UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 7 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
18 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 18
1 It will undertake the financial appraisal of Government of India transport projects costing Rs 500 crore or more.
2 Its National Transport Data Repository will draw on GSTN e-way bills, FASTag and Vahan data.
3 It will prepare a National Transport Master Plan with a planning horizon of ten years or more.
4 It is being created as a statutory body through an Act of Parliament.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
ITLA will do the technical appraisal of projects of Rs 500 crore or more; financial appraisal stays with the existing mechanisms.
Statement 2Correct
The repository will pool e-way bill, FASTag, Vahan, GPS and urban traffic data.
Statement 3Correct
The master plan will look ten years or more ahead and cover all modes.
Statement 4Incorrect
The Cabinet approved ITLA as a Special Purpose Vehicle, not a body created by statute.
Analysis
ITLA is meant to end ministry-by-ministry transport planning and to complement the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan (2021) and the National Logistics Policy (2022).
Concept note
India plans roads, railways, ports, airports and urban transport through separate ministries, each with its own pipeline. GatiShakti put their plans on one GIS map, and the National Logistics Policy set targets for lower logistics costs, but neither created a permanent technical body that owns a long-term multi-modal plan and checks projects against it.
ITLA is designed to fill that gap: it will check ministries’ five-year and annual plans for consistency with the master plan, appraise large projects technically, monitor them and assess their impact after completion. Its value will depend on whether its appraisal can actually reshape projects, how its role is divided from GatiShakti’s Network Planning Group, and whether States, which control much of urban mobility and State highways, plan with it.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (infrastructure, logistics); GS2 (institutional design, inter-ministerial coordination). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** multi-modal integration, outcome-based appraisal, data-driven planning, modal shift, logistics cost. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming ITLA replaces GatiShakti; it complements it. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Technical appraisal by ITLA; financial appraisal stays with existing mechanisms; threshold Rs 500 crore. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does one more authority solve coordination, or add one more layer? |
Question 2 of 18
1 An enterprise with investment of Rs 20 crore in plant and machinery and an annual turnover of Rs 150 crore is a small enterprise.
2 The investment ceiling for a medium enterprise is Rs 125 crore.
3 An enterprise must satisfy both the investment and the turnover limits to remain in a category.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
Although the investment of Rs 20 crore is within the small limit of Rs 25 crore, the turnover of Rs 150 crore exceeds the small limit of Rs 100 crore, so the enterprise is medium.
Statement 2Correct
Medium enterprises may invest up to Rs 125 crore with turnover up to Rs 500 crore.
Statement 3Correct
Crossing either limit moves an enterprise up.
Analysis
The Cabinet has committed Rs 10,000 crore to an SME Growth Fund that will make direct equity investments in small and medium enterprises, mostly in manufacturing.
Concept note
The limits from April 2025 are: micro, investment up to Rs 2.5 crore and turnover up to Rs 10 crore; small, Rs 25 crore and Rs 100 crore; medium, Rs 125 crore and Rs 500 crore. The composite test (both investment and turnover) replaced the old investment-only criterion in 2020, and the 2025 revision raised the limits so that firms are not pushed out of a category by inflation and growth.
The SME Growth Fund targets the small and medium end because most existing support, such as credit guarantees and start-up funds of funds, reaches micro and early-stage firms. It is to operate as an Alternative Investment Fund regulated by SEBI; SME funds fall under Category I AIFs under the AIF Regulations, 2012.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (MSMEs, industrial policy, capital markets). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** missing middle, growth equity, patient capital, formalisation, global value chains. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Classifying by investment alone; turnover counts too. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 2.5/10, 25/100, 125/500 (Rs crore, investment/turnover). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why do Indian firms stay small, and is equity the cure? |
Question 3 of 18
1 Neutrinos carry no electric charge.
2 Neutrinos have a very small but non-zero mass, as shown by neutrino oscillation experiments.
3 Because neutrinos are not deflected by magnetic fields, the direction from which they arrive points back to their source.
4 The IceCube observatory detects neutrinos through the faint light produced when their collisions in Antarctic ice create charged particles.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Neutrinos are electrically neutral.
Statement 2Correct
Oscillation between neutrino types, recognised by the 2015 Nobel Prize, shows that neutrinos have mass.
Statement 3Correct
Unlike charged cosmic rays, neutrinos travel in straight lines and are not bent by magnetic fields.
Statement 4Correct
IceCube uses 5,160 sensors to catch the Cherenkov light from charged particles made in rare neutrino collisions.
Analysis
Francis Halzen won the 2026 Nobel Prize in Physics for decisive contributions to IceCube and the discovery of high-energy neutrinos of astrophysical origin.
Concept note
Astronomers have three kinds of messenger from deep space besides neutrinos. Light can be absorbed by dust and gas.
Charged cosmic rays are bent by magnetic fields and so do not point home. Gravitational waves come only from violent mass movements such as merging black holes.
Neutrinos interact so weakly that they escape dense regions and cross the universe in straight lines, but that same weakness makes them very hard to catch: IceCube instruments a cubic kilometre of ice between 1,450 and 2,450 metres deep at the South Pole and still sees cosmic neutrinos only rarely. It found the first evidence of high-energy neutrinos from beyond the solar system in 2013.
India recorded atmospheric neutrinos at Kolar Gold Fields in 1965, and the India-based Neutrino Observatory planned in Theni, Tamil Nadu, remains stalled.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (science and technology, space and particle physics). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** multi-messenger astronomy, basic research, big-science collaboration. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling neutrinos massless; their mass is tiny but not zero. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Neutrino Nobels: 1988 (Lederman, Schwartz, Steinberger), 1995 (Reines), 2002 (Davis, Koshiba), 2015 (Kajita, McDonald), 2026 (Halzen). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why should India revive its neutrino observatory? |
Question 4 of 18
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Cherenkov light is the electromagnetic equivalent of a sonic boom, produced when a charged particle outruns light in a medium.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
Light slows down in water or ice (to about three-quarters of its vacuum speed), so a particle can outrun it there without breaking the cosmic speed limit.
Analysis
IceCube, the observatory behind the 2026 Physics Nobel, detects this faint blue light in clear ice deep below the South Pole.
Concept note
The refractive index of a medium tells how much light slows in it; for water and ice it is about 1.3. A charged particle moving faster than c divided by that index emits a cone of light, much as a supersonic aircraft trails a shock wave.
The cone’s angle reveals the particle’s direction, which is why Cherenkov detectors can trace a neutrino back across the sky. The same blue glow is visible in the water of nuclear reactor pools.
Detectors such as Super-Kamiokande in Japan (water) and IceCube (ice) rely on it, and so do ground-based gamma-ray telescopes that watch for Cherenkov flashes in the atmosphere, such as MACE at Hanle in Ladakh.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (science and technology). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** detector physics, observational astronomy, international collaboration. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking Cherenkov radiation means faster-than-light travel in a vacuum. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Cherenkov: speed in a medium; refractive index of water and ice about 1.3. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Explain to a school student why the ice glows blue. |
Question 5 of 18
Facts
IDDM stands for Indigenously Designed, Developed and Manufactured. It is the highest-priority category in India’s defence acquisition procedure, placed above Buy (Indian), Buy and Make, and purchases from abroad.
Analysis
The Ministry of Defence has signed a Rs 661.50 crore contract with BrahMos Aerospace for fire control systems and launchers for Navy ships under this category, with at least 68 per cent indigenous content.
Concept note
The acquisition procedure ranks categories so that Indian design is considered first: Buy (Indian-IDDM), then Buy (Indian), then Buy and Make (Indian), then Buy and Make with a foreign vendor, and only then Buy (Global). Each category carries a minimum indigenous content, and contracts often specify more, as the BrahMos deal does.
BrahMos Aerospace is a joint venture of DRDO and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyenia; the missile is the Navy’s primary surface-to-surface strike weapon. The positive indigenisation lists, which bar import of listed items after set dates, work alongside these categories.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (defence production, indigenisation of technology). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Atmanirbhar Bharat in defence, indigenous content, positive indigenisation lists, defence exports. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating Buy (Indian) and Buy (Indian-IDDM) as the same; IDDM requires Indian design. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** IDDM = Indigenously Designed, Developed and Manufactured; top category. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is a high indigenous-content percentage the same as technological self-reliance? |
Question 6 of 18
1 The primary role of a fleet support ship is to replenish warships at sea with fuel, water, provisions and stores.
2 Jala Usha, the first ship built in independent India, was launched at Visakhapatnam.
3 Hindustan Shipyard Limited functions under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Fleet support ships sustain a fleet through replenishment at sea, so warships can stay on station longer.
Statement 2Correct
Jala Usha was launched at Visakhapatnam in 1948.
Statement 3Incorrect
Hindustan Shipyard Limited is under the Ministry of Defence, and attained Miniratna Category-I status in 2025.
Analysis
The Raksha Mantri launched FSS-1 Surya, the first of five indigenous fleet support ships, at HSL and laid the keel of the fifth.
Concept note
A navy that intends to operate across the Indian Ocean, from the Gulf of Aden to the Malacca Strait, is limited by how long its ships can stay at sea. Fleet support ships extend that reach by transferring fuel and stores to warships sailing alongside.
The HSL-built ships will also carry first-line maintenance workshops, a helicopter deck for multi-role helicopters and self-defence systems. To build them, HSL upgraded Slipway-4 to take ships of up to 45,000 deadweight tonnes and installed a 300-tonne Goliath crane made by L&T Geostructure with Konecranes, which allows modern block construction.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (security, defence production); GS2 (Indian Ocean Region). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** blue-water navy, sustainment, replenishment at sea, shipbuilding ecosystem, net security provider. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating a fleet support ship as a combat ship; it is a logistics ship with self-defence systems. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** HSL, Visakhapatnam: Ministry of Defence; Slipway-4 up to 45,000 DWT. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why can a support ship matter as much as a destroyer? |
Question 7 of 18
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
HAL Koraput builds the AL-31FP for the Su-30MKI under licence.
Pair 2Correct
The Shakti, developed with France’s Safran, powers the Dhruv ALH and the Prachand Light Combat Helicopter.
Pair 3Correct
The Tejas Mk1 uses the American GE F404.
Pair 4Correct
The Rafale uses the French Safran M88.
Analysis
HAL Koraput delivered its 2,000th aero-engine and announced a second Shakti line of up to 100 engines a year by 2028-29.
Concept note
Every one of these engines is of foreign design, which is the core of India’s propulsion gap. Koraput, set up in 1964, has built and overhauled engines for the MiG-21, MiG-27, MiG-29 and Su-30MKI, overhauling more than 9,000; HAL is raising AL-31FP output from 30 to 50 a year against a 2024 order for 240.
The indigenous Kaveri engine, begun for the Tejas, did not reach the thrust needed, and an indigenous engine for the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft is now the main goal. A fighter engine needs single-crystal superalloys, thermal-barrier coatings and advanced cooling, which only a few countries have mastered.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (defence technology, indigenisation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** propulsion gap, licensed production, MRO, critical materials, AMCA. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming licensed production equals indigenous design. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** AL-31FP: Su-30MKI; Shakti: ALH and LCH; F404: Tejas; M88: Rafale. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why has India built warships at home but not a fighter engine? |
Question 8 of 18
1 Census is a subject in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule.
2 The Census is conducted under the Census Act, 1948.
3 Census 2027 is the first Census in independent India to enumerate castes other than Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
4 In the snow-bound areas of Ladakh, population enumeration is scheduled after the nationwide round, once the snow melts.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
Census is Entry 69 of the Union List.
Statement 2Correct
The Census Act, 1948 and the Census Rules, 1990 govern it.
Statement 3Correct
The last all-India caste count was in 1931; independent India counted only SCs and STs until now.
Statement 4Incorrect
Snow-bound areas are counted early, in September, before winter closes them; Ladakh has already finished.
Analysis
Population enumeration is complete in the snow-bound areas of J&K and Ladakh, covering 5,292 enumeration blocks, with Ladakh the first Union Territory and Kishtwar the first district to finish.
Concept note
Census 2027 runs in two phases: houselisting and housing, then population enumeration, which for most of India takes place in February 2027. Snow-bound areas of Ladakh, J&K, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand follow a non-synchronous schedule, counted in September.
This round also offered self-enumeration (17 to 31 August) before enumerators visited, because it is the first digital Census. Enumeration has been advanced in four poll-bound States (Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Uttarakhand and Goa) to 16 November 2026 to 4 January 2027, and deferred in Manipur.
Provisional data is expected by March-April 2027. Census figures drive fund transfers, reservation of seats and, because of the freeze in Articles 82 and 170, the next delimitation.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (population, caste); GS2 (delimitation, statutory bodies). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** caste census, delimitation freeze, digital census, data quality, non-synchronous enumeration. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing Census in the Concurrent List. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Census: Entry 69, List I; Census Act 1948; Registrar General under MHA. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the Census count caste? |
Question 9 of 18
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The proviso to Article 82 bars readjustment until the figures of the first Census after 2026 are published.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
The 42nd Amendment (1976) froze seat allocation on the 1971 Census until 2000, and the 84th Amendment (2001) extended the freeze to the first Census after 2026.
Analysis
Census 2027 is that Census, which is why its timeline is politically consequential.
Concept note
The freeze was introduced so that States which controlled population growth, largely in the south, would not lose seats to faster-growing States. The 84th Amendment allowed the boundaries of constituencies within a State to be redrawn on the 1991 Census without changing the number of seats per State, and the 87th Amendment (2003) changed that basis to the 2001 Census.
The reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes also follows Census figures. A post-2026 Census therefore reopens the inter-State allocation question, which southern States have raised in the context of federal balance.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Parliament, federalism, delimitation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** federal balance, one person one vote, population stabilisation, delimitation commission. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing redrawing boundaries within a State (allowed on the 2001 Census) with reallocation of seats among States (frozen). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Articles 82 and 170; 42nd (1976), 84th (2001), 87th (2003) Amendments. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should population alone decide each State’s seats? |
Question 10 of 18
1 The powers, privileges and immunities of State legislatures and their members are dealt with in Article 194.
2 Parliament has enacted a law that comprehensively codifies parliamentary privileges.
3 The privileges of Parliament also extend to the Attorney General of India.
4 A House may punish a person who is not its member for breach of privilege or contempt of the House.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 194 covers State legislatures, as Article 105 covers Parliament.
Statement 2Incorrect
Privileges remain uncodified and continue as they stood when the 44th Amendment (1978) came into force.
Statement 3Correct
Article 105(4) extends them to persons with the right to speak in a House, including the Attorney General.
Statement 4Correct
A House may punish outsiders, including journalists, for breach or contempt.
Analysis
A seven-judge Bench has disposed of the 2003 Tamil Nadu Assembly privilege reference as infructuous, leaving the larger privilege-versus-free-speech questions open.
Concept note
The 2003 resolution sought the arrest of editors of The Hindu for an editorial treated as a breach of privilege of the entire House. The reference turned out to be pointless because the Assembly had withdrawn the resolution in 2004, which the Court had not noticed.
The underlying tension is old: in the Searchlight case (1959) the Supreme Court held that privileges under Article 194(3) prevail over the freedom of speech in Article 19(1)(a), while the Keshav Singh reference (1965) held that courts can examine the legality of a commitment for contempt. Without codification, a legislature is the judge in its own cause, which is why the press has long urged that privileges be defined by law.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Parliament and State legislatures, fundamental rights, judiciary). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** codification of privileges, press freedom, separation of powers, judicial review. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Believing the Court ruled for the press; it did not decide the question at all. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 105 (Parliament), 194 (States); AG: 88 and 105(4); Advocate General: 177 and 194(4). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should legislative privileges be codified? |
Question 11 of 18
1 The Chiefs of the Army, Navy and Air Force are appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.
2 The supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union is vested in the President.
3 The Chief of Defence Staff also heads the Department of Military Affairs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister, approves the appointment of service chiefs.
Statement 2Correct
Article 53(2) vests supreme command in the President, its exercise regulated by law.
Statement 3Correct
The CDS is also Secretary of the Department of Military Affairs, created in 2019 in the Ministry of Defence.
Analysis
The government has appointed Air Marshal Ashutosh Dixit as the 29th Chief of the Air Staff with effect from the afternoon of 31 October 2026.
Concept note
Air Marshal Dixit is now Vice Chief of the Air Staff and earlier served as Chief of Integrated Defence Staff to the Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee, and as AOC-in-C of Central Air Command. He was commissioned into the fighter stream in 1986, has more than 3,500 flying hours including on the Tejas, and is an experimental test pilot.
Air Chief Marshal Amar Preet Singh superannuates on 31 October. The Department of Military Affairs was set up to promote jointness, and the CDS, as permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee, is the principal military adviser to the Defence Minister.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (executive, appointments); GS3 (security, higher defence management). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** jointness, theatre commands, civil-military relations, higher defence organisation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the President personally selects service chiefs; the ACC decides and the President appoints. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 53(2): supreme command; DMA created 2019 under the CDS. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What does jointness change for an air force? |
Question 12 of 18
1 The principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities was first set out in the Kyoto Protocol.
2 In climate negotiations, "means of implementation" refers to finance, technology transfer and capacity building.
3 COP31 is to be held in Antalya, Türkiye.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
CBDR-RC is set out in the UNFCCC of 1992 (and in Principle 7 of the Rio Declaration), before the Kyoto Protocol of 1997.
Statement 2Correct
Means of implementation are finance, technology and capacity building.
Statement 3Correct
COP31 will meet in Antalya in November 2026.
Analysis
At the Pre-COP31 meeting co-hosted by Australia, Fiji and Tuvalu, India called for equal attention to adaptation, mitigation and means of implementation.
Concept note
The arrangement for COP31 is unusual: Türkiye hosts the conference in Antalya, while Australia leads the negotiations and the Pacific hosts the preparatory meetings, a compromise that ended a deadlock between the two bidders. India used the Pre-COP to press the developing-country view that mitigation targets cannot be separated from finance, and to offer Pacific Island countries its expertise in coastal mapping, shoreline monitoring and early warning through ISRO, NCSCM and NCCR.
The Tuvalu Coastal Adaptation Project, which India’s Environment Minister visited, illustrates the adaptation finance that small islands say they need most.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (climate change, international agreements); GS2 (India and the Pacific Islands). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** climate justice, adaptation finance, CBDR-RC, loss and damage, South-South cooperation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Dating CBDR to Kyoto; it is in the 1992 Convention. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** UNFCCC 1992; Kyoto 1997; Paris 2015; COP31 Antalya. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why should India speak for small island states? |
Question 13 of 18
1 The Index of Industrial Production measures the output of mining, manufacturing and electricity.
2 The trial Index of Services Production relies on administrative data and GST outward-supply data.
3 The trial Index of Services Production does not cover public administration and defence.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The IIP covers mining, manufacturing and electricity.
Statement 2Correct
The trial ISP, started in July 2026 on base year 2024-25, uses high-frequency administrative data and GST outward supplies.
Statement 3Correct
Core government tasks, non-market activities and GST-exempt services are excluded at present.
Analysis
MoSPI has published an approach paper to add education, health and residential care, and public administration and defence, raising coverage from about 60 per cent to about 78.4 per cent of services GVA; comments are due by 16 October 2026.
Concept note
Services produce more than half of India’s gross value added, but until this year they had no monthly output index comparable to the IIP, so analysts relied on proxies such as GST collections, air traffic and bank credit. The trial ISP tracks 19 service sub-sectors.
Government and other non-market services are hard to add because they have no sale price; statisticians usually measure their output by inputs such as salaries, or by volume indicators such as students enrolled or patients treated, which the approach paper will now try to construct. A broader ISP would improve quarterly GDP estimates and help the RBI read the economy in real time.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (growth, official statistics). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** high-frequency indicators, non-market output, statistical reform, base-year revision. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the IIP already covers services. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** ISP base year 2024-25; trial from July 2026; coverage about 60 per cent, proposed about 78.4 per cent. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How do you measure the output of a government school? |
Question 14 of 18
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
CAQM has ordered additional Pan-Tilt-Zoom cameras by 31 October 2026 over fuel storage and charging points, and gas meters where gas is used, streaming to the CPCB and the State boards or DPCC.
Statement IIIncorrect
CAQM is constituted under its own law, the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021.
Analysis
The order follows findings by CAQM flying squads that industries were burning unapproved fuels.
Concept note
CAQM replaced the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority, which had been set up in 1998 under the Environment (Protection) Act on the Supreme Court’s direction. It was first created by an ordinance in 2020 and then by the 2021 Act, which gives it power over the whole NCR and adjoining areas of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh, and overriding authority on air quality matters there.
It prescribes an approved fuel list for NCR industry and enforces the Graded Response Action Plan. The camera order shifts enforcement from occasional inspections to continuous remote monitoring, building on the CPCB’s earlier requirement of cameras and Online Continuous Emission Monitoring Systems at stacks.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (environmental pollution, conservation); GS2 (statutory bodies). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** airshed management, real-time enforcement, clean fuels, polluter pays. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Tracing CAQM to the 1986 Act; that was EPCA. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CAQM Act, 2021; EPCA (1998) was its predecessor. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Are cameras a substitute for clean fuel that industries can afford? |
Question 15 of 18
1 Most of the atmosphere’s ozone lies in the troposphere.
2 Temperature decreases with height throughout the stratosphere.
3 Most weather phenomena occur in the troposphere.
4 A lighter-than-air platform obtains its lift from buoyancy.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
About 90 per cent of ozone is in the stratosphere.
Statement 2Incorrect
Temperature rises with height in the stratosphere, because ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation.
Statement 3Correct
Clouds, rain and storms are confined almost entirely to the troposphere.
Statement 4Correct
Airships and balloons float because the gas inside is lighter than the air they displace.
Analysis
DRDO’s lighter-than-air High-Altitude Platform reached 21 km and stayed at 20 km for more than 30 minutes, operating in the stratosphere.
Concept note
The troposphere extends to about 8 km at the poles and about 18 km at the equator. Above it, the stable, dry stratosphere suits long-endurance platforms: there is little weather, and winds are weaker at some heights.
A stratospheric airship can watch a wide area for long periods, acting as a cheaper, recoverable alternative to a satellite for surveillance or communications relay. DRDO’s platform is being developed by the Aerial Delivery Research and Development Establishment, Agra, which also designed the Advanced High-Altitude Parachute that made its maiden live jump at Nyoma in Ladakh.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (physical geography, atmosphere); GS3 (defence technology). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** persistent surveillance, high-altitude platforms, near-space, indigenisation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming temperature always falls with height. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Temperature falls in the troposphere and mesosphere, rises in the stratosphere and thermosphere. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Satellite or stratospheric airship for border surveillance: which and why? |
Question 16 of 18
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
Hormuz joins the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman.
Pair 2Correct
Bab-el-Mandeb joins the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden.
Pair 3Correct
Malacca joins the Andaman Sea to the South China Sea.
Pair 4Incorrect
The Bosporus links the Black Sea with the Sea of Marmara; the Dardanelles link the Marmara with the Aegean.
Analysis
A projectile hit the Panama-flagged tanker MT On Peace, with 17 Indians among its 19 crew, in the Strait of Hormuz, and the Ministry of External Affairs called continuing attacks on shipping a cause of deep concern.
Concept note
Hormuz lies between Iran and the Musandam peninsula of Oman and carries a large share of the world’s seaborne oil, including much of India’s crude and LPG imports from the Gulf. Bab-el-Mandeb, between Yemen and Djibouti and Eritrea, controls the route to the Suez Canal, and was the scene of attacks on shipping in 2023-24.
Malacca, between Malaysia and Indonesia’s Sumatra, is the main link between the Indian Ocean and East Asia. India has a large stake in all three because Indian seafarers form one of the biggest national groups in the world’s merchant fleet, which is why every attack in these waters becomes a consular concern as well as an energy one.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (world geography); GS2 (India and West Asia, diaspora); GS3 (energy security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** chokepoints, freedom of navigation, energy security, seafarer welfare. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Joining the Bosporus directly to the Aegean. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Bosporus: Black Sea to Marmara; Dardanelles: Marmara to Aegean. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should India protect its seafarers in conflict zones? |
Question 17 of 18
Facts
Ebola spreads through direct contact with the blood, secretions or other body fluids of a sick or dead person, or with contaminated materials. It is not airborne over distance, not mosquito-borne and not waterborne.
Analysis
Kenya has confirmed its first imported Ebola case, a traveller who arrived from Congo via Uganda and died.
Concept note
Ebola was first identified in 1976 near the Ebola river in what is now the Democratic Republic of the Congo. Fruit bats are thought to be the natural reservoir.
Because it spreads through body fluids, health workers and those who prepare bodies for burial face the highest risk, and safe burial practices are central to control. A vaccine, Ervebo, protects against the Zaire species of the virus.
Under the International Health Regulations (2005), countries must report such events to the World Health Organization; India screens travellers from affected countries at entry points.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (health, international institutions); GS3 (biotechnology, vaccines). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** zoonoses, One Health, International Health Regulations, outbreak preparedness. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Grouping Ebola with airborne diseases such as measles. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Ebola: filovirus; fruit-bat reservoir; contact spread; first identified 1976. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What lessons from COVID-19 apply to Ebola preparedness? |
Question 18 of 18
1. Physiotherapists 2. Nurses 3. Optometrists 4. Pharmacists
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Facts
Physiotherapists and optometrists are among the professions in the schedule to the NCAHP Act, 2021. Nurses are regulated separately under nursing legislation, and pharmacists by the Pharmacy Council of India under the Pharmacy Act, 1948.
Analysis
NCAHP has notified regulations for autonomous boards under State councils and a Central Assessment Committee for States without a functional council.
Concept note
Allied and healthcare professionals include medical laboratory and radiology technologists, physiotherapists, optometrists, nutritionists, operation theatre technologists and many others; they form a large share of the health workforce but long worked without uniform standards or a national register. The NCAHP Act, 2021 set up the Commission and State councils.
The new regulations give each State council four autonomous boards (undergraduate, postgraduate, assessment and rating, ethics and registration) of 10 to 20 members, with three-member inspection teams and public ratings of institutions, and a Central Assessment Committee of 10 to 30 members where a State has no working council.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (health, human resources, regulatory bodies). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** health workforce, task-sharing, professional regulation, quality of education. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Putting nurses and pharmacists under NCAHP; they have their own regulators. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NCAHP Act 2021; boards 10-20 members; Central Assessment Committee 10-30. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can allied health workers ease India’s doctor shortage? |
Performance
Question-wise Result