UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 29 September 2026
Test Your Knowledge
16 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 16
1 Section 10A of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 bars banks and system providers from imposing charges on payments made through electronic modes notified by the Central Government.
2 The merchant discount rate on a UPI payment is borne by the customer making the payment.
3 The National Payments Corporation of India is a statutory body established under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 10A, inserted in 2019 and amended in 2026, now protects from charges only the modes the Central Government notifies; in September 2026 these were RuPay debit cards and UPI payments up to Rs 2,000.
Statement 2Incorrect
The merchant discount rate is deducted from what the merchant receives; the customer pays nothing.
Statement 3Incorrect
NPCI is a not-for-profit company promoted in 2008 by the RBI and the Indian Banks’ Association, and it operates payment systems under RBI authorisation.
Analysis
The Supreme Court has sought the Centre’s reply on a petition that questions the legal character of the 0.4 per cent charge on merchant UPI payments above Rs 2,000 and the breadth of the power in Section 10A.
Concept note
The Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 makes the Reserve Bank of India the regulator and supervisor of payment systems; no one can operate a payment system without its authorisation. The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2019 inserted Section 269SU in the Income-tax Act, 1961, requiring large businesses to offer prescribed electronic modes, and Section 10A in the 2007 Act, barring charges on those modes.
From 1 January 2020 the merchant discount rate on UPI and RuPay debit cards was zero, and the Centre compensated banks through an incentive scheme. The Taxation and Other Laws (Amendment) Act, 2026 delinked Section 10A from the income-tax law, so the Central Government now notifies which modes stay free.
A notification of 14 September 2026 listed RuPay debit cards and UPI payments up to Rs 2,000; an NPCI circular of 15 September set a 0.4 per cent MDR above that, capped at Rs 300, from 15 October 2026. NPCI, set up in 2008, runs UPI, RuPay, IMPS and other retail systems.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (payments, digital public infrastructure); GS2 (delegated legislation, regulators). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** merchant discount rate, cost recovery, notified modes, excessive delegation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking NPCI is a statutory body or that customers pay the MDR. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** RBI regulates under the 2007 Act; NPCI operates; the Centre notifies free modes under Section 10A. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should UPI remain free for all payments as public infrastructure? |
Question 2 of 16
1 It is compiled and released by the Office of the Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.
2 Manufacturing carries more than three-fourths of the total weight.
3 Water supply, sewerage and waste management is included as a separate sector.
4 It is compiled using the Paasche index formula.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
The IIP is compiled by the National Statistics Office of MoSPI; the Office of the Economic Adviser in DPIIT releases the Index of Eight Core Industries.
Statement 2Correct
Manufacturing’s weight is 76.062 per cent.
Statement 3Correct
The new series adds water supply, sewerage and waste management as a fourth sector, with a weight of 2.020 per cent.
Statement 4Incorrect
The IIP is a Laspeyres fixed-base index, which uses base-year weights.
Analysis
August 2026 output grew 8.0 per cent year on year, helped by a weak base in August 2025, when firms cut stocks ahead of the GST rate cuts.
Concept note
The IIP measures short-term changes in the volume of industrial production against a base year set at 100. MoSPI revised the base from 2011-12 to 2022-23 on the advice of a Technical Advisory Committee, whose report came out on 25 May 2026; the first release in the new series, for April 2026, was on 1 June 2026.
It is the tenth base revision since the first index, with base 1937. The new series has four sectors: mining and quarrying (11.053 per cent), manufacturing (76.062), electricity and gas supply (10.865), and water supply, sewerage and waste management (2.020).
The basket has 1,042 products in 463 item groups, adds minor and rare earth minerals, and gives separate indices for renewable and non-renewable electricity. Sector weights come from gross value added in the National Accounts with base 2022-23, and manufacturing weights from the Annual Survey of Industries.
The index is released 28 days after the reference month and uses the NIC 2025 classification. Output reported in value terms is deflated by the WPI until an output producer price index is adopted.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (industrial growth, measurement of the economy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** base effect, use-based classification, sequential momentum, statistical modernisation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Attributing the IIP to DPIIT; DPIIT releases the core index and the WPI. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Manufacturing about 76 per cent of IIP weight; new fourth sector is water supply, sewerage and waste management. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How can a headline growth rate mislead policymakers? |
Question 3 of 16
1 The number of judges of the Supreme Court is determined by Parliament by law.
2 Under Article 124(2), the Chief Justice of India must always be consulted in the appointment of a judge other than the Chief Justice.
3 The Collegium system was introduced by the Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act, 2014.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 124(1) provides for the Chief Justice and such number of other judges as Parliament may by law prescribe; the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956, as amended in 2026, fixes 38 including the CJI.
Statement 2Correct
The first proviso to Article 124(2) says the Chief Justice of India shall always be consulted.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Collegium emerged from the Second (1993) and Third (1998) Judges Cases; the 99th Amendment created the National Judicial Appointments Commission, which the Court struck down in 2015.
Analysis
The Collegium has recommended three High Court Chief Justices, including Justice Sunita Agarwal, for elevation; if appointed, the Court would have three sitting women judges.
Concept note
Article 124 establishes the Supreme Court and provides that its judges are appointed by the President after consultation with such judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts as the President considers necessary. In the First Judges Case (1981) the Court gave the executive primacy.
The Second Judges Case (1993) read “consultation” as concurrence and gave primacy to the judiciary, acting through the Chief Justice and two senior-most judges; the Third Judges Case (1998), an advisory opinion under Article 143, enlarged this to the CJI and four senior-most judges. The Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act, 2014 and the NJAC Act replaced the Collegium with a six-member commission, but in October 2015 a Constitution Bench struck both down as violating judicial independence, a basic feature.
The Memorandum of Procedure sets out the steps, and the government may return a name once for reconsideration. Parliament raised the Court’s strength from 34 to 38 in 2026.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (judiciary, separation of powers, basic structure). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** judicial primacy, Memorandum of Procedure, diversity on the Bench, transparency. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Believing the Constitution fixes the number of judges or created the Collegium. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Three Judges Cases: 1981, 1993, 1998; NJAC struck down 16 October 2015. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the Collegium publish reasons for its recommendations? |
Question 4 of 16
Statement-I: Petitions for disqualification of a legislator on the ground of defection are decided by the Speaker or Chairman of the House concerned.
Statement-II: In Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu, the Supreme Court held that the decision of the Speaker under the Tenth Schedule is final and immune from judicial review.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Paragraph 6 of the Tenth Schedule vests the decision on disqualification in the Speaker or Chairman.
Statement IIIncorrect
In Kihoto Hollohan (1992) the Court upheld the Speaker’s role but held that the Speaker acts as a tribunal and the decision is subject to judicial review on grounds such as mala fides and violation of natural justice.
Analysis
In Keisham Meghachandra Singh (2020) the Court said such petitions should normally be decided within three months; it has now recorded that the West Bengal Speaker will endeavour to decide petitions against 10 MLAs within that principle.
Concept note
The Tenth Schedule was added by the Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985 to curb defection. A member is disqualified for voluntarily giving up party membership or for voting or abstaining against the party whip without permission, unless the party condones it within 15 days; an independent who joins a party and a nominated member who joins a party after six months are also disqualified.
The 91st Amendment (2003) deleted the protection for a “split” of one-third, leaving only a merger backed by two-thirds of the legislature party (Paragraph 4). Paragraph 6 makes the Speaker or Chairman the deciding authority, and Paragraph 7, which barred courts, was struck down in Kihoto Hollohan as regards finality.
Delay by Speakers has been a recurring problem: in Keisham Meghachandra Singh the Court suggested three months as a reasonable time and asked Parliament to consider an independent tribunal. Disputes over which faction is the real party are decided by the Election Commission under Paragraph 15 of the Symbols Order, 1968.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Parliament and State legislatures, anti-defection law, judicial review). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Speaker as tribunal, reasonable time, independent tribunal, party discipline. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the Speaker’s decision cannot be challenged in court. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 52nd Amendment 1985; 91st Amendment 2003 removed the split clause. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should an independent tribunal replace the Speaker in deciding defection cases? |
Question 5 of 16
1 Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement with a minor is voidable at the option of the minor.
2 Under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, a "child" means an individual who has not completed eighteen years of age.
3 The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 prohibits tracking, behavioural monitoring and targeted advertising directed at children.
4 The age of majority for persons domiciled in India is fixed by the Indian Majority Act, 1875.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
In Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903) the Privy Council held a minor’s agreement to be void ab initio, not voidable, because Section 11 makes a minor incompetent to contract.
Statement 2Correct
Section 2(f) defines a child as a person under eighteen.
Statement 3Correct
Section 9 bars processing likely to harm a child and tracking, behavioural monitoring or targeted advertising directed at children.
Statement 4Correct
The Indian Majority Act, 1875 fixes the age of majority at eighteen.
Analysis
The Supreme Court has asked how children hold social media accounts when an account is a contract, and urged the Centre to act under the Intermediary Rules.
Concept note
Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 says agreements are contracts if made by competent parties with free consent, lawful consideration and a lawful object, and Section 11 says a person is competent only if of the age of majority, of sound mind and not disqualified by law. The Indian Majority Act, 1875 sets majority at eighteen.
Because a minor’s agreement is void from the start, a platform’s terms of service accepted by a child are not an enforceable contract. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 approaches the problem through data law: Section 9 requires verifiable consent of a parent or lawful guardian before processing a child’s personal data and bans tracking, behavioural monitoring and targeted advertising aimed at children, with exemptions that the government may notify.
The DPDP Rules were notified in November 2025, and most operative rules, including those on parental consent, apply eighteen months later, in 2027. Platforms are also bound by the IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021.
Australia set a minimum age of 16 for social media accounts from December 2025.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (child rights, digital governance); GS3 (cyber security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** verifiable parental consent, age assurance, duty of care, void ab initio. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling a minor’s contract voidable, or taking the DPDP age of a child as 13. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 11 Contract Act; Mohori Bibee 1903; DPDP Section 9. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India ban social media for children under 16, as Australia has? |
Question 6 of 16
1 It was established under the International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling signed in 1946.
2 India has been a member of the IWC since 1981.
3 The moratorium on commercial whaling adopted by the IWC also prohibits aboriginal subsistence whaling.
4 Japan withdrew from the IWC in 2019.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The ICRW, signed in Washington on 2 December 1946, created the IWC.
Statement 2Correct
India joined in 1981.
Statement 3Incorrect
The 1982 moratorium covers commercial whaling; aboriginal subsistence whaling continues under catch limits set by the IWC.
Statement 4Correct
Japan left the IWC in 2019 and resumed commercial whaling in its own waters.
Analysis
At the 70th IWC meeting in Hobart, Australia, marking the Convention’s 80th year, India called for science-based conservation, including of the Arabian Sea humpback whale.
Concept note
The International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling was signed in 1946 to conserve whale stocks and allow the orderly development of the whaling industry. Its Commission, with a secretariat near Cambridge in the United Kingdom, sets catch limits, sanctuaries and conservation measures in a Schedule to the Convention.
In 1982 the IWC adopted a moratorium on commercial whaling that took effect from the 1985-86 seasons; aboriginal subsistence whaling by indigenous communities continues under IWC limits, and Norway and Iceland whale under objection or reservation. The IWC declared the Indian Ocean Sanctuary in 1979 and the Southern Ocean Sanctuary in 1994.
In 2014 the International Court of Justice ruled that Japan’s Antarctic whaling programme was not for purposes of scientific research; Japan left the IWC in 2019. In India, all cetaceans are given the highest level of protection under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, and Project Dolphin, announced in 2020, covers dolphins and other cetaceans.
The Arabian Sea humpback whale is a small, non-migratory population.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (conservation, international environmental agreements); GS2 (international bodies). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** moratorium, sanctuary, science-based conservation, bycatch and ship strikes. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the moratorium bans all whaling, including aboriginal subsistence. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** ICRW 1946; moratorium 1982; India member 1981; Indian Ocean Sanctuary 1979. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is there a case for regulated commercial whaling of abundant species? |
Question 7 of 16
1 They are trusts set up by State Governments under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957.
2 They are funded by contributions linked to the royalty paid by mining leaseholders.
3 Their funds are to be used in line with the Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 9B of the MMDR Act, inserted by the 2015 amendment, requires the State Government to establish a DMF as a non-profit trust in every district affected by mining.
Statement 2Correct
Leaseholders pay the DMF an amount linked to royalty, which differs for leases granted before and after 12 January 2015.
Statement 3Correct
The PMKKKY, launched in 2015, guides how DMF funds are spent on mining-affected areas and people.
Analysis
A CAG audit tabled in Odisha found DMFs in Keonjhar, Sundargarh and Jajpur spending beyond the 40 per cent limit for indirectly affected areas through an undefined “common affected areas” category.
Concept note
District Mineral Foundations were created by the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015, which also moved mineral concessions to auctions. Section 9B requires each State to set up a DMF as a non-profit trust in every mining-affected district, to work for the interest and benefit of persons and areas affected by mining, in the manner the State prescribes.
Holders of mining leases pay the DMF a share linked to royalty: a higher rate for leases granted before 12 January 2015 and a lower rate for auctioned leases. The Centre’s Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana, launched in 2015 and revised in 2024, sets priorities: most funds for high-priority areas such as drinking water, health, education, sanitation, the environment and livelihoods, and for directly affected areas.
Odisha, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand hold the largest DMF collections. Recurring concerns include weak identification of affected people, spending on infrastructure far from mines, and limited participation of gram sabhas, which the Odisha audit again highlighted.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (mining, inclusive growth); GS2 (accountability, CAG). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** resource curse, benefit sharing, affected communities, social audit. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating DMF money as a central fund of the Mines Ministry. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 9B, MMDR Act; 2015 amendment; PMKKKY 2015 (revised 2024). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you ensure mining revenue actually reaches affected tribal villages? |
Question 8 of 16
1 A declaration adopted by the UN General Assembly is legally binding on all member states.
2 The Montevideo Convention on the Rights and Duties of States was adopted under the auspices of the League of Nations at Geneva.
3 Under the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea, the exclusive economic zone may extend up to 350 nautical miles from the baselines.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
General Assembly declarations are recommendatory and not binding, though they can shape customary law.
Statement 2Incorrect
The Montevideo Convention was signed in 1933 at the Seventh International Conference of American States in Montevideo, Uruguay.
Statement 3Incorrect
The EEZ extends up to 200 nautical miles; 350 nautical miles is an outer limit for the continental shelf.
Analysis
The first UN Declaration on Sea Level Rise, adopted by consensus, affirms a presumption of continued statehood and the stability of maritime zones for States losing land to rising seas.
Concept note
The Montevideo Convention of 1933 lists four qualifications of a State: a permanent population, a defined territory, a government and the capacity to enter into relations with other States. Rising seas threaten low-lying island States such as Tuvalu, Kiribati and the Maldives with the loss of territory and habitability, which raises the question of whether they would remain States.
The International Law Commission studied sea-level rise in relation to international law and concluded that States are not obliged to update baselines or the outer limits of maritime zones because of sea-level rise. The UN Declaration on Sea Level Rise, adopted by consensus at the 81st session of the General Assembly, affirms a presumption in favour of continued statehood and UN membership and says maritime zones established under UNCLOS may be maintained.
Under UNCLOS, the territorial sea extends up to 12 nautical miles, the contiguous zone up to 24, and the EEZ up to 200 from the baselines; the continental shelf may extend beyond 200 nautical miles, up to 350 or other limits set by the Convention. For India, with a long coastline and island territories, stable maritime zones matter for fisheries, seabed resources and security.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international law, UN); GS1 and GS3 (climate change, oceans). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** continuity of statehood, stable baselines, climate justice, loss and damage. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating a UNGA declaration as a treaty, or mixing up EEZ and continental shelf limits. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Montevideo 1933, four criteria; UNCLOS zones 12, 24, 200 nautical miles. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can a State exist without territory? |
Question 9 of 16
1 The Food Loss Index measures losses from harvest up to, but not including, the retail level.
2 The Food Waste Index, used to track Sustainable Development Goal target 12.3, is compiled by the Food and Agriculture Organization.
3 Sustainable Development Goal target 12.3 seeks to halve per capita global food waste at the retail and consumer levels by 2030.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Food loss, measured by the Food Loss Index, covers the supply chain from harvest up to but excluding retail.
Statement 2Incorrect
The Food Waste Index, covering retail, food service and households, is compiled by the UN Environment Programme; the FAO is the custodian of the Food Loss Index.
Statement 3Correct
Target 12.3 aims to halve per capita food waste at retail and consumer levels and to reduce losses along production and supply chains by 2030.
Analysis
India has run three national post-harvest loss surveys; the 2020-22 round estimated losses of about Rs 1.53 lakh crore a year, but data on household and retail waste remain thin.
Concept note
Sustainable Development Goal 12 is about responsible consumption and production. Target 12.3 has two indicators: 12.3.1(a), the Food Loss Index, whose custodian is the Food and Agriculture Organization, and 12.3.1(b), the Food Waste Index, whose custodian is the UN Environment Programme.
The UN General Assembly designated 29 September as the International Day of Awareness of Food Loss and Waste in 2019, and it was first observed in 2020. In India, the Ministry of Food Processing Industries commissioned a study by NABCONS for 2020-22 covering 54 commodities in 292 districts, which estimated losses of 3.89 to 5.92 per cent for cereals, 6.02 to 15.05 per cent for fruits and 4.87 to 11.61 per cent for vegetables.
Government responses include PM Kisan SAMPADA Yojana, Operation Greens, the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund and cold-chain support, while SATAT and GOBARdhan promote compressed biogas from organic waste, which also cuts methane from landfills.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (storage and marketing of produce, food security, environment). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** post-harvest management, cold chain, circular economy, methane mitigation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Swapping the custodians: FAO for loss, UNEP for waste. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** SDG 12.3; 29 September; NABCONS study 2020-22, 54 commodities. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is India’s food problem one of production or of distribution and loss? |
Question 10 of 16
Statement-I: Since 2018-19, the Minimum Support Prices announced by the Union Government have been fixed at a level of at least one and a half times the C2 cost of production.
Statement-II: The C2 cost of production includes the rental value of owned land and interest on owned fixed capital.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement IIncorrect
Since 2018-19 MSPs have been fixed at least 1.5 times the A2 + FL cost (paid-out costs plus imputed family labour), not C2.
Statement IICorrect
C2 adds the rental value of owned land and interest on owned fixed capital to A2 + FL, which is why it is the most comprehensive cost.
Analysis
The National Commission on Farmers chaired by M.S. Swaminathan recommended MSP at least 50 per cent above the weighted average cost of production, commonly read as C2 + 50 per cent; farm groups still demand it.
Concept note
The National Commission on Farmers was constituted on 18 November 2004 under M.S. Swaminathan and submitted five reports, the last in October 2006; the National Policy for Farmers, 2007 drew on them. Its central idea was that farm policy should be judged by farmers’ incomes, not only output.
The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices, set up in 1965 as the Agricultural Prices Commission, recommends MSPs for 22 mandated crops, and the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs decides. The CACP uses three cost concepts: A2, the paid-out costs of seeds, fertiliser, hired labour, machinery, irrigation and fuel; A2 + FL, which adds the imputed value of family labour; and C2, which further adds rent on owned land and interest on owned capital.
The 2018-19 Budget committed MSP at least 1.5 times the cost of production, implemented on A2 + FL. The difference between A2 + FL and C2 is large for crops grown on owned land, which is why the formula matters in farm debates.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (MSP, farm incomes, agricultural pricing). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** income security, cost concepts, price deficiency payment, farmer producer organisations. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the government adopted the C2 + 50 per cent formula. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** A2, A2 + FL, C2; CACP 1965; 22 mandated crops. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Would a legal guarantee of MSP at C2 + 50 per cent help or hurt farmers? |
Question 11 of 16
1 Article 15(2) of the Constitution prohibits denial of the use of wells, tanks and bathing ghats maintained wholly or partly out of State funds on grounds including caste.
2 Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
3 The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act was enacted in 1955.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 15(2) bars restrictions on access to shops, restaurants, hotels and places of entertainment, and on the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort, on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Statement 2Correct
Article 17 abolishes untouchability and makes enforcing any disability arising from it an offence.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Prevention of Atrocities Act was enacted in 1989; the 1955 law is the Untouchability (Offences) Act, renamed the Protection of Civil Rights Act in 1976.
Analysis
An op-ed argues that AI image and language models reproduce caste bias from unequal archives and calls for mandatory caste-bias testing.
Concept note
The Constitution attacks caste discrimination at several levels. Article 15 prohibits discrimination by the State and, in clause (2), by anyone in access to public places and the use of wells and tanks, a response to the denial of water that sparked movements such as the Mahad Satyagraha of 1927, when B.R. Ambedkar led Dalits to the Chavdar tank.
Article 17 abolishes untouchability; Parliament gave it force through the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955, renamed the Protection of Civil Rights Act in 1976. Continuing violence against Dalits and Adivasis, including massacres such as Karamchedu in 1985, led to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, with special courts and stricter penalties, amended in 2015 and 2018.
The new frontier is technology: AI systems trained on skewed data can reproduce stereotypes at scale, and India’s AI Governance Guidelines of November 2025 name bias as a risk but rely largely on voluntary measures.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (caste, social justice); GS2 (fundamental rights); GS3 and GS4 (AI ethics). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** algorithmic bias, representational harm, data justice, constitutional morality. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Dating the Atrocities Act to 1955 instead of 1989. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 15(2) wells and tanks; Article 17; PCR Act 1955 (renamed 1976); PoA Act 1989. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you audit an AI system for caste bias before it is used in public services? |
Question 12 of 16
1 Monsoon depressions forming over the Bay of Bengal generally move west-north-westwards along the monsoon trough.
2 The Odisha State Disaster Management Authority was constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
3 The India Meteorological Department classifies rainfall of 204.5 mm or more in 24 hours as extremely heavy.
4 The long period average of India’s southwest monsoon rainfall, based on 1971-2020, is about 87 cm.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Monsoon lows and depressions form over the north Bay of Bengal and travel west-north-west along the monsoon trough, bringing rain to eastern and central India.
Statement 2Incorrect
Odisha set up its State disaster authority in 1999, after the super cyclone, as the Orissa State Disaster Mitigation Authority, six years before the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
Statement 3Correct
204.5 mm or more in 24 hours is extremely heavy rain.
Statement 4Correct
The June-September LPA based on 1971-2020 is about 87 cm.
Analysis
An editorial argues that Odisha’s season of repeated Bay of Bengal systems shows its evacuation protocols have outpaced its drainage.
Concept note
Most of India’s monsoon rain comes from synoptic systems embedded in the seasonal flow. Low-pressure systems form over the head Bay of Bengal and move west-north-west along the monsoon trough, which runs from north-west India to the Bay; their frequency and track decide which regions get rain.
The IMD grades daily rainfall as heavy (64.5 to 115.5 mm), very heavy (115.6 to 204.4 mm) and extremely heavy (204.5 mm or more). Seasonal rainfall is compared with a long period average of about 87 cm, based on 1971-2020; 96 to 104 per cent is normal.
Odisha created a State disaster mitigation authority in December 1999 after the super cyclone and later built cyclone shelters, early warning and community evacuation that kept deaths low in cyclones Phailin (2013) and Fani (2019). The Disaster Management Act, 2005 later set up the NDMA under the Prime Minister and State authorities under Chief Ministers.
Repeated heavy spells on saturated soil, and slow drainage across flat deltas, create flood risks that evacuation alone cannot address.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (monsoon, physical geography); GS3 (disaster management, climate change). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** compound events, soil saturation, urban drainage, zero-casualty approach. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming every State disaster authority was created by the 2005 Act. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** IMD thresholds 64.5, 115.6, 204.5 mm; LPA about 87 cm (1971-2020). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Odisha saves lives in cyclones; why do its towns still flood? |
Question 13 of 16
1 The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 subsumes the Factories Act, 1948 and the Mines Act, 1952.
2 India has ratified the ILO Occupational Safety and Health Convention, 1981 (No. 155).
3 In 2022 the International Labour Conference added a safe and healthy working environment to the Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The OSH Code consolidates laws including the Factories Act, 1948, the Mines Act, 1952, the Building and Other Construction Workers Act, 1996 and the Contract Labour Act, 1970.
Statement 2Incorrect
India has not ratified Convention No. 155, nor the Promotional Framework Convention, 2006 (No. 187).
Statement 3Correct
In June 2022 the ILC made a safe and healthy working environment the fifth category of fundamental principles, and C155 and C187 fundamental conventions.
Analysis
A labour commissioner writes that the OSH Code makes safety information a worker’s right but lacks protection for whistle-blowers.
Concept note
Four labour codes replaced 29 central labour laws: the Code on Wages, 2019, and the Industrial Relations Code, the Code on Social Security and the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, all of 2020. They came into force on 21 November 2025.
The OSH Code covers safety, health, working hours, leave and welfare in factories, mines, docks, construction, plantations and other establishments. It sets duties for employers and employees, gives employees rights to safety information and to report hazards, creates safety committees and safety officers, and replaces the inspector with an Inspector-cum-Facilitator.
Labour is on the Concurrent List, so both the Centre and States frame rules. The ILO’s 1998 Declaration on Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work had four categories: freedom of association, forced labour, child labour and discrimination.
The 2022 addition of occupational safety and health made C155 and C187 fundamental conventions. India has ratified six of the older eight fundamental conventions.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (vulnerable sections, labour institutions); GS3 (labour reforms, employment). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** worker voice, whistle-blower protection, compliance burden, facilitation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming India has ratified all fundamental ILO conventions. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Codes in force 21 November 2025; ILO fifth principle added June 2022. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should an inspector be a facilitator or an enforcer? |
Question 14 of 16
Facts
The Graduation Approach, developed by BRAC in Bangladesh in the early 2000s, gives the poorest households a productive asset, a consumption stipend, training, savings support and regular mentoring, usually for up to two years, as a “big push” out of the poverty trap. The tempting distractor is the conditional cash transfer: Progresa (later Oportunidades) links cash to schooling and health, but gives no asset or livelihood package.
Analysis
Bihar’s Satat Jeevikoparjan Yojana and the Samaveshi Aajeevika Yojana under DAY-NRLM apply the approach through women’s self-help groups.
Concept note
India’s social protection increasingly runs on direct cash: PM-KISAN pays Rs 6,000 a year to landholding farmer families, and most States pay monthly sums to women, such as Madhya Pradesh’s Ladli Behna and West Bengal’s Lakshmir Bhandar. Direct Benefit Transfer, launched on 1 January 2013, rests on the JAM trinity of Jan Dhan accounts, Aadhaar and mobile phones.
Evidence from many countries shows unconditional cash improves food security and well-being. For the ultra-poor, however, small transfers may not overcome the lack of assets and skills.
BRAC’s Targeting the Ultra Poor programme combined assets, stipends, training and coaching; a six-country randomised evaluation published in 2015 by Abhijit Banerjee, Esther Duflo and colleagues found lasting gains in consumption, assets and income. Banerjee, Duflo and Michael Kremer received the 2019 Nobel Prize in Economics for experimental approaches to alleviating poverty.
The Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission, launched in 2011, provides the self-help group network through which such programmes reach women.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (welfare schemes, SHGs); GS3 (poverty, inclusive growth). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** big push, poverty trap, asset transfer, evidence-based policy. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing graduation programmes with conditional cash transfers. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** BRAC, Bangladesh; Nobel 2019 to Banerjee, Duflo, Kremer; DAY-NRLM 2011. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Are State cash transfers to women welfare or electoral competition? |
Question 15 of 16
1 The Nirbhaya Fund is a non-lapsable corpus.
2 The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 gave statutory form to the guidelines laid down in Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan.
3 The Emergency Response Support System provides a single emergency number, 112.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Nirbhaya Fund, announced in the Union Budget 2013-14 with Rs 1,000 crore, is a non-lapsable corpus administered by the Department of Economic Affairs, with the Ministry of Women and Child Development as the nodal ministry for appraising projects.
Statement 2Correct
The POSH Act codified the Vishaka guidelines of 1997 and requires Internal Committees.
Statement 3Correct
ERSS, funded under the Nirbhaya Fund, integrates police, fire and ambulance calls under 112.
Analysis
A column argues that women’s safety fails less for lack of funds than for lack of follow-up on safety audits, capacity and women’s presence in public jobs.
Concept note
After the Delhi gang-rape of December 2012, the Justice J.S. Verma Committee reported in January 2013, and the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 widened the definition of rape and created offences such as stalking and voyeurism; these offences now sit in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. The Nirbhaya Fund finances One Stop Centres (Sakhi), the Emergency Response Support System, Safe City projects in eight cities, fast-track special courts and women’s help desks in police stations.
The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013 requires every workplace with ten or more employees to have an Internal Committee, and districts to have Local Committees. Police is a State subject under Entry 2 of List II, and the Union Home Ministry has advised States to raise women’s share in the police to 33 per cent; actual representation remains far lower.
Safety audits, gender-sensitive urban design, frequent public transport and more women in public-facing jobs are among the measures urban planners recommend.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (women, urbanisation); GS2 (laws and institutions for vulnerable sections). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** implementation gap, accountability, gender-sensitive infrastructure, representation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Naming the Home Ministry as the Nirbhaya Fund’s nodal ministry; it is MoWCD. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Verma Committee 2013; Vishaka 1997; ERSS 112; Safe City in eight cities. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is free bus travel for women a safety measure or a subsidy? |
Question 16 of 16
Statement-I: Under the Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020, "Buy (Indian-IDDM)" is the highest-priority category for capital acquisition.
Statement-II: The positive indigenisation lists notified by the Ministry of Defence specify items that the armed forces will procure only from domestic sources after set timelines.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
DAP 2020 places “Buy (Indian-IDDM)”, equipment indigenously designed, developed and manufactured, at the top of its order of preference.
Statement IICorrectDoes not explain Statement I
The positive indigenisation lists, first issued in 2020, embargo imports of listed items after set dates; they are a separate instrument, not the reason for DAP’s order of categories.
Analysis
A column argues that designing everything at home is the costliest acquisition route and that India should focus self-reliance on critical technologies.
Concept note
India remains among the largest arms importers, and since 2014 policy has sought to build a domestic defence industry. The Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020 sets a hierarchy of categories, with Buy (Indian-IDDM) first, followed by Buy (Indian), Buy and Make (Indian) and, lower down, the global categories.
Positive indigenisation lists, first notified in August 2020 by the Department of Military Affairs, name weapons and systems that will be bought only from Indian industry after specified dates; defence public sector undertakings have issued similar lists for components. Other measures include higher FDI limits in defence, two defence industrial corridors in Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, the iDEX innovation scheme and a reserved share of the capital budget for domestic procurement.
Defence production reached a record Rs 1.78 lakh crore in 2025-26, and exports Rs 38,424 crore. Critics note that “indigenous” platforms such as the Tejas still import much of their value, including engines, and that selective self-reliance in critical technologies may be more affordable than full autarky.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (defence technology, indigenisation, industrial policy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** strategic autonomy, import substitution, critical technologies, supply-chain interdependence. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating Buy (Indian) and Buy (Indian-IDDM) as the same category. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** DAP 2020; positive indigenisation lists from 2020; 2025-26 production Rs 1.78 lakh crore. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is full self-reliance in defence possible, or even desirable, for a middle power? |
Performance
Question-wise Result