UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 4 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
17 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 17
1 It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
2 It is included in Appendix I of the Convention on Migratory Species.
3 It is the State bird of Gujarat.
4 The Desert National Park, its main habitat, lies in the Jaisalmer and Barmer districts of Rajasthan.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps) has been Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List since 2011.
Statement 2Correct
It is in CMS Appendix I (and CITES Appendix I, and Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972).
Statement 3Incorrect
It is the State bird of Rajasthan; Gujarat’s State bird is the greater flamingo.
Statement 4Correct
The Desert National Park spans Jaisalmer and Barmer.
Analysis
On 3 October 2026 the Environment Ministry initiated the first release of two captive-bred bustards from a soft-release facility into an enclosure in the Desert National Park, scheduled for 4 October, after a decade of conservation breeding that has produced 97 birds at Sam and Ramdevra.
Concept note
The Bustard Recovery Programme is a joint effort of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, the Rajasthan Forest Department and the Wildlife Institute of India, with technical help from the International Fund for Houbara Conservation and money from National CAMPA. Rajasthan calls its effort Project GIB (2013); breeding centres opened at Sam (2018) and Ramdevra (2022); artificial incubation of wild eggs began in 2019.
The Sam and Ramdevra facilities hold 97 birds, 40 from wild eggs and 57 bred in captivity; 86 are kept for breeding and 11 earmarked for release; 24 chicks hatched in 2025 and 29 in 2026. The “jumpstart” method places captive-laid eggs in wild nests.
The wild population is about 130 in Rajasthan with a handful in Gujarat, Maharashtra and Karnataka. The main modern threat is collision with power lines from solar and wind projects; in M.K. Ranjitsinh v Union of India (21 March 2024) the Supreme Court set up an Expert Committee on undergrounding and recognised a right against the adverse effects of climate change under Articles 14 and 21.
Captive-bred bustards released into the wild survive at only 10 to 30 per cent a year, so the release is a pilot.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (conservation, renewable energy trade-offs); GS1 (Thar desert ecology). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** umbrella species, conservation breeding, rewilding, soft release, power-line mortality, bird diverters. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the Great Indian Bustard as Endangered; it is Critically Endangered, while the Lesser Florican is Endangered. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** GIB: IUCN CR, WPA Schedule I, CITES and CMS Appendix I, State bird of Rajasthan; M.K. Ranjitsinh (2024) is the climate-rights case. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should transmission lines in the Thar go underground at high cost for a population of about 130 birds? |
Question 2 of 17
Statement-I: India declared the elimination of leprosy as a public health problem at the national level in 2005, yet continues to report the world’s largest number of new leprosy cases every year.
Statement-II: "Elimination" of leprosy is defined as a prevalence of less than one case per 10,000 population, not as the absence of new cases.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
India achieved the WHO elimination threshold in December 2005, and in the WHO’s latest global update it reported 91,783 new cases for 2025 (April 2025 to March 2026), ahead of Brazil (22,901) and Indonesia (16,292).
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
Elimination is a prevalence threshold of under 1 per 10,000, so a country can be “eliminated” while transmission continues and tens of thousands of new cases appear each year.
Analysis
The NLEP annual report for 2025-26 shows 3,832 new child cases, 91.6 per cent above the target of 2,000, and 37 children with Grade-2 disability at diagnosis, which the WHO reads as signs of continuing transmission and delayed detection, against the National Strategic Plan’s goal of interrupting transmission at district level by 2027.
Concept note
Leprosy (Hansen’s disease) is a chronic infection of the skin and peripheral nerves caused by Mycobacterium leprae, spread through prolonged close contact with untreated persons and cured by multidrug therapy, free under the National Leprosy Eradication Programme. The National Leprosy Control Programme began in 1955 and became the NLEP in 1983 with the introduction of MDT.
India reached the elimination threshold (prevalence below 1 per 10,000) in December 2005, but about 90,000 new cases a year show that transmission continues in pockets, mainly Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh. The National Strategic Plan and Roadmap for Leprosy 2023-27, launched on 30 January 2023, aims to interrupt transmission at the district level by 2027, with zero disability among new child cases and a Grade-2 disability rate below one per million; a district qualifies after five consecutive years with zero new indigenous child cases.
Tools include active case detection campaigns, contact tracing, single-dose rifampicin post-exposure prophylaxis and the Nikusth 2.0 portal. Anti-Leprosy Day is 30 January.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (health policy, government interventions); GS1 (stigma and social exclusion). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** elimination versus eradication, interruption of transmission, active case detection, Grade-2 disability, post-exposure prophylaxis. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading "elimination" as zero cases; it is a prevalence threshold, and eradication (zero incidence) is a different goal. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Elimination threshold: below 1 per 10,000; India achieved it in December 2005; NSP 2023-27 targets district-level interruption of transmission by 2027. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why should a programme measure success by child cases rather than total cases? |
Question 3 of 17
1. Classical Pali : Central University of Odisha
2. Classical Prakrit : Central University of Gujarat
3. Classical Marathi : Deccan College Post-Graduate and Research Institute, Pune
4. Classical Assamese : Visva-Bharati University
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
The Central University of Odisha at Koraput hosts the centre for Classical Pali.
Pair 2Correct
The Central University of Gujarat hosts the centre for Classical Prakrit.
Pair 3Correct
Deccan College, Pune, a deemed university, hosts the centre for Classical Marathi.
Pair 4Incorrect
Visva-Bharati in West Bengal hosts the centre for Classical Bengali; the Classical Assamese centre is at Tezpur University in Assam.
Analysis
The Department of Higher Education approved the five centres by an Office Memorandum of 1 October 2026, announced on 3 October; they serve the five languages that received classical status on 3 October 2024.
Concept note
India recognises 11 classical languages. The category was created in 2004 with Tamil, followed by Sanskrit (2005), Telugu and Kannada (2008), Malayalam (2013), Odia (2014), and Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese and Bengali by a Union Cabinet decision of 3 October 2024.
The status is conferred by the Union government on the Ministry of Culture’s proposal, advised by a Linguistic Experts Committee under the Sahitya Akademi; the 2024 revision of criteria kept the requirement of high antiquity (1,500 to 2,000 years), added knowledge texts in prose and epigraphic evidence, and kept the clause that the classical form may be distinct from or discontinuous with the modern language. Benefits include international awards for scholars, a Centre of Excellence and professional chairs in Central Universities.
Existing institutions are the Central Institute of Classical Tamil in Chennai and centres for Kannada, Telugu, Malayalam and Odia at the Central Institute of Indian Languages, Mysuru. Pali and Prakrit have no native speech community today; Pali carries the Theravada canon and Prakrit the Jain Agamas and most Ashokan edicts.
Classical status is separate from the Eighth Schedule, which lists 22 languages and does not include Pali or Prakrit.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (ancient literature, Buddhist and Jain texts); GS2 (education and culture policy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** heritage preservation, digitisation of manuscripts, knowledge texts, recognition politics, NEP 2020 on classical languages. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming classical languages must be in the Eighth Schedule; Pali and Prakrit are classical but not scheduled. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Tamil (2004) was the first classical language; the five of 2024 bring the total to 11; the Ministry of Culture is the nodal ministry. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does classical status for a living language like Bengali or Marathi serve scholarship or regional pride? |
Question 4 of 17
1 Under Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955, persons who entered Assam on or after 25 March 1971 are treated as foreigners.
2 A person whose name is excluded from the final NRC is thereby declared a foreigner.
3 A person excluded from the final NRC may appeal to a Foreigners Tribunal within 120 days of receiving the rejection order.
4 The Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of Section 6A by a unanimous Constitution Bench decision.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 6A, inserted after the Assam Accord of 1985, treats 1 January 1966 and 25 March 1971 as cut-offs, and entrants from 25 March 1971 onwards as foreigners.
Statement 2Incorrect
Exclusion from the NRC does not make anyone a foreigner; only a Foreigners Tribunal can declare that, after an appeal.
Statement 3Correct
Paragraph 8 of the Schedule to the Citizenship Rules, 2003, as amended in August 2019, allows an appeal to a Foreigners Tribunal within 120 days of the rejection order.
Statement 4Incorrect
The five-judge Bench upheld Section 6A on 17 October 2024 by a 4:1 majority, with Justice J.B. Pardiwala dissenting.
Analysis
The Registrar General of India has told the Supreme Court that rejection slips for the 19.07 lakh people excluded from the final NRC of 31 August 2019 have not been issued because the register is still not formally notified; the matter is listed for 6 November 2026.
Concept note
The NRC was first prepared for Assam in 1951. Its update, unique to Assam, is governed by Rule 4A and the Schedule of the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003, under which applicants prove descent from persons in the 1951 NRC or in electoral rolls up to 24 March 1971.
The exercise ran under Supreme Court supervision from 2013 in Assam Public Works v Union of India. The final NRC released on 31 August 2019 included 3,11,21,004 people and excluded 19,06,657.
A rejection slip stating the reason for exclusion is the document needed to appeal to a Foreigners Tribunal; the Home Ministry extended the appeal window from 60 to 120 days in 2019 and sanctioned 200 more Tribunals. The register has not been notified by the Registrar General, who is also the Registrar General of Citizen Registration under Section 14A of the Citizenship Act, because the State Coordinator has not handed over the data and the State has sought re-verification.
In 2024 the Supreme Court upheld Section 6A, treating 25 March 1971 as a reasonable cut-off linked to the Bangladesh war.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (citizenship, Supreme Court monitoring, Centre-State coordination); GS3 (illegal migration, border management). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** statelessness in limbo, due process, Foreigners Tribunals, re-verification, Section 6A and temporal reasonableness. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Equating exclusion from the NRC with being a declared foreigner; the Tribunal decides, after an appeal that needs a rejection slip. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 6A cut-offs: 1 January 1966 and 25 March 1971; final NRC 31 August 2019; Section 6A upheld 4:1 on 17 October 2024. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the Supreme Court set a deadline for notifying the final NRC after seven years? |
Question 5 of 17
1 There are 24 such committees, of which 16 are serviced by the Lok Sabha Secretariat and 8 by the Rajya Sabha Secretariat.
2 Each committee has 31 members, 21 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha.
3 A Minister may be nominated as a member of such a committee.
4 The term of each committee is two years.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
17 committees were set up in 1993 and the number rose to 24 in 2004, 16 under the Lok Sabha and 8 under the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2Correct
31 members, 21 nominated by the Speaker and 10 by the Chairman.
Statement 3Incorrect
Ministers cannot be members of these committees.
Statement 4Incorrect
The term is one year, which is why the committees are reconstituted annually.
Analysis
The committees were reconstituted for 2026-27 with effect from 26 September 2026, announced in a Rajya Sabha bulletin of 3 October; the Trinamool Congress lost the chairs of the Commerce and Chemicals and Fertilizers committees to Sudhanshu Trivedi and Kakoli Ghosh Dastidar, while Shashi Tharoor retained External Affairs.
Concept note
Department-related Standing Committees were created in 1993 on the recommendation of the Lok Sabha Rules Committee to give Parliament continuous, specialised scrutiny of ministries. They consider the Demands for Grants of ministries after the general Budget discussion and while the House is adjourned, examine Bills referred to them by the Speaker or Chairman, consider annual reports and examine long-term policy documents; their recommendations are advisory and they do not take up day-to-day administration.
Rules 331C to 331N of the Lok Sabha Rules and Rules 268 to 277 of the Rajya Sabha Rules govern them. The eight Rajya Sabha committees include Commerce, Home Affairs, Education, Industry, Science and Technology, Transport, Health and Personnel and Law; Finance, Defence and External Affairs are Lok Sabha committees.
Chairpersons are distributed by party strength. The share of Bills referred to committees has fallen from about 71 per cent in the 15th Lok Sabha to about 16 per cent in the 17th, according to PRS Legislative Research.
Financial committees are separate: the Public Accounts Committee (1921, 22 members), the Estimates Committee (1950, 30 members) and the Committee on Public Undertakings (1964, 22 members).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Parliament, committees, executive accountability). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** mini-Parliaments, legislative scrutiny, referral of Bills, cross-party deliberation, advisory recommendations. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing DRSCs (standing, annual) with Joint Parliamentary Committees (ad hoc, for a specific Bill or inquiry). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 24 DRSCs since 2004 (17 in 1993); 31 members (21 + 10); one-year term; no Ministers; PAC has 22 members with an Opposition chair by convention. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should referral of every Bill to a standing committee be made mandatory? |
Question 6 of 17
1 The National Perspective Plan of 1980 envisages 30 links, 14 in the Himalayan component and 16 in the peninsular component.
2 The Ken-Betwa Link Project transfers water from the Ken, a tributary of the Yamuna, to the Betwa.
3 The National Water Development Agency functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The National Perspective Plan prepared in 1980 by the Ministry of Irrigation and the Central Water Commission identified 30 links, 14 Himalayan and 16 peninsular.
Statement 2Correct
Both the Ken and the Betwa are tributaries of the Yamuna; the project moves surplus Ken water to the Betwa basin through a dam at Daudhan inside the Panna Tiger Reserve.
Statement 3Incorrect
The National Water Development Agency, set up in 1982, is under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
Analysis
A study by ATREE in Scientific Reports (15 April 2026), reported by The Hindu on 4 October 2026, warns that linking basins could act as “ecological highways” for invasive alien species, with the Lower Ganga basin (13 to 15 invasive species) a source of invaders for the Mahanadi (69 threatened species).
Concept note
The idea of linking India’s rivers dates to Arthur Cotton in the nineteenth century, K.L. Rao’s Ganga-Cauvery proposal (1972) and Captain Dastur’s Garland Canal (1977). The National Perspective Plan of 1980 and the National Water Development Agency (1982) gave it institutional form; the Supreme Court in 2012 asked the Centre to implement it in a time-bound manner.
The Ken-Betwa link, the first to be built, was approved by the Union Cabinet in December 2021 at Rs 44,605 crore on a 90:10 Centre-State basis, and its foundation stone was laid on 25 December 2024; it submerges part of the Panna Tiger Reserve. Critics question the “surplus” and “deficit” labels, which hide seasonal variation, and point to downstream effects on flows, sediment, deltas and fish migration.
The ATREE study adds biological invasion: India’s basins are isolated, many species are endemic to one basin, and connecting basins exposes them to competitors and pathogens. India has about 350 to 400 species at some stage of invasion and no national invasive species policy, though the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (Section 36) and the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 give the Centre powers to regulate them.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (environmental impact, biodiversity); GS1 (drainage systems, water resources). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** ecological highways, basin endemism, surplus-deficit fallacy, cumulative impact assessment, invasive species policy. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the NWDA under the Environment Ministry; it is under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 30 links (14 + 16); NWDA 1982; Ken-Betwa approved December 2021, Rs 44,605 crore; Daudhan dam in Panna Tiger Reserve. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should every river link require an invasive-species risk assessment before clearance? |
Question 7 of 17
1 Article 239A of the Constitution, which provides for a legislature and a Council of Ministers in a Union Territory, applies to Jammu and Kashmir.
2 Restoration of statehood to Jammu and Kashmir requires a law made by Parliament under Articles 3 and 4.
3 The autonomy resolution passed by the Jammu and Kashmir Assembly in June 2000 sought restoration of the constitutional position as it stood before 1953.
4 In its December 2023 judgment on Article 370, the Supreme Court directed that elections to the Jammu and Kashmir Assembly be held by 30 September 2024.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 extended Article 239A, originally for Puducherry, to the new Union Territory, giving it a legislature.
Statement 2Correct
A Union Territory becomes a State only through a Parliamentary law under Articles 3 and 4; an Assembly resolution is a recommendation.
Statement 3Correct
The resolution of 26 June 2000, based on the State Autonomy Committee report, sought the pre-1953 position, with Union powers limited to defence, foreign affairs and communications; the Vajpayee Cabinet rejected it on 4 July 2000.
Statement 4Correct
On 11 December 2023 the Court upheld the abrogation of Article 370 and directed elections by 30 September 2024, adding that statehood should be restored at the earliest.
Analysis
The Assembly passed a statehood resolution on 28 September 2026 with 61 of 90 members; the BJP walked out over its reference to the 2000 and 2024 resolutions, and the Chief Minister disclosed that the Chief Secretary and Law Secretary had advised the Speaker against allowing it.
Concept note
Jammu and Kashmir was reorganised on 31 October 2019 into two Union Territories under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019: Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature and Ladakh without one. Section 53 of the Act keeps police, public order and the All-India Services with the Lieutenant Governor, so the civil service reports to the LG on those matters, a dual control that the 2026 episode exposed.
The 2000 autonomy resolution asked for a Sadr-e-Riyasat and Wazir-e-Azam, a bar on Article 356, a separate Election Commission and CAG, and the rescinding of post-1954 Presidential Orders; the Union Cabinet rejected it as setting the clock back. On 6 November 2024 the new Assembly passed a resolution on special status.
The 28 September 2026 statehood resolution was framed as being in addition to both earlier resolutions, which the BJP opposed. Legislative privilege under Article 194 applies to the Union Territory legislature through the 2019 Act; a breach of privilege motion has been moved against the two officers who wrote to the Speaker.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Union Territories, federalism, Article 370 judgment, privileges). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** asymmetric federalism, UT dual control, statehood sequencing, legislative privilege, sub judice. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing Article 239A (UT legislatures, applied to J&K and Puducherry) with Article 239AA (NCT of Delhi). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Reorganisation Act 2019; two UTs from 31 October 2019; SC judgment 11 December 2023; 2000 autonomy resolution rejected 4 July 2000. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should statehood be restored before or after a security benchmark is met? |
Question 8 of 17
1 Form 6 is used by a person seeking inclusion of his or her name in the electoral roll.
2 Form 7 is used to object to the inclusion of a name or to seek its deletion.
3 A Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls is ordered by the Election Commission under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Form 6 under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960 is the application for inclusion, including by first-time voters and those who have shifted.
Statement 2Correct
Form 7 is the objection to inclusion or application for deletion; Form 8 is for corrections and shifting within a constituency.
Statement 3Incorrect
The preparation and revision of rolls is governed by the Representation of the People Act, 1950 (Section 21 empowers the Commission to direct a special revision); the 1951 Act deals with the conduct of elections.
Analysis
Uttarakhand published its final roll after the Special Intensive Revision on 3 October 2026 with 71.59 lakh electors, about eight lakh fewer than the 79.61 lakh before the exercise after about nine lakh deletions and 1,29,872 additions; a special drive to enrol missing electors through Form 6 follows.
Concept note
Electoral rolls are prepared under the Representation of the People Act, 1950 and the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, by Electoral Registration Officers under the superintendence of the Election Commission (Article 324). Section 21 of the 1950 Act allows the Commission to direct a special revision of the roll for any constituency at any time, for reasons recorded.
An intensive revision prepares the roll afresh through house-to-house enumeration, as against a summary revision, which updates the existing roll through claims and objections. The forms are: Form 6 (inclusion), Form 6A (overseas electors), Form 6B (Aadhaar linkage, voluntary), Form 7 (objection or deletion) and Form 8 (correction, shifting, replacement card, marking of disability).
Uttarakhand’s SIR began in June 2026 from a roll of 79,60,762; the draft of 14 July had 71,33,785 names; claims and objections ran to 13 August and hearings to 28 September; the final roll of 3 October has 71.59 lakh electors with 12,543 polling stations. Deletions were concentrated in the “absent, shifted, dead or duplicate” category, led by Dehradun.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Election Commission, electoral reforms, representation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** roll integrity versus exclusion, intensive versus summary revision, booth level officers, claims and objections. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Attributing electoral roll provisions to the RP Act 1951; rolls are under the 1950 Act, elections under the 1951 Act. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Form 6 inclusion, Form 7 objection or deletion, Form 8 correction; Section 21, RP Act 1950 for special revision. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should a State balance cleaning its roll against the risk of deleting genuine voters? |
Question 9 of 17
Statement-I: The Financial Stability and Development Council is chaired by the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.
Statement-II: The Financial Stability and Development Council was constituted in 2010 as a non-statutory apex body to coordinate India’s financial sector regulators.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement IIncorrect
The FSDC is chaired by the Union Finance Minister; the RBI Governor chairs its Sub-Committee.
Statement IICorrect
The Council was set up by an executive decision in December 2010, following the Raghuram Rajan Committee’s recommendation, to coordinate the RBI, SEBI, IRDAI, PFRDA and the Finance Ministry on financial stability, development and inter-regulatory issues.
Analysis
RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra set out five priorities for financial stability at the Fifth Kautilya Economic Conclave on 3 October 2026: systemic resilience, mapping new systemic risks that may originate outside finance, granular data on non-bank intermediaries, system-wide resilience including critical third parties, and innovation that preserves settlement finality and the singleness of money.
Concept note
Financial stability in India rests on several institutions. The RBI has a statutory mandate for monetary policy and banking regulation and publishes a half-yearly Financial Stability Report (June and December) with the Systemic Risk Survey; a Financial Stability Unit was created in 2009.
The Financial Stability and Development Council (December 2010) is chaired by the Finance Minister and includes the heads of the RBI, SEBI, IRDAI, PFRDA and IBBI, the Finance Secretary and the Chief Economic Adviser; its Sub-Committee, chaired by the RBI Governor, does the operational work. The Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (2013) proposed a statutory FSDC, which has not been enacted.
Internationally, the Financial Stability Board (2009, Basel) and the Basel III norms set standards. New concerns the Governor flagged, including non-bank financial intermediaries, cyber risk, cloud and IT “critical third parties”, tokenisation and stablecoins, are the frontier of macroprudential policy.
The Kautilya Economic Conclave is organised by the Institute of Economic Growth, in earlier editions with the Ministry of Finance.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (financial sector regulation, macroprudential policy); GS2 (regulatory bodies). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** systemic risk, macroprudential regulation, critical third parties, settlement finality, singleness of money. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the RBI Governor chairs the FSDC; the Finance Minister chairs it, the Governor chairs its Sub-Committee. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** FSDC 2010, non-statutory, Finance Minister chair; RBI Financial Stability Report twice a year. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the FSDC be given statutory powers over all regulators? |
Question 10 of 17
1 The United States designated India a "Major Defense Partner" in 2016.
2 The Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) enables the transfer of secure communication equipment and encrypted systems.
3 The Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA) provides for sharing geospatial intelligence.
4 The Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) allows the two militaries to use each other’s facilities for refuelling and replenishment.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The US Congress recognised India as a Major Defense Partner in 2016, a status unique to India.
Statement 2Correct
COMCASA, signed in 2018, allows India to receive encrypted US communication systems.
Statement 3Correct
BECA, signed in 2020, covers geospatial data and intelligence.
Statement 4Correct
LEMOA, signed in 2016, provides reciprocal logistics support. Together with GSOMIA (2002) these are the four foundational agreements.
Analysis
Admiral Samuel Paparo, Commander of the US Pacific Command, is visiting India from 3 to 8 October 2026 to advance the Major Defense Partnership; the command resumed the title US Pacific Command on 16 June 2026 (its statutory name, Indo-Pacific Command, is unchanged), without any change in its area of responsibility.
Concept note
India-US defence ties rest on the Defence Framework Agreement (2005, renewed 2015), the Major Defense Partner designation (2016), Strategic Trade Authorization Tier 1 status (2018) and the four foundational agreements: GSOMIA (2002) on protecting military information, LEMOA (2016) on logistics, COMCASA (2018) on secure communications and BECA (2020) on geospatial cooperation. The 2+2 ministerial dialogue, the Defence Technology and Trade Initiative, the Roadmap for Defence Industrial Cooperation (2023) and the INDUS-X innovation bridge add the industrial layer; the Malabar exercise with Japan and Australia and Yudh Abhyas, Vajra Prahar, Cope India and Tiger Triumph are the exercise layer.
The US Pacific Command, established in 1947, was renamed Indo-Pacific Command in May 2018, partly as a signal to India, and resumed its original title under Secretary Pete Hegseth on 16 June 2026 while keeping Indo-Pacific Command as its statutory name; its area of responsibility runs from the US west coast to India’s western border, while CENTCOM covers West Asia and Pakistan. India buys P-8I aircraft, C-17 and C-130J transports, Apache and Chinook helicopters, MQ-9B drones and GE F404 and F414 engines from the United States.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (bilateral relations, groupings); GS3 (defence technology, security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** foundational agreements, interoperability, Major Defense Partner, strategic autonomy, Indo-Pacific. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Mixing up COMCASA (communications security) with BECA (geospatial intelligence). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** GSOMIA 2002, LEMOA 2016, COMCASA 2018, BECA 2020; Major Defense Partner 2016; STA-1 in 2018. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does the renaming of the Indo-Pacific Command signal a downgrade of India in US strategy? |
Question 11 of 17
1. AIME : ASEAN navies
2. Varuna : France
3. Yudh Abhyas : Japan
4. Garuda : France
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
The ASEAN-India Maritime Exercise brings together the Indian Navy and ASEAN navies; the first was co-hosted with Singapore in May 2023 and AIME-2026 was held in the Philippines.
Pair 2Correct
Varuna is the India-France naval exercise.
Pair 3Incorrect
Yudh Abhyas is the India-United States army exercise; the India-Japan army exercise is Dharma Guardian.
Pair 4Correct
Garuda is the India-France air force exercise.
Analysis
INS Sahyadri and INS Kulish completed AIME-2026 under the theme “Unwavering in Trust, United at Sea”, with harbour and sea phases covering humanitarian assistance, visit-board-search-seizure and cross-deck helicopter operations, which the Defence Ministry linked to the Act East Policy and the MAHASAGAR vision.
Concept note
India’s exercise calendar is a Prelims staple. Naval: Malabar (US, Japan, Australia), Varuna (France), Konkan (UK), Indra (Russia, tri-service), JIMEX (Japan), AUSINDEX (Australia), SIMBEX (Singapore), SLINEX (Sri Lanka), Samudra Shakti (Indonesia), Bongosagar (Bangladesh), MILAN (multilateral, Visakhapatnam) and AIME (ASEAN).
Army: Yudh Abhyas and Vajra Prahar (US), Dharma Guardian (Japan), Garuda Shakti (Indonesia), Mitra Shakti (Sri Lanka), Sampriti (Bangladesh), Surya Kiran (Nepal), Ajeya Warrior (UK), Shakti (France), Nomadic Elephant (Mongolia), Hand-in-Hand (China, suspended). Air: Garuda (France), Cope India (US), Eastern Bridge (Oman), Desert Knight and Desert Flag (UAE), Tarang Shakti (multilateral, 2024).
AIME was first co-hosted by India and Singapore from 2 to 8 May 2023 with a harbour phase at Changi and a sea phase in the South China Sea; it sits within the ASEAN-India Comprehensive Strategic Partnership (2022). MAHASAGAR (Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions), announced in March 2025, succeeded SAGAR (2015) as India’s Indian Ocean doctrine.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (India-ASEAN, Act East); GS3 (maritime security, defence cooperation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** interoperability, Act East, MAHASAGAR, HADR, maritime domain awareness. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Pairing Yudh Abhyas with Japan; it is with the United States, while Dharma Guardian is with Japan. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** AIME is ASEAN, Malabar is Quad, MILAN is multilateral at Visakhapatnam; Varuna (navy) and Garuda (air) are both with France. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does exercising with ASEAN navies in the South China Sea serve India’s interests or provoke China? |
Question 12 of 17
1 The National Quantum Mission was approved in 2023 with an outlay of about Rs 6,003 crore for the period 2023-31.
2 The security of quantum key distribution rests on the computational difficulty of factoring large numbers.
3 The National Quantum Mission aims at satellite-based secure quantum communication over a range of about 2,000 km within India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Union Cabinet approved the National Quantum Mission in April 2023 with Rs 6,003.65 crore for 2023-24 to 2030-31, implemented by the Department of Science and Technology.
Statement 2Incorrect
Quantum key distribution derives its security from the laws of quantum mechanics (measuring a quantum state disturbs it, revealing eavesdropping); it is classical public-key cryptography, such as RSA, that rests on the difficulty of factoring, and post-quantum cryptography uses new mathematical problems believed resistant to quantum computers.
Statement 3Correct
The Mission targets satellite-based quantum communication between ground stations about 2,000 km apart, inter-city QKD and multi-node networks.
Analysis
India’s longest free-space QKD link yet, 5.56 km, was demonstrated on 27-28 September 2026 between BISAG-N and IIT Gandhinagar by QNu Labs, with a quantum bit error rate under 5 per cent and secure key rates of 230 to 260 bits per second, integrated with BISAG-N’s post-quantum “Vedic Kavach” platform.
Concept note
Quantum key distribution lets two parties share an encryption key encoded in quantum states, usually photon polarisation; any interception alters the states and is detected. Fibre-based QKD is limited to a few hundred kilometres by loss; free-space links through the atmosphere are the stepping stone to satellite QKD, which China demonstrated with the Micius satellite in 2017.
India’s National Quantum Mission (approved 19 April 2023) has four thematic hubs: quantum computing (IISc Bengaluru), quantum communication (IIT Madras with C-DOT), quantum sensing and metrology (IIT Bombay) and quantum materials and devices (IIT Delhi), with goals including 50 to 1,000 physical qubit computers, 2,000 km satellite QKD and multi-node quantum networks. DRDO and IIT Delhi demonstrated a 100 km fibre QKD in 2022, and ISRO demonstrated 300 m free-space QKD in 2021.
BISAG-N (Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics) is an autonomous body under MeitY at Gandhinagar. Post-quantum cryptography, standardised by NIST in 2024, is software-based and complements hardware QKD.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (science and technology, cyber security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** quantum-safe communication, QKD versus post-quantum cryptography, satellite QKD, National Quantum Mission. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking QKD is a form of encryption or rests on mathematics; it distributes keys using physics, and the message is then encrypted classically. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NQM April 2023, Rs 6,003.65 crore, 2023-31, DST; four hubs; 2,000 km satellite QKD goal. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India mandate quantum-safe encryption for its banking and power grids by a fixed date? |
Question 13 of 17
1 Under Article 324, the Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
2 Any other Election Commissioner can be removed only on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
3 The Constitution itself provides that the Commission shall decide by majority where its members disagree.
4 The Constitution fixes the number of Election Commissioners other than the Chief Election Commissioner at two.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The proviso to Article 324(5) gives the CEC the removal protection of a Supreme Court judge.
Statement 2Correct
The same proviso says other Election Commissioners may be removed only on the CEC’s recommendation.
Statement 3Incorrect
The majority rule is statutory, inserted into the 1991 Act on Election Commissioners by the ordinance of 1 October 1993 and the Amendment Act of January 1994, upheld in T.N. Seshan v Union of India (1995), and now carried in Section 18 of the 2023 Act, which repealed the 1991 Act; the Constitution is silent on it.
Statement 4Incorrect
Article 324(2) leaves the number of other Election Commissioners to the President, “if any”; the President fixed it at two in 1993.
Analysis
Writing in The Indian Express on 4 October 2026 amid reports of differences inside the Commission, constitutional lawyer Shubham Kumar recalls that the five-judge Bench led by Chief Justice A.M. Ahmadi rejected Seshan’s claim that the CEC’s tenure protection made him superior, holding the CEC first among equals.
Concept note
Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission, consisting of the CEC and such other Election Commissioners as the President may fix, appointed by the President subject to any law of Parliament. The Commission was single-member until 16 October 1989, when two commissioners were appointed for a few months, and permanently multi-member from 1 October 1993, when M.S. Gill and G.V.G. Krishnamurthy joined T.N. Seshan.
The 1993 ordinance, later Act 4 of 1994, added Sections 9 and 10 to the 1991 Act: business is transacted unanimously where possible and by majority otherwise, and all members have equal pay and tenure. In S.S. Dhanoa v Union of India (1991) the Court held additional commissioners were not obligatory; in T.N. Seshan v Union of India (14 July 1995) it upheld the majority rule and equality.
In Anoop Baranwal (2 March 2023) a Constitution Bench prescribed an interim selection committee of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition and the Chief Justice until Parliament legislated; the 2023 Act replaced the Chief Justice with a Union Cabinet Minister, and a challenge to that Act produced a split verdict in September 2026 on whether two judges could decide it.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (constitutional bodies, appointment to constitutional posts, judiciary). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** first among equals, institutional independence, majority rule, security of tenure, collegiality. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading the majority rule into Article 324; it is statutory (the 1991 Act as amended in 1993-94, now Section 18 of the 2023 Act). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Proviso to Article 324(5): CEC removable like a Supreme Court judge; other ECs only on the CEC’s recommendation; Seshan case 14 July 1995, five judges. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should all three Election Commissioners get the CEC’s removal protection? |
Question 14 of 17
1 The Act is gender-neutral as regards both the victim and the offender.
2 The Act defines a "child" as any person below the age of sixteen years.
3 Under the Act, any person who has knowledge that an offence has been committed is legally bound to report it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
POCSO protects children of any gender and applies to offenders of any gender, unlike the rape provisions of the IPC and now the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, which define the victim as a woman.
Statement 2Incorrect
Section 2(1)(d) defines a child as a person below eighteen years.
Statement 3Correct
Section 19 imposes mandatory reporting on any person, and Section 21 penalises failure to report.
Analysis
An Indian Express column of 4 October 2026 by Katyayani Sanjay Bhatia cites NCRB’s Crime in India 2024, which records that in cases under Sections 4 and 6 of POCSO only 1,492 of 44,126 involved an unknown offender, and a Delhi High Court order of 22 September 2026 directing that a trial judge’s message of encouragement be delivered to a seven-year-old survivor along with her compensation.
Concept note
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 came into force on 14 November 2012 to give effect to the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child. It defines graded offences: penetrative sexual assault (Section 4), aggravated penetrative sexual assault (Section 6, including by a relative, police officer or person in a position of trust), sexual assault (Section 8), aggravated sexual assault (Section 10), sexual harassment (Section 12) and use of a child for pornographic purposes (Section 14).
The 2019 amendment raised the minimum punishment for penetrative assault on a child under sixteen to twenty years and allowed the death penalty for aggravated penetrative assault. Procedural protections include recording the child’s statement at home by a woman officer not in uniform (Section 24), child-friendly trial in camera with no aggressive questioning (Section 33), shielding the child from the accused (Section 36), Special Courts (Section 28) and a presumption of guilt once foundational facts are proved (Section 29).
Compensation is ordered under Section 33(8) and Rule 9 of the POCSO Rules, 2020. The National and State Commissions for Protection of Child Rights monitor implementation under Section 44.
NCRB data consistently show that most offenders are known to the child.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (laws for vulnerable sections, child rights); GS1 (society, gender); GS4 (empathy, institutional ethics). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** known-offender reality, mandatory reporting, child-friendly procedure, victim compensation, Special Courts. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Giving sixteen as the POCSO age limit; it is eighteen, which also makes consensual adolescent relationships a live legal debate. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** POCSO in force 14 November 2012; child under 18; gender-neutral; Section 19 mandatory reporting; 2019 amendment on sentences. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should safety education for children focus on strangers when the data show most offenders are known? |
Question 15 of 17
Statement-I: The National Education Policy, 2020 recommends that the medium of instruction, wherever possible, be the home language or mother tongue until at least Grade 5.
Statement-II: Article 350A of the Constitution makes instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage a fundamental right of every child in India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Paragraph 4.11 of NEP 2020 says the medium of instruction until at least Grade 5, but preferably till Grade 8 and beyond, will be the home language, mother tongue, local or regional language wherever possible.
Statement IIIncorrect
Article 350A, added by the 7th Amendment in 1956, directs every State and local authority to endeavour to provide adequate facilities for mother-tongue instruction at the primary stage to children of linguistic minority groups; it is a directive to the State, not a fundamental right, and it is limited to linguistic minorities.
Analysis
Vineet Nayar argues in The Indian Express that a child taught first in a language she understands gains the confidence to ask questions, the skill that matters most when machines can supply answers, and that the language debate should begin with the medium of early instruction rather than the number of languages taught.
Concept note
The constitutional provisions on language in education are Article 29 (right of any section of citizens to conserve its language), Article 30 (minorities’ right to establish educational institutions), Article 350A (mother-tongue instruction at the primary stage for linguistic minorities, inserted by the 7th Amendment, 1956, on the States Reorganisation Commission’s recommendation), Article 350B (Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities) and Article 21A (free and compulsory education for ages 6 to 14, inserted by the 86th Amendment, 2002). The three-language formula came from the Kothari Commission (1964-66) and the National Policy on Education, 1968, and NEP 2020 retains it with flexibility and no language imposed on any State.
NEP 2020 recommends the home-language medium in the foundational and preparatory stages, bilingual textbooks and early exposure to English and other languages as subjects. NIPUN Bharat (2021) targets foundational literacy and numeracy by Grade 3.
The Census of 2011 recorded 121 languages and 19,569 raw mother tongues; the Eighth Schedule lists 22 languages. The medium of instruction remains a Centre-State flashpoint, and private English-medium schooling continues to grow.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (education policy, constitutional provisions); GS1 (language and society); GS4 (teacher attitude, dignity). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** comprehension before competence, foundational literacy, multilingual classrooms, confidence to question, English as a subject. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating Article 350A as a universal right; it is a directive to States and applies to linguistic minorities at the primary stage. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NEP 2020 para 4.11 (Grade 5, preferably Grade 8); Article 350A via the 7th Amendment, 1956; Kothari Commission 1964-66. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** As a District Collector, how would you respond to parents who want English-medium government schools? |
Question 16 of 17
Facts
Option (d) is NOT correct: the Extradition Act, 1962 allows extradition to treaty States and, under Section 3, to non-treaty States by notification on the basis of an arrangement or an assurance of reciprocity, and India has extradition arrangements with several countries besides its roughly 48 treaties. Option (a) is correct: the 1962 Act governs the process and the MEA is the nodal authority. Option (b) is correct: deportation is unilateral and does not need a treaty, which is why the tempting confusion between the two matters.
Option (c) is correct: the political-offence exception appears in India’s treaties, including the 2013 treaty with Bangladesh, though many violent offences are excluded from it.
Analysis
On 3 October 2026 the Home Minister announced that Navpreet Singh, a narcotics trafficker who had obtained Turkish citizenship under a false identity, was deported from Türkiye, while on the same day India’s High Commissioner in Dhaka said Sheikh Hasina’s extradition could proceed only through a legal process under the 2013 treaty.
Concept note
Extradition is the surrender of a person by one State to another for trial or punishment, under a treaty or arrangement and through courts; deportation is a State’s unilateral removal of a foreign national under immigration law, with no role for the receiving State’s request. In India the Extradition Act, 1962 governs both outgoing requests and surrender; the Ministry of External Affairs (CPV Division) is the nodal agency, and a magistrate conducts an inquiry before the Central Government decides.
Grounds for refusal include political offences, the risk of persecution, double jeopardy and lapse of time; many treaties exclude terrorism and serious violent crimes from the political-offence exception. India has treaties with about 48 countries and arrangements with about 12.
The India-Bangladesh Extradition Treaty of 2013, amended in 2016 to drop the requirement of a court-issued arrest warrant, contains the political-offence exception but excludes offences such as murder. Interpol Red Notices are requests to locate and provisionally arrest, not extradition orders.
Domestic drug law rests on the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, enforced by the Narcotics Control Bureau (1986).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international law, bilateral treaties); GS3 (organised crime, narcotics, internal security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** political-offence exception, reciprocity, dual criminality, Red Notice, narco-terror networks. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating deportation and extradition as the same; deportation is unilateral under immigration law, extradition is a treaty-based judicial process. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Extradition Act 1962, MEA nodal; non-treaty extradition possible by arrangement under Section 3; India-Bangladesh treaty 2013, amended 2016. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India refuse Bangladesh’s extradition request for Sheikh Hasina on political-offence grounds? |
Question 17 of 17
Facts
The Strait of Hormuz links the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman, which in turn opens into the Arabian Sea; it lies between Iran to the north and Oman’s Musandam exclave and the UAE to the south, and carries about a fifth of the world’s oil trade through shipping lanes about 3 km wide in each direction. The tempting distractor, the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden, describes Bab-el-Mandeb, the other West Asian chokepoint, where Houthi attacks occur; the Gulf of Aden and the Arabian Sea are joined by open water, not a strait.
Analysis
The Indian Embassy in Oman coordinated the rescue of five Indian seafarers from the Kuwait-flagged tanker MT Kazimah III after it was struck by a projectile in the Strait of Hormuz on 3 October 2026, one of several attacks on commercial shipping during the West Asia conflict.
Concept note
The West Asian chokepoints are a Prelims map staple. The Strait of Hormuz (Persian Gulf to Gulf of Oman) is about 33 km wide at its narrowest and carries most of the oil exports of Saudi Arabia, Iraq, Kuwait, Iran, Qatar and the UAE; Saudi Arabia’s East-West pipeline to Yanbu on the Red Sea and the UAE’s Habshan-Fujairah pipeline to the Gulf of Oman are the bypasses.
Bab-el-Mandeb (Red Sea to Gulf of Aden) lies between Yemen and Djibouti and Eritrea, with Perim island in the strait, and leads to the Suez Canal; Houthi attacks since late 2023 have diverted shipping around the Cape of Good Hope. The Suez Canal links the Mediterranean to the Red Sea.
For India, over half of crude imports and most LNG from Qatar pass through Hormuz, and India supplies about 12 per cent of the world’s seafarers, so attacks on shipping touch energy security and citizen welfare at once. The Indian Navy’s Operation Sankalp (since 2019) escorts Indian-flagged vessels in the Gulf, and the Information Fusion Centre for the Indian Ocean Region at Gurugram tracks maritime incidents.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (world geography, chokepoints); GS2 (West Asia policy); GS3 (energy and maritime security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** chokepoints, sea lines of communication, energy security, seafarer welfare, Operation Sankalp. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing Hormuz with Bab-el-Mandeb; Hormuz is the Gulf’s exit, Bab-el-Mandeb is the Red Sea’s. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Hormuz: Persian Gulf to Gulf of Oman, Iran and Oman’s Musandam; Bab-el-Mandeb: Red Sea to Gulf of Aden, Yemen and Djibouti. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should India protect its seafarers and energy supplies when a chokepoint becomes a war zone? |
Performance
Question-wise Result