or a specially empowered Executive Magistrate issue a written prohibitory order stating the material facts. It may be passed ex parte in an emergency and may not last more than two months, though the State Government may extend it by notification for a further period of up to six months to prevent danger to life or a riot.
The case law points one way: Himat Lal K. Shah (1972) held that the State can only make regulations in aid of the right of assembly; Ramlila Maidan (2012) required an actual and prominent threat before preventive steps; Amit Sahni (2020) tied protest to designated places.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (fundamental rights, judiciary); GS3 (internal security, policing of public order). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** reasonable restrictions, proportionality, regulation not prohibition, designated protest sites. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Citing Article 19(2) as the limit on assembly; the assembly clause is Article 19(3), with only two grounds. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 19(3) = sovereignty and integrity of India + public order; Article 358 = war or external aggression; Section 163 BNSS = two months, State extension up to six months. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the police be able to stop a protest before it begins, and on what evidence? |
Question 2 of 9
1 The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2 The conditions of service of the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
3 A Judge of the Supreme Court may be removed by an order of the President after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a simple majority of the members present and voting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
It is the first part of the proviso to Article 324(5).
Statement 2Correct
The same proviso says the CEC’s conditions of service ‘shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment’.
Statement 3Incorrect
Article 124(4) needs an address supported by a majority of the total membership of each House and by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, on the ground of ‘proved misbehaviour or incapacity’.
Analysis
Protesters in Delhi demand the CEC’s resignation, but removal follows the judges’ route, which needs a special majority in both Houses.
Concept note
Article 324(5) leaves the conditions of service and tenure of the Election Commissioners and the Regional Commissioners to rules made by the President, subject to any law made by Parliament. Its proviso gives the Chief Election Commissioner two protections.
First, the CEC shall not be removed from office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Second, the CEC’s conditions of service shall not be varied to his disadvantage after appointment.
The judges’ route is in Article 124(4): an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament, supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, presented in the same session, on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Together, the two protections make the CEC’s tenure as secure as a Supreme Court judge’s. In the Delhi protests of October 2026, protesters demanded the CEC’s resignation over the deletion of names from electoral rolls, as The Hindu reports.
The Supreme Court’s Sunday sitting dealt with detentions, movement and the internet, not with that demand.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (constitutional bodies, Election Commission, Parliament, judiciary). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** security of tenure, independence of constitutional bodies, special majority, institutional credibility. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming a simple majority, or the President acting alone, can remove the CEC; the route is the Article 124(4) special majority in both Houses. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 324(5) proviso = removal like a Supreme Court judge + no variation of service conditions to the CEC’s disadvantage; Article 124(4) = proved misbehaviour or incapacity. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is security of tenure enough to secure the independence of the Election Commission? |
Question 3 of 9
1 The President may act under it only on a report from the Governor of the State.
2 A Proclamation under it ceases to operate at the expiration of two months unless approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament before that period ends.
3 No such Proclamation can in any case remain in force for more than three years.
4 In S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that a Proclamation under Article 356(1) is not immune from judicial review.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
The President may act on a report from the Governor ‘or otherwise’.
Statement 2Correct
A Proclamation ceases to operate at the expiration of two months unless both Houses approve it by resolution before then.
Statement 3Correct
Article 356(4) says no such Proclamation shall in any case remain in force for more than three years.
Statement 4Correct
Bommai (11 March 1994) held that a Court can strike down a Proclamation found to be mala fide or based on wholly irrelevant or extraneous grounds.
Analysis
Pakistan’s Governor’s rule in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, under its own Article 234, invites the comparison; Pakistan’s outer limit is six months.
Concept note
Article 356 lets the President, on a report from the Governor of a State or otherwise, assume the functions of the State government when satisfied that the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. The Proclamation ceases to operate after two months unless both Houses of Parliament approve it, and continued approval extends it in steps of six months, but no Proclamation may remain in force for more than three years in any case, subject to further conditions in the Article.
S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (11 March 1994) is the landmark: Justice Jeevan Reddy’s summary of conclusions records that a Proclamation under Article 356(1) ‘is not immune from judicial review’ and calls the power ‘a conditioned power’. Pakistan’s parallel is Article 234, called Governor’s rule, not President’s rule.
There, the Governor’s report is named, a joint sitting of Parliament approves the Proclamation, it lapses after two months unless approved, and its outer limit is six months, extended up to two months at a time. On 11 October 2026, Pakistan’s President approved emergency and Governor’s rule in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, under its Articles 232 and 234, Dawn reported.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (federalism, emergency provisions, judicial review, comparison of constitutions). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** cooperative federalism, misuse of Article 356, conditioned power, judicial review of satisfaction. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the Governor’s report as the only trigger; Article 356 says 'or otherwise'. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 356: two months for approval, six-month extensions, three-year cap; Bommai (1994): Proclamation open to judicial review. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Has Bommai ended the misuse of Article 356, or only made it harder? |
Question 4 of 9
1 It measures the average change in the relative abundance of monitored vertebrate populations.
2 In the index, a population that falls from 20,000 to 10,000 individuals and one that falls from 200 to 100 count as the same 50% decline.
3 A 73% fall in the index means that 73% of the monitored species are declining.
4 Its regional indices cover terrestrial, freshwater and marine populations.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The LPI ‘measures changes in relative abundance, not the total number of animals’.
Statement 2Correct
The report’s own example says both populations ‘have both experienced a 50% reduction’.
Statement 3Incorrect
Around half of the populations studied are stable or increasing; the 73% is an average of percentage changes.
Statement 4Incorrect
The regional indices cover terrestrial and freshwater populations only.
Analysis
WWF’s Living Planet Report 2026, released on 8 October 2026, puts the global fall at 73% for 1970 to 2022.
Concept note
The Living Planet Report is published by WWF, and its Living Planet Index is produced by the Zoological Society of London (ZSL). The 2026 edition, subtitled The Science of Hope, follows 35,803 populations of 5,790 vertebrate species: amphibians, birds, fishes, mammals and reptiles.
It finds a 73% average decline between 1970 and 2022, an average fall of 2.5% a year. The index tracks relative abundance, not head counts, so a fall from 20,000 to 10,000 and a fall from 200 to 100 weigh the same.
It does not mean 73% fewer animals, and it does not mean 73% of species are declining: around half the populations are stable or increasing, but the losses elsewhere are larger. By realm, freshwater fell most (85%), then terrestrial (69%) and marine (59%).
By region, Latin America and the Caribbean fell most (95%) and Europe and Central Asia least (23%); the regional indices use IPBES regions and leave out marine populations. The 2024 report also headlined 73%, but for 1970 to 2020, so the two editions cannot be read as a two-year trend.
The report gives no India-specific LPI figure.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (biodiversity, conservation, environmental indicators); GS1 (geography of biomes). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** relative abundance, biodiversity loss, freshwater crisis, nature-positive. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading the 73% as 73% fewer animals or 73% of species declining; it is an average of population changes. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** LPR = WWF; LPI = ZSL; 35,803 populations of 5,790 species; freshwater worst; regional indices exclude marine. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is a single headline index a help or a hindrance to public understanding of biodiversity loss? |
Question 5 of 9
1 It is provided by the International Atomic Energy Agency to Member States upon their request.
2 It was established in 1995.
3 It focuses on the physical protection of nuclear and other radioactive material, associated facilities and associated activities.
4 The IAEA names the A/CPPNM and UN Security Council Resolution 1540 among the international obligations that IPPAS advice helps a State meet.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The IAEA calls IPPAS an advisory service ‘provided to Member States, upon their request’.
Statement 2Correct
‘IPPAS, established in 1995’.
Statement 3Correct
That is the IAEA’s own description of its focus.
Statement 4Correct
The IAEA says its advice helps a State meet ‘international obligations, such as the A/CPPNM and the United Nations Security Council Resolution 1540’.
Analysis
A seven-member IAEA team concluded the first IPPAS mission to Pakistan on 9 October 2026, PTI reported; a mission is advisory, not a certification.
Concept note
IPPAS, the International Physical Protection Advisory Service, is the IAEA’s advisory service on nuclear security. In the IAEA’s own description it is ‘an IAEA advisory service provided to Member States, upon their request, in support of their efforts to establish and maintain effective national nuclear security regimes’.
Established in 1995, it focuses on the physical protection of nuclear and other radioactive material, associated facilities and associated activities. A mission allows for a confidential peer-to-peer exchange of experiences and good practices, and its advice helps a State meet international obligations such as the A/CPPNM, the Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material and its Amendment, and UN Security Council Resolution 1540.
Because the host State requests the mission and it works as a confidential exchange of advice, an IPPAS mission is not a certificate of a country’s nuclear security. According to PTI, the first IPPAS mission to Pakistan, a 12-day visit by a seven-member team, ended on 9 October 2026, and its site visits included the KANUPP Decommissioning Project.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international institutions, India’s neighbourhood); GS3 (security challenges, nuclear security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** nuclear security, physical protection, peer review, non-proliferation obligations. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating an IPPAS mission as an IAEA inspection or certification; it is advisory, on the host State’s request, and confidential. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** IPPAS = IAEA, 1995, physical protection; A/CPPNM = Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material and its Amendment. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India read a neighbour’s request for an IAEA nuclear security review as reassurance or as a warning sign? |
Question 6 of 9
1 It was agreed under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
2 It sets 23 targets for 2030.
3 Its Target 3 covers terrestrial, inland water, and coastal and marine areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
It was agreed ‘by almost every country through the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)’, not the UNFCCC.
Statement 2Correct
The framework has 23 targets for 2030.
Statement 3Correct
Target 3 seeks that ‘at least 30 per cent of terrestrial, inland water, and of coastal and marine areas’ are effectively conserved and managed by 2030.
Analysis
The Living Planet Report 2026 notes that the framework’s 2050 goals include increasing the abundance of native wild species, the very quantity its index tracks.
Concept note
The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF) was agreed in 2022 by almost every country through the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), not the climate convention. It sets 23 targets for 2030, and its four goals for 2050 include ‘increasing the abundance of native wild species to healthy and resilient levels’, which is the very quantity the Living Planet Index tracks.
Its best-known target is Target 3, often called 30x30: ‘Ensure and enable that by 2030 at least 30 per cent of terrestrial, inland water, and of coastal and marine areas ... are effectively conserved and managed’. The target therefore covers land, inland waters and the sea together, not only forests or protected land.
The Living Planet Report 2026 names as a key strength of the framework that, going beyond traditional conservation, it ‘calls for a whole-of-society approach’. The report itself finds a 73% average decline in monitored wildlife populations between 1970 and 2022, with the steepest fall in freshwater (85%).
For Prelims, separate the conventions: the CBD covers biodiversity, the UNFCCC climate change.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (biodiversity conservation, international environmental agreements); GS2 (global governance). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** 30x30, protected areas, nature-positive, implementation gap. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the KMGBF under the UNFCCC; it was agreed under the CBD. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** KMGBF: 2022, CBD, 23 targets for 2030; Target 3 = at least 30% of land, inland water, coastal and marine areas. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can 30x30 be met without displacing forest-dwelling and fishing communities? |
Question 7 of 9
1 The International Day of the Girl Child was declared by a resolution of the United Nations General Assembly.
2 The Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action was adopted at the World Conference on Women held in Beijing in 1995.
3 According to the United Nations, the prevalence of child marriage is highest in South Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
On 19 December 2011 the UN General Assembly adopted Resolution 66/170 declaring 11 October the International Day of the Girl Child.
Statement 2Correct
Countries unanimously adopted the Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action at the World Conference on Women in Beijing in 1995.
Statement 3Incorrect
The UN says the highest prevalence is in sub-Saharan Africa (31 per cent).
Analysis
The UN’s 2026 theme for the day is ‘End child marriage and invest in girls’ rights!’
Concept note
The International Day of the Girl Child falls on 11 October. The UN General Assembly declared it through Resolution 66/170, adopted on 19 December 2011.
The UN traces the idea to the Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action, which countries unanimously adopted at the World Conference on Women in Beijing in 1995, and calls the Beijing Declaration ‘the first to specifically call out girls’ rights’. The 2026 theme is ‘End child marriage and invest in girls’ rights!'.
The UN’s own page says that more than 12 million girls are married before reaching adulthood every year, roughly one every three seconds, with the highest prevalence in sub-Saharan Africa at 31 per cent. For Mains, the UN’s theme ties ending child marriage to investing in girls’ rights.
In GS1, it belongs with the role of women, social empowerment and population issues; in GS2, with the welfare of vulnerable sections and the mechanisms meant to protect them.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (role of women, social empowerment); GS2 (vulnerable sections, international institutions). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** child marriage, gender equality, investment in girls, girls' rights. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Crediting UNICEF or UN Women with declaring the day; it was the UN General Assembly, by Resolution 66/170. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 11 October; UNGA Resolution 66/170 (19 December 2011); Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action, 1995. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is law enough to end child marriage, or does change depend on schooling and livelihoods? |
Question 8 of 9
1 The recommendations of the State Security Commission are binding on the State Government.
2 The Director General of Police is to be selected by the State Government from the three senior-most officers empanelled by the Union Public Service Commission, with a minimum tenure of two years.
3 The Police Establishment Board decides transfers and postings of officers of and below the rank of Superintendent of Police.
4 A National Security Commission at the Union level is to prepare panels for selecting the chiefs of the Central Police Organisations.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Court directed that the recommendations of the State Security Commission ‘shall be binding on the State Government’.
Statement 2Correct
The DGP is to be selected by the State Government from the three senior-most officers empanelled by the UPSC and given a minimum tenure of at least two years.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Police Establishment Board decides transfers and postings of officers of and below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, not Superintendent of Police.
Statement 4Correct
A National Security Commission at the Union level is to prepare a panel for selecting the chiefs of the Central Police Organisations.
Analysis
The trap is the rank in Statement 3: the Board’s remit stops at Deputy Superintendent of Police.
Concept note
Prakash Singh v. Union of India (2006) is the Supreme Court judgment that set out directions on police reform. A State Security Commission is to lay down broad policies and give directions for the preventive tasks and service-oriented functions of the police, and its recommendations are binding on the State Government.
The Director General of Police is to be selected by the State Government from the three senior-most officers of the department empanelled for promotion to that rank by the UPSC, and once selected is to have a minimum tenure of at least two years irrespective of the date of superannuation. A Police Establishment Board in each State decides transfers, postings, promotions and other service-related matters of officers of and below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police; it is a departmental body of the DGP and four other senior officers.
At the Union level, a National Security Commission is to prepare a panel for selecting the chiefs of the Central Police Organisations, who should also have a minimum tenure of two years. Yashovardhan Jha Azad’s Indian Express column on the Delhi protests returns to this reform agenda, including the State Security Commission.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (governance, accountability, role of the judiciary); GS3 (internal security, police reform); GS4 (integrity and neutrality of civil services). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** operational autonomy, accountability, security of tenure, depoliticisation of police. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Pitching the Police Establishment Board at the Superintendent of Police rank; it covers Deputy Superintendent of Police and below. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Prakash Singh: SSC (binding), DGP (UPSC panel of three, two years), PEB (DySP and below), NSC for CPO chiefs. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you balance operational autonomy for the police with accountability to elected governments? |
Question 9 of 9
1 NOAA declares the onset of an El Niño episode when the three-month average sea-surface temperature departure exceeds 0.5 °C in the east-central equatorial Pacific.
2 The northeast monsoon sets in with the southward movement of the Intertropical Convergence Zone.
3 Tamil Nadu receives nearly half of its annual rainfall during the October to December season.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
NOAA’s Climate Prediction Center declares the onset of an El Niño episode when the three-month average sea-surface temperature departure exceeds 0.5 °C in the east-central equatorial Pacific.
Statement 2Correct
IMD links the northeast monsoon to the return of the north-easterly trade winds, associated with the southward movement of the Intertropical Convergence Zone.
Statement 3Correct
IMD says Tamil Nadu receives about 48% of its annual rainfall in this season.
Analysis
Because Tamil Nadu’s rain peaks in October to December, an El Niño year cannot be read for it from the southwest monsoon alone.
Concept note
El Niño is the warm phase of the El Niño/Southern Oscillation (ENSO), linked to a periodic warming of sea-surface temperatures across the central and east-central equatorial Pacific. NOAA’s Climate Prediction Center declares the onset of an El Niño episode when the three-month average sea-surface temperature departure exceeds 0.5 °C in the east-central equatorial Pacific.
In India, El Niño is read mainly as a drought signal for the southwest monsoon. Tamil Nadu’s calendar is different.
IMD describes the northeast monsoon of October to December as ushered in by the return of the north-easterly trade winds over South Asia, associated with the southward movement of the Intertropical Convergence Zone. The South Peninsula receives about 30% of its annual rainfall in this season, and Tamil Nadu about 48%.
R. Venkatesan’s column in The Hindu examines why Tamil Nadu may feel El Niño differently from the rest of India, and our explainer reads it alongside IMD’s 2026 northeast monsoon outlook. For Prelims, keep the two monsoons, their months and the regions they serve apart.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (Indian monsoon, climatology); GS3 (disaster management, agriculture and water security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** ENSO, teleconnection, northeast monsoon, regional variability. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming El Niño means a dry year everywhere in India; Tamil Nadu’s main rains come with the northeast monsoon. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NE monsoon: October to December; Tamil Nadu gets about 48% of its annual rain in it; ITCZ moves south. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should a State that depends on the northeast monsoon plan its water use in an El Niño year? |
Performance
Question-wise Result