UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 3 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
16 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 16
1 Marriage and divorce, adoption, wills and succession are subjects in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule.
2 Article 44, which directs the State to endeavour to secure a uniform civil code, is enforceable by the Supreme Court as a Fundamental Right.
3 Gujarat’s Uniform Civil Code does not apply to members of the Scheduled Tribes.
4 A Bill reserved by a Governor for the consideration of the President is dealt with by the President under Article 111.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Entry 5 of List III covers marriage and divorce, infants and minors, adoption, wills, intestacy and succession, joint family and partition, and matters governed by personal law.
Statement 2Incorrect
Article 44 is a Directive Principle in Part IV; Article 37 makes Directive Principles non-justiciable.
Statement 3Correct
Section 2 of the Gujarat code excludes Scheduled Tribes within Article 366(25) read with Article 342, and groups whose customary rights are protected under Part XXI.
Statement 4Incorrect
Article 111 deals with assent to Bills passed by Parliament; a State Bill reserved by the Governor under Article 200 goes to the President under Article 201.
Analysis
A gazette notification dated 1 October 2026 recorded the President’s assent to the Gujarat Uniform Civil Code, 2026; Gujarat is the second State after Uttarakhand to enact one.
Concept note
Personal law sits in Entry 5 of the Concurrent List, so both Parliament and the States can legislate on it. Most personal law is central legislation: the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, the Special Marriage Act, 1954, the Indian Succession Act, 1925, and the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937.
A State code that departs from these is repugnant to them. Under Article 254(1) a repugnant State law is void to that extent, but under Article 254(2) it prevails in the State if it was reserved for the President’s consideration and received assent, subject to Parliament’s power to amend or repeal it later.
That is why Uttarakhand’s code (assent in March 2024, in force on 27 January 2025) and Gujarat’s code (assent on 17 September 2026) went to the President. Goa follows the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, continued after liberation.
The Supreme Court urged a uniform code in Shah Bano (1985) and Sarla Mudgal (1995), while the 21st Law Commission (2018) found it neither necessary nor desirable at that stage.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Directive Principles, Centre-State legislative relations); GS1 (secularism, women). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Article 254(2) route, gender justice, customary-law exemptions, piecemeal uniformity. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming personal law is a State List subject; it is Concurrent (Entry 5, List III). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 200 (Governor reserves) and Article 201 (President assents to a reserved State Bill); Article 111 is for Parliament. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should a uniform civil code come from Parliament or be built State by State? |
Question 2 of 16
Statement-I: A Suspension of Operations agreement is a final peace settlement under which insurgent groups surrender all their weapons and disband.
Statement-II: Under the Suspension of Operations agreements in Manipur, cadres of signatory groups are to stay in designated camps and their weapons are kept under custody arrangements.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement IIncorrect
An SoO is a truce, not a settlement; security forces suspend operations, the groups stop violence, and both enter political dialogue, while the groups retain their identity. Final settlements, such as the Bodo Accord of 2020, involve surrender and rehabilitation.
Statement IICorrect
The ground rules require cadres to live in designated camps and weapons to be kept in custody; the re-negotiated pact of 4 September 2025 moved weapons to the nearest CRPF and BSF camps and relocated seven camps.
Analysis
The Hindu reported on 3 October 2026 that the Home Ministry had not renewed the pact with Kuki-Zo groups after it expired on 4 September, keeping it in abeyance until all weapons are surrendered.
Concept note
The tripartite SoO with Kuki-Zo groups was first signed on 22 August 2008 by the Centre, the Manipur government and two umbrella bodies, the Kuki National Organisation and the United People’s Front, covering about two dozen groups. It was renewed periodically.
After ethnic violence between Meitei and Kuki-Zo people began on 3 May 2023, valley groups demanded its abrogation, and in February 2024 the State government declined to extend it. The Centre re-signed it on 4 September 2025 on revised ground rules: Manipur’s territorial integrity, relocation of seven camps, fewer camps, weapons moved to CRPF and BSF camps, and verification to weed out foreign nationals.
President’s Rule was imposed in February 2025 and revoked in February 2026. Other instruments in the North-East include the NSCN (I-M) ceasefire of 1997 and the Framework Agreement of 2015, and accords such as Bodo (2020) and Karbi Anglong (2021).
Article 355 obliges the Union to protect States against internal disturbance.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (internal security, North-East); GS2 (Centre-State relations, emergency provisions). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** truce versus settlement, designated camps, arms recovery, hill-valley divide. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating ceasefire, Suspension of Operations and peace accord as the same instrument. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** SoO first signed 22 August 2008 (KNO and UPF); NSCN (I-M) ceasefire 1997; Framework Agreement 3 August 2015. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is letting an SoO lapse a lever for disarmament or a risk of renewed insurgency? |
Question 3 of 16
1. Equality before the law and equal protection of the laws 2. Protection of life and personal liberty 3. Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India 4. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion
How many of the above are available to foreign nationals in India?
Facts
Item 1 is correct: Article 14 applies to “any person” and so covers foreigners. Item 2 is correct: Article 21 protects all persons. Item 3 is incorrect: Article 19, including 19(1)(e), is available only to citizens; in Louis De Raedt v Union of India (1991) the Supreme Court held that a foreigner’s fundamental rights are confined to Article 21 and do not include the right to reside and settle.
Item 4 is correct: Article 25 extends to “all persons”.
Analysis
On 30 September 2026 the Delhi High Court held that a valid visa gives a foreign national no enforceable right to enter India, since admission is a sovereign function under the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025.
Concept note
Fundamental rights fall into two groups. Rights available to all persons, citizens and foreigners alike, include Articles 14, 20, 21, 21A, 22 (except for enemy aliens), 23, 24 and 25 to 28.
Rights available only to citizens are Articles 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30. The Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025, in force from 1 September 2025, repealed the Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920, the Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939, the Foreigners Act, 1946 and the Immigration (Carriers’ Liability) Act, 2000.
Its Section 3 requires a valid passport and visa but bars entry or stay of anyone found inadmissible on grounds such as national security, sovereignty, relations with a foreign State or public health, and Section 7 lets the Centre regulate the entry, presence and departure of foreigners. Courts have held that the power to expel foreigners is wide (Hans Muller, 1955) and that the right not to be deported is ancillary to Article 19(1)(e), which is for citizens only (Mohammad Salimullah, 2021).
Article 21 still protects foreigners inside India, as with the Chakma refugees in NHRC v State of Arunachal Pradesh (1996).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Fundamental Rights, judiciary); GS3 (border and internal security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** sovereign discretion, inadmissibility, reasoned decisions, Article 21 for all persons. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking Article 14 is limited to citizens; it is Article 15 that is. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Citizens only: Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, 30. All persons: 14, 20, 21, 21A, 22, 23, 24, 25 to 28. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should a foreigner refused entry at the border be told the reason? |
Question 4 of 16
1 Articles 323A and 323B, which provide for tribunals, were inserted in the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act.
2 Tribunals under Article 323A deal only with disputes relating to taxation.
3 Under the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2026, the National Tribunals Commission is to be headed by a retired judge of the Supreme Court or a retired Chief Justice of a High Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 inserted Part XIV-A with Articles 323A and 323B.
Statement 2Incorrect
Article 323A provides for administrative tribunals for recruitment and conditions of service of public servants; taxation is among the matters listed in Article 323B for other tribunals.
Statement 3Correct
Under the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2026, the Commission has a chairperson who has been a Supreme Court judge or a High Court Chief Justice, two judicial members and two technical members.
Analysis
Rules for the National Tribunals Commission, issued on 30 September and published on 1 October 2026, set pay, require vacancy processes to start six months ahead, and create an inquiry mechanism for misconduct.
Concept note
Tribunals were meant to give specialised, faster adjudication outside ordinary courts. Article 323A covers administrative tribunals (the Central Administrative Tribunal was set up in 1985), while Article 323B lets legislatures create tribunals on subjects such as taxation, industrial disputes, land reforms and elections.
In L. Chandra Kumar (1997), the Supreme Court held that judicial review by High Courts is part of the basic structure, so tribunal decisions remain subject to it. A long line of Madras Bar Association cases challenged executive control over tribunal appointments, tenure and service conditions.
On 19 November 2025 a Bench led by Chief Justice B.R. Gavai struck down key parts of the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021, including a four-year tenure and a minimum age of 50, and directed the Centre to create a National Tribunals Commission. Parliament passed the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2026 in August.
The Commission, headquartered in New Delhi, now runs selection for 16 tribunals and appellate bodies.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (judiciary, quasi-judicial bodies, separation of powers). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** tribunalisation, judicial independence, executive control, uniform service conditions. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing Article 323A (administrative tribunals, by Parliament only) with 323B (other matters, by Parliament or State legislatures). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Part XIV-A, 42nd Amendment (1976); L. Chandra Kumar (1997) restored High Court review. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Do tribunals deliver faster justice, or do they weaken judicial independence? |
Question 5 of 16
1 Article 121 of the Constitution bars any discussion in Parliament on the conduct of a judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court in the discharge of duties, except on a motion for removal.
2 Article 211 places a similar bar on discussion in the Legislature of a State.
3 The Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill, 2024 proposes to insert a new Article 82A on simultaneous elections.
4 A Joint Parliamentary Committee is an ad hoc committee constituted for a specific purpose.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 121 permits such discussion only upon a motion for presenting an address to the President for the removal of the judge.
Statement 2Correct
Article 211 bars State Legislatures from discussing the conduct of any judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court in the discharge of duties.
Statement 3Correct
The Bill proposes Article 82A to synchronise Lok Sabha and Assembly elections, with amendments to Articles 83, 172 and 327.
Statement 4Correct
A JPC is an ad hoc committee set up by a motion for a particular task and ends when it reports.
Analysis
The JPC on the One Nation, One Election Bills put off a proposed Supreme Court visit, listed for 6 October 2026, after Opposition members objected that sitting judges should not be consulted on a Bill they might later have to judge.
Concept note
The Constitution does not state the separation of powers in one article, but distributes functions: Parliament (Article 79) makes laws, the executive (Articles 73 and 74) implements them, and the Supreme Court (Article 124) interprets them and tests their validity. Several provisions protect judicial independence: Articles 121 and 211 on discussion of judges’ conduct, Article 125 on salaries charged on the Consolidated Fund, and Article 124(4) on removal by special majority.
The Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill, 2024 and the Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024 were introduced in the Lok Sabha in December 2024 and referred to a Joint Parliamentary Committee chaired by P.P. Chaudhary. They follow the report of the High-Level Committee on simultaneous elections chaired by former President Ram Nath Kovind (March 2024).
Parliamentary committees have met judges before on the administration of justice, such as e-Courts in 2022 and legal aid in March 2023, but not on the merits of a pending Bill.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Parliament, judiciary, electoral reforms). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** separation of powers, judicial independence, simultaneous elections, parliamentary scrutiny. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming a JPC is a standing committee; it is ad hoc, unlike the Public Accounts Committee. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 121 (Parliament) and Article 211 (State Legislature) on judges' conduct; proposed Article 82A for simultaneous polls. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can a legislative committee seek judges' views without compromising judicial independence? |
Question 6 of 16
1 It was set up in the aftermath of the oil crisis of 1973 and is headquartered in Paris.
2 Its members are required to hold emergency oil stocks equal to at least 90 days of their net oil imports.
3 India is a full member of the IEA.
4 India’s operational strategic petroleum reserves include a facility at Chandikhol in Odisha.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The IEA was founded in 1974 within the OECD framework after the 1973 oil shock and is based in Paris.
Statement 2Correct
Members must hold emergency stocks equal to at least 90 days of net imports and may act collectively in a supply disruption.
Statement 3Incorrect
India has been an association country since 2017; it applied for full membership in 2023, and full membership has so far been open only to OECD members, which India is not.
Statement 4Incorrect
India’s operational reserves are at Visakhapatnam, Mangaluru and Padur; Chandikhol is a planned Phase II site.
Analysis
On 2 October 2026 the G7 agreed to a coordinated release of 100 million barrels through the IEA over four months, front-loaded with diesel; IEA members had released a record 400 million barrels from March 2026.
Concept note
Strategic stocks are a buffer against supply shocks. The IEA’s collective actions have been rare: 1991 (Gulf War), 2005 (Hurricane Katrina), 2011 (Libya), two in 2022 after Russia’s invasion of Ukraine (about 182.7 million barrels in all), and the record 400 million barrels agreed on 11 March 2026 during the war involving Iran.
India, which imports most of its crude, built underground rock-cavern reserves through Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Ltd, a special purpose vehicle under the Oil Industry Development Board: Visakhapatnam (1.33 million tonnes), Mangaluru (1.5) and Padur (2.5), a total of 5.33 million tonnes, roughly nine to ten days of consumption. Phase II plans add Chandikhol in Odisha and a second facility at Padur, partly with private and foreign partners.
Part of the Mangaluru cavern has been leased to the UAE’s ADNOC. Refiners also hold commercial stocks, which together give India a larger cushion than the SPR alone.
Deeper cover would need more caverns and long-term supply contracts.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (energy security, infrastructure); GS2 (international institutions, West Asia). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** strategic reserves, collective action, supply diversification, import dependence. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling India an IEA member; it is an association country. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** SPR sites: Visakhapatnam, Mangaluru, Padur (5.33 MMT); Phase II: Chandikhol, Padur II. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India hold 90 days of stocks like IEA members, and who should pay for them? |
Question 7 of 16
1 The National Payments Corporation of India is a not-for-profit company promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Indian Banks' Association.
2 UPI, RuPay and IMPS are all operated by the National Payments Corporation of India.
3 The Merchant Discount Rate is a fee paid by the customer to her own bank on each digital payment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
NPCI was incorporated in 2008 as a not-for-profit company (under Section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956, now Section 8 of the 2013 Act), promoted by the RBI and the Indian Banks’ Association; the RBI authorises the payment systems it runs under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
Statement 2Correct
NPCI runs UPI, RuPay, IMPS, NACH, AePS and other retail systems.
Statement 3Incorrect
The MDR is charged to the merchant by the acquiring bank or payment provider, not to the customer.
Analysis
UPI handled about 145 billion transactions worth Rs 177 lakh crore in April-September 2026, up 27 per cent in volume; a 0.4 per cent MDR on merchant UPI payments above Rs 2,000 takes effect on 15 October.
Concept note
UPI, launched in 2016, lets bank accounts transact in real time through a single virtual address and has become the backbone of India’s digital public infrastructure for payments. NPCI operates it under the oversight of the Reserve Bank of India, which regulates payment systems under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
From January 2020, the government set the MDR at zero on RuPay debit cards and UPI through Section 10A of that Act and Section 269SU of the Income-tax Act, reimbursing banks through an incentive scheme. An NPCI circular of 15 September 2026 set a 0.4 per cent MDR, capped at Rs 300, on merchant payments above Rs 2,000 from 15 October 2026; the Supreme Court declined to stay it on 28 September and sought the Centre’s reply on the legal character of the charge.
Debates continue on market concentration among UPI apps, the cost of running the system, and fraud. India has linked UPI with several countries, including Singapore’s PayNow, for cross-border payments.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (banking, digital payments); GS2 (regulatory bodies). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** digital public infrastructure, zero-MDR policy, financial inclusion, concentration risk. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the RBI runs UPI; NPCI runs it, the RBI regulates it. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NPCI set up 2008 by RBI and IBA; UPI launched 2016; MDR is paid by the merchant. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Who should pay for the infrastructure of free digital payments? |
Question 8 of 16
1 IN-SPACe is the single-window agency that authorises space activities of non-governmental entities in India.
2 NewSpace India Limited is a public sector company that acts as the commercial arm of ISRO.
3 A CubeSat is a class of small satellite built from standard units of about 10 cm on each side.
4 Thermal infrared sensors detect radiation emitted by the Earth’s surface and can therefore image at night.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre, created after the 2020 reforms, promotes and authorises private space activity.
Statement 2Correct
NSIL, a Central Public Sector Enterprise under the Department of Space set up in 2019, handles commercial launches and technology transfer.
Statement 3Correct
A CubeSat unit (1U) is about 10 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm and weighs around 1.3 to 2 kg.
Statement 4Correct
Thermal infrared sensing records emitted heat, not reflected sunlight, so it works by day and night.
Analysis
SpaceX’s Transporter-18 mission deployed Indian private payloads on 2 October 2026, including TAPAS-1 by SatLeo Labs, India’s first commercial thermal-imaging payload, Dhruva Space’s LEAP-2 and TakeMe2Space’s MOI-1A.
Concept note
In June 2020 the government opened end-to-end space activities to private firms and created IN-SPACe as an autonomous body in the Department of Space to authorise and promote them. The Indian Space Policy, 2023 set out the roles of ISRO (research and development), NSIL (commercial arm, demand-driven missions) and IN-SPACe (authorisation and facilitation), and in 2024 the FDI policy for space was liberalised, with automatic-route limits for satellites, launch vehicles and components.
Private Indian firms now build satellites, launch vehicles and ground stations: Skyroot’s Vikram-S (2022) and Agnikul’s Agnibaan SOrTeD (2024) were early suborbital flights. Rideshare missions such as SpaceX’s Transporter series let small satellites reach orbit cheaply.
Thermal imaging has uses in agriculture (crop water stress), urban heat islands, forest fire detection and defence. Several States, including Gujarat, have notified space-tech policies to attract industry.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (space technology, indigenisation); GS2 (government policy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** NewSpace, rideshare, space start-ups, single-window authorisation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing NSIL (commercial arm of ISRO) with IN-SPACe (regulator and promoter for private players). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** IN-SPACe (2020), NSIL (2019), Indian Space Policy (2023); thermal imaging works at night. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India let private firms launch from their own spaceports? |
Question 9 of 16
1 It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
2 It is the State bird of Gujarat.
3 It is listed in Appendix I of the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals.
4 A female usually lays a clutch of four to six eggs every year.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The species is Critically Endangered, with most of the surviving population in Rajasthan.
Statement 2Incorrect
It is the State bird of Rajasthan.
Statement 3Correct
It was added to CMS Appendix I at COP13 in Gandhinagar in 2020.
Statement 4Incorrect
It usually lays a single egg, often once in one to two years, which is why recovery is slow.
Analysis
Project GIB is set to begin its rewilding phase with two captive-bred male chicks, expected to be released into enclosures in the Desert National Park, Jaisalmer, around 4 October 2026, during Wildlife Week.
Concept note
The Great Indian Bustard is a large ground bird of arid and semi-arid grasslands, protected under Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. Its population has fallen to about 150, with an estimate of 130 (plus or minus 20) in Rajasthan and a handful in Gujarat, Maharashtra and Karnataka.
Collisions with overhead power lines from renewable energy projects are the main cause of adult deaths; in M.K. Ranjitsinh v Union of India the Supreme Court ordered undergrounding of lines in priority areas in 2021 and modified the order in March 2024, recognising a right against the adverse effects of climate change. Project GIB, under way since 2013 with the Wildlife Institute of India and the Rajasthan Forest Department, set up conservation breeding centres at Sam and Ramdevra in Jaisalmer, where a captive flock of at least 98 birds has been raised: wild-collected eggs were incubated from 2019, and most of the flock is now born to captive pairs.
A “jumpstart” method, replacing infertile wild eggs with captive-laid ones, was also tried in Kutch. Survival of released captive-bred birds is expected to be low, so habitat protection remains the key.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (biodiversity, conservation); GS2 (Supreme Court on environment). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** conservation breeding, rewilding, power-line mortality, grassland ecosystems. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the GIB as Gujarat’s State bird; it is Rajasthan’s. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Critically Endangered; Schedule I WPA; CMS Appendix I (2020); Desert National Park, Jaisalmer. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should India balance renewable energy expansion with grassland species like the GIB? |
Question 10 of 16
1 The voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies was lowered from 21 to 18 years by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act.
2 Electoral rolls are prepared and revised under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
3 The Constitution provides that no person shall be ineligible for inclusion in an electoral roll on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The 61st Amendment Act, 1988 amended Article 326 to lower the voting age to 18.
Statement 2Incorrect
Electoral rolls are governed by the Representation of the People Act, 1950 (Section 21 provides for their revision); the 1951 Act governs the conduct of elections.
Statement 3Correct
Article 325 provides one general roll for every constituency and bars exclusion on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex.
Analysis
The Hindu’s editorial of 3 October 2026 argues that the Special Intensive Revision has removed about 13.4 crore electors from draft rolls across 30 States and UTs and threatens universal adult franchise.
Concept note
Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of electoral rolls and elections in the Election Commission. Article 325 provides for a single general roll per constituency, and Article 326 guarantees adult suffrage to every citizen of 18 or above, not otherwise disqualified.
The Representation of the People Act, 1950 deals with the allocation of seats, delimitation and electoral rolls, while the 1951 Act covers the conduct of elections, qualifications and disqualifications, and election disputes. The Registration of Electors Rules, 1960 prescribe Form 6 for inclusion, Form 7 for objections and deletions, and Form 8 for corrections.
Section 21(3) of the 1950 Act allows the Commission to order a special revision at any time. The Supreme Court upheld the 2025-26 Special Intensive Revision on 27 May 2026 while requiring reasoned notice, a hearing and an appeal.
In early October 2026 the Commission asked officials to re-enrol eligible electors left out within a month.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Representation of the People Acts, Election Commission, Fundamental Rights). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** universal adult franchise, burden of proof, procedural fairness, inclusive rolls. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Swapping the 1950 Act (rolls, seats) with the 1951 Act (conduct of elections, disqualifications). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 61st Amendment (1988) lowered voting age; Article 325 one roll; Form 6, 7, 8. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Who should bear the burden of proving a voter’s eligibility, the citizen or the state? |
Question 11 of 16
Statement-I: The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.
Statement-II: The National Tiger Conservation Authority was constituted under provisions inserted into the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 by an amendment in 2006.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The NTCA is a statutory authority under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, chaired by the Union Environment Minister.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2006 inserted Chapter IVB (from Section 38K), and Section 38L constitutes the NTCA; its statutory status flows from that law.
Analysis
The Hindu’s editorial of 3 October 2026 calls the release of the first tigress in Buxa Tiger Reserve a reactive rescue and argues for monitoring that prevents decline.
Concept note
Project Tiger began on 1 April 1973 with nine reserves. After tigers disappeared from Sariska in 2004-05, the Tiger Task Force (2005) led to the 2006 amendment creating the NTCA and the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau.
The NTCA approves tiger conservation plans, sets standards for tourism, conducts the All India Tiger Estimation every four years with the Wildlife Institute of India, and lays down protocols for translocation. Section 38V provides for core or critical tiger habitats, from which relocation must be voluntary and based on informed consent, and for buffer zones where coexistence is promoted.
Reintroductions restored tigers in Sariska (from 2008) and Panna (from 2009); Buxa in North Bengal received its first tigress, from Valmiki in Bihar, on 2 October 2026, with seven tigers planned over two years. Buxa adjoins Phibsoo Wildlife Sanctuary in Bhutan and Manas in Assam.
The Forest Rights Act, 2006 governs the rights of forest dwellers, including in tiger reserves.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (conservation, protected areas); GS2 (forest rights, statutory bodies). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** reintroduction, prey base, corridors, inviolate core, community consent. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling the NTCA a constitutional body or dating Project Tiger to 2006. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Project Tiger 1973; NTCA 2006 (WPA Section 38L); critical tiger habitat Section 38V. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is relocating villagers from tiger reserves conservation or dispossession? |
Question 12 of 16
1 A case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution must be heard by at least five judges.
2 A reference by the President under Article 143 must be heard by at least five judges.
3 The number of judges of the Supreme Court is fixed by the Constitution and can be changed only by a constitutional amendment.
4 The power to allocate cases and constitute Benches is vested in a collegium of the five senior-most judges.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 145(3) sets a minimum of five judges for such cases.
Statement 2Correct
Article 145(3) also covers references under Article 143.
Statement 3Incorrect
Article 124(1) lets Parliament increase the number by law; the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act was amended in 2026 to raise the strength to 38 including the Chief Justice.
Statement 4Incorrect
The Chief Justice of India is the Master of the Roster, as the Court held in 2017-18; the collegium deals with appointments, not listing.
Analysis
Suhrith Parthasarathy argues in The Hindu (3 October 2026) that the split verdict of 23 September on the 2023 law on appointing Election Commissioners shows a Court of many small Benches that needs a permanent Constitution Bench.
Concept note
The Supreme Court began in January 1950 with eight sanctioned judges including the Chief Justice. Parliament has raised the number by law several times, to 31 in 2008 and 34 in 2019; an ordinance of 16 May 2026, replaced by an Act assented on 11 August 2026, raised it to 38.
Article 145(3) assumed constitutional questions would be heard by larger Benches, but the Court now sits mostly in Benches of two, largely on special leave petitions under Article 136. A question of interpretation, following State of Jammu and Kashmir v Thakur Ganga Singh (1959), arises only when parties advance rival readings of a provision.
Under Article 141, law declared by the Supreme Court binds all courts. In Campaign for Judicial Accountability (2017) and Shanti Bhushan (2018), the Court held that the Chief Justice is the Master of the Roster.
The Law Commission’s 229th Report (2009) proposed a Constitution Bench in Delhi and regional Benches for appeals.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (judiciary, structure of the Supreme Court). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Constitution Bench, docket explosion, stare decisis, Master of the Roster. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Believing the number of Supreme Court judges is fixed in the Constitution; Parliament sets it by law. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 145(3): five judges minimum for constitutional interpretation and Article 143 references; strength 38 (2026). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India have a separate constitutional court, as some countries do? |
Question 13 of 16
1. United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) 2. International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID) 3. UN Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
Which of the above are part of the United Nations system rather than the World Bank Group?
Facts
Item 1 is correct: UNCITRAL is a subsidiary body of the UN General Assembly, set up in 1966, that drafts trade and arbitration rules; its Working Group III is debating investor-state dispute settlement reform. Item 2 is incorrect: ICSID, created by the 1965 Washington Convention, is part of the World Bank Group; India has not joined it. Item 3 is correct: UNCTAD, set up in 1964 and renamed UN Trade and Development, is a permanent body of the General Assembly and tracks investment treaties.
Analysis
Jyoti Singh argues in The Hindu (3 October 2026) that India’s revised Model BIT should draw on its recent treaties and on UNCTAD and UNCITRAL reform work.
Concept note
Investment treaties allow foreign investors to sue host states before international tribunals. Disputes are usually heard under the UNCITRAL Arbitration Rules or administered by ICSID, which is open only to states that have ratified its convention; because India is not a party, claims against it have used UNCITRAL rules, often seated at the Permanent Court of Arbitration in The Hague.
India adopted a cautious Model BIT in December 2015 after awards such as White Industries (2011), requiring five years of local remedies before arbitration and omitting most-favoured-nation treatment. Newer treaties with the UAE (2024), Uzbekistan (2024) and Israel (in force July 2026) shorten the local-remedies period or add state counterclaims.
UNCITRAL Working Group III is considering a permanent multilateral investment court, an appellate mechanism and rules on damages. A revised Indian model is reportedly awaiting Cabinet approval after the Union Budget 2025-26 promised a more investor-friendly approach.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international institutions, bilateral agreements); GS3 (FDI). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** investor-state dispute settlement, right to regulate, MFN scope, counterclaims. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating ICSID as a UN body; it belongs to the World Bank Group. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** UNCITRAL (1966), UNCTAD (1964) are UN bodies; India is not a party to the ICSID Convention. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India join ICSID to reassure investors? |
Question 14 of 16
Statement-I: A strong El Niño is often associated with below-normal southwest monsoon rainfall over India.
Statement-II: A positive Indian Ocean Dipole tends to intensify the adverse effect of El Niño on the Indian monsoon.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Warming of the central and eastern Pacific shifts rising air and convection eastward and weakens the monsoon circulation; many Indian droughts, such as 2002, 2009 and 2015, came in El Niño years.
Statement IIIncorrect
A positive IOD, with a warmer western Indian Ocean, usually supports monsoon rainfall and can offset El Niño, as in 1997 and 2019.
Analysis
The Indian Express editorial of 3 October 2026 argues that a strengthening El Niño after a 12.6 per cent monsoon deficit calls for field-level monitoring of ecological stress in forests, wetlands and reefs.
Concept note
The El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) has a warm phase (El Niño) and a cool phase (La Niña). El Niño is declared when sea surface temperature in the Niño 3.4 region of the equatorial Pacific stays at least 0.5 degrees Celsius above normal; above about 1.5 degrees it is called strong.
Its link with the monsoon is strong but not fixed: not every El Niño year is a drought year. The Indian Ocean Dipole compares the western and eastern Indian Ocean; a positive phase means a warmer west and tends to help the monsoon.
The India Meteorological Department, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, issues monsoon forecasts, and INCOIS in Hyderabad forecasts ocean conditions, including marine heat waves that bleach corals and hit fisheries. The 1998 El Niño caused mass coral bleaching across the Indian Ocean, including Lakshadweep.
Ecologists have urged a coordinated network to monitor forests, wetlands and reefs during the 2026-27 event.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (climatology, monsoon); GS3 (disaster management, climate adaptation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** teleconnection, ecological thresholds, early warning, climate resilience. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming every El Niño year causes drought; the IOD and other factors can offset it. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Niño 3.4 threshold +0.5 degrees Celsius; positive IOD aids the monsoon; INCOIS is in Hyderabad. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should a district administration prepare for a strong El Niño winter? |
Question 15 of 16
1. Young India : Mahatma Gandhi
2. Kesari : Bal Gangadhar Tilak
3. Al-Hilal : Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
4. The Bengalee : Surendranath Banerjea
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
Gandhi edited Young India from 1919, alongside the Gujarati Navajivan, and later Harijan from 1933.
Pair 2Correct
Tilak ran the Marathi Kesari and the English Mahratta from 1881.
Pair 3Correct
Maulana Azad started the Urdu weekly Al-Hilal in 1912.
Pair 4Correct
Surendranath Banerjea owned and edited The Bengalee.
Analysis
Hilal Ahmed, writing in The Indian Express of 3 October 2026, draws on Gandhi’s Young India writings of 1920, 1925 and 1929 to argue that Gandhi offers guidance for building democratic institutions, not only for protest.
Concept note
The nationalist press was central to India’s freedom movement, spreading political ideas and mobilising opinion despite curbs such as the Vernacular Press Act, 1878, which was repealed in 1882. Tilak’s Kesari and Mahratta carried his campaign for Swaraj; Azad’s Al-Hilal (1912) and later Al-Balagh appealed to Muslim nationalist opinion and were banned; Surendranath Banerjea’s The Bengalee voiced moderate nationalism.
Gandhi used Young India and Navajivan from 1919, and Harijan from 1933, to explain satyagraha, constructive work and his views on untouchability. In Young India of 28 August 1929 he called an awakened and intelligent public opinion the satyagrahi’s most potent weapon, and in 1920 he asked for an electorate that is impartial, independent and intelligent.
Other important papers include Amrita Bazar Patrika (Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh), The Hindu (1878), and Annie Besant’s New India.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (modern Indian history, the press in the national movement); GS4 (moral thinkers). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** public opinion, constructive programme, nationalist press, institution-building. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Attributing Al-Hilal to Muhammad Ali; his papers were Comrade and Hamdard. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Young India and Navajivan (Gandhi, 1919), Harijan (1933); Kesari and Mahratta (Tilak); Al-Hilal (Azad, 1912). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What would Gandhi think of today’s news media? |
Question 16 of 16
1. Champaran, 1917 : Grievances of indigo cultivators
2. Kheda, 1918 : Remission of land revenue after crop failure
3. Ahmedabad, 1918 : Wage dispute of textile mill workers
4. Bardoli, 1928 : A campaign led personally by Gandhi against salt tax
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
Gandhi took up the cause of indigo cultivators forced into the tinkathia system in Champaran in 1917, his first satyagraha in India.
Pair 2Correct
In Kheda in 1918 peasants sought remission of revenue after crop failure.
Pair 3Correct
In Ahmedabad in 1918 Gandhi undertook his first hunger strike in India over mill workers’ wages.
Pair 4Incorrect
The Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928 was led by Vallabhbhai Patel against an increase in land revenue; the salt campaign was the Dandi March of 1930.
Analysis
Dinesh Singh and Krishangi Sinha argue in The Indian Express (posted on Gandhi Jayanti, 2 October 2026) that Gandhian dissent seeks to persuade rather than humiliate, and that institutions gain legitimacy by listening.
Concept note
Gandhi developed satyagraha in South Africa, launching it in the Transvaal in 1906 against the law requiring Asians to register. In India his early campaigns were local and specific: Champaran (1917) against the tinkathia system, Ahmedabad (1918) over mill wages, and Kheda (1918) for revenue remission, where Vallabhbhai Patel emerged as an organiser.
These were followed by the Rowlatt Satyagraha (1919), Non-Cooperation (1920-22), the Civil Disobedience Movement beginning with the Dandi March (12 March to 6 April 1930) and Quit India (1942). The Bardoli Satyagraha (1928), led by Patel, won him the title “Sardar”.
Gandhi insisted on purity of means: non-violence, truthfulness, and respect for the opponent. The Constitution protects peaceful assembly under Article 19(1)(b), subject to restrictions for public order under Article 19(3); the Supreme Court has held that a blanket ban on protests at a site is not acceptable (Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan, 2018) but that public ways cannot be blocked indefinitely (Amit Sahni, 2020).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (Gandhian phase of the national movement); GS4 (ethics of dissent); GS2 (Article 19). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** satyagraha, purity of means, persuasion over coercion, democratic dissent. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Crediting Bardoli to Gandhi; Vallabhbhai Patel led it. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Champaran 1917, Ahmedabad 1918, Kheda 1918, Bardoli 1928 (Patel), Dandi 1930. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is a peaceful protest that blocks a highway Gandhian? |
Performance
Question-wise Result