UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 25 September 2026
Test Your Knowledge
15 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 15
1 The power of SEBI to settle administrative and civil proceedings rests on Section 15JB of the SEBI Act, 1992.
2 A person who obtains a settlement order must admit the findings of fact made against that person.
3 Under the SEBI (Settlement of Administrative and Civil Proceedings) Regulations, 2026, wrongful gains are included in the base amount used to compute the settlement amount.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 15JB was inserted by the Securities Laws (Amendment) Act, 2014, with retrospective effect from 20 April 2007, and lets SEBI settle administrative and civil proceedings on terms it determines.
Statement 2Incorrect
A settlement is made without admitting or denying the findings of fact and conclusions of law; it is neither a conviction nor a clean chit.
Statement 3Incorrect
The 2026 Regulations keep wrongful gains out of the base amount and require them to be disgorged separately, with interest at 9 per cent a year, which ends double counting.
Analysis
SEBI’s 215th Board meeting on 24 September 2026 approved the new regulations, with a formula (Base Amount x (S + R + G + A - M) + legal costs), a 60-day settlement notice before a show cause notice and a 90-day window, up from 60, to apply after one.
Concept note
SEBI was set up as a non-statutory body in 1988 and given statutory powers by the SEBI Act, 1992, which charges it with protecting investors and developing and regulating the securities market. Its enforcement toolkit includes directions under Sections 11 and 11B (such as market bans and disgorgement), monetary penalties imposed by adjudicating officers under Chapter VIA, and prosecution before special courts.
Settlement is a middle path: the person facing proceedings applies, an internal committee and a High Powered Advisory Committee consider the terms, and a settlement order closes the case on payment and compliance with conditions. SEBI first allowed such “consent orders” through circulars in 2007; Parliament gave settlement statutory footing through Section 15JB in 2014, with effect from 20 April 2007, followed by regulations in 2014 and 2018.
Appeals against SEBI orders lie to the Securities Appellate Tribunal and then to the Supreme Court. Critics argue that settlement lets large violators pay a price without findings; supporters say it frees enforcement capacity and brings faster relief.
The 2026 Regulations try to answer both by reducing discretion and separating disgorgement from the settlement amount.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (capital markets, regulation); GS2 (statutory and quasi-judicial bodies). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** settlement, disgorgement, deterrence, regulatory discretion, pre-show-cause notice. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating a settlement as an admission of guilt; it is made without admitting or denying findings. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 15JB, SEBI Act (inserted in 2014 with effect from 20 April 2007); appeals go to the Securities Appellate Tribunal. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does a settlement framework let wealthy violators buy their way out? |
Question 2 of 15
1 The Act is gender-neutral with respect to the child victim.
2 A child who makes a false complaint under the Act is liable to punishment under Section 22.
3 The Act provides for designated Special Courts to try offences under it.
4 The registration of a case under the Act obliges the police to arrest the accused immediately under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Act defines a child as any person below 18 years and protects boys and girls alike.
Statement 2Incorrect
Section 22 punishes a false complaint or false information made to humiliate, extort, threaten or defame, but expressly exempts a child who makes one.
Statement 3Correct
Under Section 28, the State Government, in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court, designates a Court of Session in each district as a Special Court.
Statement 4Incorrect
Arrest without warrant under Section 35 of the BNSS is a discretion to be exercised only when its conditions are met, not a consequence of registration.
Analysis
On 24 September 2026 the Supreme Court (Justices J.B. Pardiwala and K.V. Viswanathan) held that where a parent or co-resident family member is accused amid a matrimonial dispute, there should be no automatic arrest and an expert in child psychiatry or clinical psychology must assist first.
Concept note
The POCSO Act was enacted because the Indian Penal Code did not adequately cover sexual offences against children, particularly boys, and a 2007 study by the Ministry of Women and Child Development found abuse widespread and largely unreported. The Act defines penetrative and aggravated penetrative sexual assault, sexual assault, sexual harassment and the use of a child for pornography, and makes failure to report an offence punishable (Section 19 read with Section 21).
It prescribes child-friendly procedures: the statement recorded where the child chooses, by a woman officer where possible, no exposure to the accused, and trial completed within a year as far as possible. Section 29 presumes the guilt of the accused in certain offences once the prosecution is instituted.
The 2019 amendment raised punishments, including the death penalty for aggravated penetrative sexual assault. The National and State Commissions for Protection of Child Rights monitor implementation.
Courts have repeatedly warned about misuse, as in consensual adolescent relationships and custody disputes, while insisting that the Act’s protective core must not be diluted.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (vulnerable sections, judiciary); GS4 (balancing rights, misuse of protective laws). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** threshold conditions, arrest discretion, expert assessment, child-friendly justice, false complaints. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking Section 22 punishes a child for a false complaint; it expressly exempts the child. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 19 is mandatory reporting, Section 28 creates Special Courts, Section 29 is the presumption. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you protect genuine child victims while preventing misuse of POCSO in custody fights? |
Question 3 of 15
Statement-I: India’s Carbon Credit Trading Scheme, as currently designed, does not by itself guarantee a fall in the total greenhouse gas emissions of the sectors it covers.
Statement-II: The scheme sets targets for greenhouse gas emission intensity per unit of output rather than an absolute cap on emissions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Obligated entities under the compliance mechanism must meet emission intensity targets, so total emissions can still rise if output grows faster than intensity falls.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
Targets are set in tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent per unit of product, not as an absolute cap on emissions as in the European Union’s Emissions Trading System.
Analysis
On 22 September 2026 the Environment Ministry amended the emission intensity targets for 21 refineries and 173 textile units, revising several baselines and retaining only the 2026-27 targets; stable targets are what give carbon credits their value.
Concept note
The Energy Conservation Act, 2001 created the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Power and empowered it to set energy consumption norms for designated consumers. The Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme, launched in 2012 under the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency, one of the eight missions of the National Action Plan on Climate Change (2008), let units that beat their norms earn Energy Saving Certificates and sell them to units that fell short.
The Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022 empowered the Centre to specify a carbon credit trading scheme, and the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme was notified in 2023 with a compliance mechanism for obligated entities and an offset mechanism for voluntary projects; the sector targets are notified by the Environment Ministry under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, and now cover 490 entities in eight sectors. A National Steering Committee for the Indian Carbon Market oversees it, BEE administers it, and Grid Controller of India acts as the registry.
India’s updated Nationally Determined Contribution (2022) committed to a 45 per cent cut in the emissions intensity of GDP by 2030 from 2005 levels; the NDC for 2031-35, approved by the Union Cabinet in March 2026, raises this to 47 per cent by 2035 and targets 60 per cent non-fossil power capacity by 2035, in line with the long-term goal of net zero by 2070.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (climate change, energy, industrial policy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** emission intensity, baseline, obligated entity, carbon credit certificate, CBAM. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming every carbon market caps total emissions; India’s sets intensity targets. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** PAT traded Energy Saving Certificates; the CCTS trades Carbon Credit Certificates; BEE runs both. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India move some sectors from intensity targets to absolute caps? |
Question 4 of 15
1 Timor-Leste is the newest member of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN).
2 The United States and Russia participate in the East Asia Summit.
3 The ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement came into force in 2010.
4 The ASEAN-India Free Trade Area is confined to trade in goods; trade in services and investment lie outside it.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Timor-Leste was admitted as ASEAN’s eleventh member in October 2025.
Statement 2Correct
The East Asia Summit brings together the ASEAN members and eight partners: Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, South Korea, Russia and the United States.
Statement 3Correct
The AITIGA was signed in 2009 and took effect from 1 January 2010.
Statement 4Incorrect
ASEAN and India also signed agreements on trade in services and on investment, which took effect in 2015.
Analysis
At the 23rd ASEAN-India Economic Ministers’ Consultation in Manila, reported on 24 September 2026, India pressed for the AITIGA review to address trade asymmetries; India-ASEAN trade was USD 128.38 billion in 2025-26.
Concept note
India’s engagement with ASEAN began as a sectoral dialogue partnership in 1992, under the Look East Policy of the Narasimha Rao government, and became a full dialogue partnership in 1995 and a summit-level partnership in 2002. It was raised to a Strategic Partnership in 2012 and a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in 2022.
In 2014 the government recast Look East as the Act East Policy, adding connectivity, security and culture to trade. The ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement removed or reduced tariffs on most goods, but India’s trade deficit with ASEAN widened after it, and Indian industry complained of weak rules of origin that let third-country goods enter through ASEAN.
The two sides later agreed to review the agreement. The East Asia Summit, founded in 2005 with India as a founding participant, is a leaders-led forum on strategic issues, while the ASEAN Regional Forum (1994) handles security dialogue.
India’s physical links with the region include the India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway and the Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (regional groupings, India and its neighbourhood); GS3 (trade). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** AITIGA review, rules of origin, trade asymmetry, Act East, supply-chain integration. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the ASEAN-India FTA covers goods only; separate services and investment agreements exist. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** ASEAN now has 11 members; the EAS is ASEAN plus eight partners. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Has the ASEAN FTA helped or hurt Indian manufacturing? |
Question 5 of 15
1 The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is a statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
2 FSSAI functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
3 The sale of analogue dairy products made from vegetable fats is prohibited in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
FSSAI was established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, which consolidated earlier food laws such as the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
Statement 2Incorrect
FSSAI functions under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Statement 3Incorrect
Analogue products are licensed and sold; the concern is how they are named and labelled.
Analysis
FSSAI’s draft amendment, dated 22 September 2026 and gazetted on 23 September, would add “paneer made of constituents not derived from milk” to the items that may not be sold under Regulation 2.1.1, so that analogue products could not use the word paneer; comments are invited for 60 days.
Concept note
The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced a patchwork of laws and orders, including the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, the Fruit Products Order, 1955 and the Milk and Milk Products Order, 1992, with a single science-based regulator. FSSAI, headquartered in New Delhi, lays down standards for articles of food, regulates their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import, and licenses and registers food businesses.
Its standards are notified as regulations, such as the Food Products Standards and Food Additives Regulations, 2011 and the Labelling and Display Regulations, 2020. State Commissioners of Food Safety and designated officers enforce the law on the ground.
FSSAI also publishes the State Food Safety Index and runs the Eat Right India movement. Misleading labelling harms consumers even when a product is safe: it denies them an informed choice and lets cheaper substitutes compete unfairly with genuine products.
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 adds another layer, through the Central Consumer Protection Authority, which can act against misleading advertisements.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (health, regulatory bodies); GS3 (food processing, consumer protection). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** analogue products, misleading labelling, informed choice, food adulteration, regulatory standards. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing FSSAI under the Food or Consumer Affairs ministry; it is under Health and Family Welfare. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** The FSS Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should cheaper food substitutes be banned, or only labelled honestly? |
Question 6 of 15
1 The Technology Development Fund scheme of the Ministry of Defence, executed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation, supports industry, including start-ups, in developing defence technologies.
2 The National Quantum Mission is implemented by the Department of Science and Technology.
3 A temperature of 20 millikelvin is about 20 degrees Celsius below the freezing point of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The TDF, set up under the Make in India initiative, funds MSMEs and start-ups, often with academic partners, to develop defence technologies.
Statement 2Correct
The Union Cabinet approved the Mission in April 2023 for 2023-24 to 2030-31, with the Department of Science and Technology as the implementing department.
Statement 3Incorrect
20 millikelvin is 0.02 kelvin, a fraction of a degree above absolute zero, or about minus 273.13 degrees Celsius.
Analysis
On 24 September 2026 DRDO signed its first high-value deep-tech TDF agreement with a start-up, Zero mK India of Alwar, to develop an indigenous 20 mK dilution refrigerator, the cooling platform that superconducting quantum computers need.
Concept note
Absolute zero, 0 kelvin or minus 273.15 degrees Celsius, is the lowest possible temperature, at which a system has minimum thermal energy. Superconducting qubits, one of the leading approaches to quantum computing, must be cooled to around 10 to 20 millikelvin so that thermal noise does not destroy their fragile quantum states.
A dilution refrigerator reaches these temperatures using a mixture of two helium isotopes, helium-3 and helium-4, and is a critical, largely imported piece of equipment. The National Quantum Mission, with an outlay of about Rs 6,003.65 crore, aims to build intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50 to 1,000 physical qubits over eight years, along with satellite-based quantum communication, quantum sensing and quantum materials, through four Thematic Hubs at leading institutions.
The Technology Development Fund funds a large part of a project’s cost as a grant to encourage indigenous design in defence, while the iDEX scheme of the Department of Defence Production supports start-ups through innovation challenges. Indigenous cryogenic equipment also reduces dependence on imports that export controls can restrict.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (science and technology, defence technology, indigenisation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** deep tech, quantum computing, cryogenics, import substitution, start-up ecosystem. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing millikelvin with degrees Celsius; 20 mK is barely above absolute zero. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** The TDF is executed by DRDO; iDEX is run by the Defence Innovation Organisation under the Department of Defence Production. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why should a defence agency fund equipment that also serves civilian quantum computing? |
Question 7 of 15
Facts
Option (c) is the statement that is not correct, and so the answer: DICGC insurance covers deposits in banks, including commercial, cooperative, regional rural, small finance and payments banks, but not deposits in Nidhis or other non-banking companies. The tempting distractor is (d), which sounds like an overreach but is correct: since the 2019 amendments to the Nidhi Rules, a company must obtain a declaration from the Central Government through Form NDH-4. Options (a) and (b) are also correct: Nidhis are mutual-benefit companies dealing only with members.
Analysis
On 24 September 2026 the Ministry of Corporate Affairs advised the public against promises of high returns by non-compliant Nidhis, noting that only 395 companies have been declared Nidhis.
Concept note
Nidhis are among India’s oldest mutual-benefit financial institutions, especially common in southern India, formed to cultivate thrift and savings among their members. Although they are notified as non-banking financial companies, the Reserve Bank of India has exempted them from most of its core provisions, leaving regulation to the Ministry of Corporate Affairs under the Companies Act.
The Nidhi Rules, 2014 require a Nidhi to be a public company with “Nidhi Limited” in its name, to have at least 200 members and net owned funds of Rs 20 lakh within 120 days of incorporation (after a 2022 amendment), and to deal only with its members. It cannot issue preference shares or debentures, open current accounts, or carry on chit fund, hire-purchase, insurance or securities business.
The 2019 amendments introduced declaration through Form NDH-4 after complaints that many companies posed as Nidhis to collect public deposits. Separately, the Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Act, 2019 prohibits unregulated deposit-taking.
Deposit insurance by DICGC, now up to Rs 5 lakh per depositor per bank, applies only to banks, which is why savers chasing high returns in Nidhis carry the full risk.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (financial sector, investor protection); GS2 (regulatory bodies). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** mutual-benefit company, member-only deposits, regulatory arbitrage, deposit insurance, investor awareness. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming every deposit-taking entity is regulated by the RBI and insured by DICGC. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 406, Companies Act 2013; declaration in Form NDH-4; DICGC covers banks only. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should the state protect small savers who chase high returns in unregulated schemes? |
Question 8 of 15
1 The "enemy state" clauses are found in Articles 53, 77 and 107 of the Charter.
2 An amendment to the Charter comes into force once it is adopted by a two-thirds vote of the General Assembly, without any requirement of ratification.
3 Germany and Japan are both members of the G4 group seeking permanent seats in the Security Council.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The clauses refer to states that were enemies of any signatory in the Second World War; Article 107, for instance, preserves action taken against such states.
Statement 2Incorrect
Under Article 108, an amendment must be adopted by two-thirds of the General Assembly and ratified by two-thirds of UN members, including all five permanent members of the Security Council.
Statement 3Correct
The G4 comprises Brazil, Germany, India and Japan.
Analysis
Japan’s Prime Minister Sanae Takaichi, addressing the General Assembly (reported on 24 September 2026), called for deleting the clauses, which the Assembly recognised as obsolete in 1995 and the 2005 World Summit resolved to delete.
Concept note
The UN Charter was signed at San Francisco on 26 June 1945 and came into force on 24 October 1945, now observed as United Nations Day. Its enemy-state clauses reflect the moment of drafting: Article 53 allowed regional enforcement action against a renewal of aggressive policy by an enemy state without Security Council authorisation, Article 77 allowed territories detached from enemy states to be placed under trusteeship, and Article 107 protected action taken by the Allies against those states.
Japan and Germany have since been among the largest contributors to the UN budget, and in 2004 both joined India and Brazil in the G4 to seek permanent seats. The Charter has been amended only a few times: to enlarge the Security Council from 11 to 15 members (in force 1965), to enlarge the Economic and Social Council from 18 to 27 and later 54 members, and to change the vote needed to call a review conference.
Because every amendment needs the concurrence of all five permanent members, even deleting obsolete language has not happened, which shows how hard wider Security Council reform will be.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international institutions, UN reform). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Charter amendment, P5 concurrence, obsolete clauses, G4, Security Council reform. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking a two-thirds General Assembly vote alone can amend the Charter; ratification including all P5 is required. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Enemy-state clauses: Articles 53, 77 and 107. Amendment: Article 108. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** If the UN cannot delete obsolete clauses, can it reform the Security Council? |
Question 9 of 15
1 Make in India 2.0 covers sectors in both manufacturing and services.
2 The goal of raising the share of manufacturing to 25 per cent of GDP was set in the National Manufacturing Policy, 2011.
3 The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises is the nodal department for the initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Make in India 2.0 covers 27 sectors, 15 in manufacturing and 12 in services.
Statement 2Correct
The National Manufacturing Policy, 2011 aimed to raise manufacturing to 25 per cent of GDP and create 100 million jobs.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal department.
Analysis
Make in India, launched on 25 September 2014, completed twelve years; a PIB backgrounder cites electronics production rising from about Rs 1.9 lakh crore in 2014-15 to about Rs 13.11 lakh crore in 2025-26, but manufacturing’s share of GDP remains the tougher test.
Concept note
Make in India was launched on 25 September 2014 on four pillars: new processes (ease of doing business), new infrastructure (industrial corridors and smart cities), new sectors (opening defence, railways and insurance to more foreign investment) and a new mindset (government as facilitator rather than regulator). It built on the National Manufacturing Policy, 2011, which had proposed National Investment and Manufacturing Zones.
Its main instruments since 2020 have been the Production Linked Incentive schemes across 14 sectors, with an approved outlay of about Rs 1.97 lakh crore, which pay incentives on incremental sales; the National Industrial Corridor Development Programme; PM GatiShakti (2021) for integrated infrastructure planning; the National Logistics Policy (2022); and the National Single Window System for approvals. Mobile phones and electronics are the clearest success, turning India from an importer into a major exporter of smartphones.
Critics note that manufacturing’s share of gross value added has stayed in the mid-teens, that much of the growth is in assembly with low domestic value addition, and that manufacturing jobs have grown slowly. Phased manufacturing programmes aim to deepen local supply chains.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (industrial policy, growth, employment). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** PLI, domestic value addition, manufacturing share of GDP, ease of doing business, jobless growth. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Naming the MSME ministry as nodal; Make in India is run by DPIIT. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NMP 2011: 25 per cent share and 100 million jobs; Make in India launched in 2014. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Has Make in India created manufacturing jobs at the scale India needs? |
Question 10 of 15
1 The word "veto" appears in Article 27 of the UN Charter.
2 By established practice, an abstention by a permanent member does not prevent the adoption of a resolution.
3 Under the "Uniting for Peace" resolution, the General Assembly may consider a matter when the Security Council fails to act because the permanent members lack unanimity.
4 A General Assembly resolution adopted in 2022 requires the Assembly to meet within ten working days after a veto is cast in the Council.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
The word does not appear in the Charter; Article 27(3) requires substantive decisions to have nine votes “including the concurring votes of the permanent members”.
Statement 2Correct
The Council has long treated a voluntary abstention by a permanent member as not blocking a decision.
Statement 3Correct
Resolution 377 (V) of 1950 lets the Assembly recommend collective measures when the Council fails in its primary responsibility.
Statement 4Correct
Resolution 76/262, the Liechtenstein initiative, requires the President of the Assembly to convene a debate within ten working days of a veto.
Analysis
In The Hindu of 25 September 2026, Amitabh Mattoo and Swaran Singh discussed restraint, accountability and abolition as France and the UK back voluntary limits on the veto in cases of mass atrocities.
Concept note
The Security Council has primary responsibility for international peace and security under Article 24, and its decisions under Chapter VII bind all members. Procedural matters need any nine of fifteen votes; all other matters need nine votes including those of the five permanent members: China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States.
The veto was the price of great-power participation in 1945. Russia (and before it the Soviet Union) and the United States have cast the most vetoes, often on Syria, Ukraine and Israel-Palestine.
The French-Mexican initiative of 2015 asks the permanent members to refrain voluntarily from the veto in cases of genocide, crimes against humanity and large-scale war crimes, and the ACT group’s Code of Conduct asks all Council members not to vote against credible action to prevent such crimes. India, as a G4 member, holds that new permanent members should have the same responsibilities and privileges as existing ones, though the G4 has offered not to exercise the veto until a review.
The African Union’s Ezulwini Consensus seeks two permanent seats with the veto for Africa. Reform is discussed in the Intergovernmental Negotiations in the General Assembly.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international institutions, India’s global role). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** veto restraint, accountability, mass atrocities, Uniting for Peace, Intergovernmental Negotiations. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Believing an abstention by a permanent member counts as a veto. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 27(3) is the voting rule; Resolution 377 (1950) is Uniting for Peace; Resolution 76/262 (2022) is the veto initiative. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India accept a permanent seat without the veto? |
Question 11 of 15
2 The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 authorises the police to publish photographs of arrested persons in the media.
3 The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 prohibits the disclosure in the media of the identity of a child in conflict with the law.
4 The presumption of innocence of an accused is expressly stated in Article 20 of the Constitution.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Public order is Entry 1 and police is Entry 2 of List II.
Statement 2Incorrect
The 2022 Act governs taking, storing and using measurements, including photographs, for investigation; it gives no power to publish them.
Statement 3Correct
Section 74 of the JJ Act bars disclosure of the name, address, school or any other particular that could identify such a child.
Statement 4Incorrect
Article 20 protects against retrospective criminal laws, double jeopardy and self-incrimination; the presumption of innocence is not written into the Constitution but is read by courts into the fair-trial guarantee of Article 21.
Analysis
In The Hindu of 25 September 2026, Nagaland DGP Rupin Sharma argued for a national protocol on police media briefings that protects the presumption of innocence.
Concept note
Parading or photographing arrested persons before the media engages three constitutional values: the accused’s dignity and reputation under Article 21, the public’s right to information under Article 19(1)(a), and the fairness of a trial that publicity may prejudge. In Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Administration (1980) the Supreme Court held that handcuffing without justification violates Article 21, and in D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1996) it laid down safeguards to be followed at arrest.
Courts have repeatedly held that reputation is part of the right to life. In 2023 the Supreme Court asked the Union Home Ministry to prepare a manual on police media briefings, and the Bureau of Police Research and Development drafted one.
The Law Commission’s 200th Report (2006) on trial by media recommended restrictions on publications that prejudice a fair trial. The law already protects specific groups: juveniles, victims of sexual offences under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, and child victims under the POCSO Act.
The Prakash Singh v. Union of India (2006) directions on police reform address police accountability more broadly.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (police, rights of the accused, media); GS4 (dignity, fairness). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** presumption of innocence, media trial, reputation, police accountability, fair trial. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Locating the presumption of innocence in Article 20; courts read it into Article 21. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Public order is Entry 1 and police Entry 2 of the State List. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should the police balance public information with the rights of an arrested person? |
Question 12 of 15
1 Political parties are registered with the Election Commission of India under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
2 A registered party must report to the Election Commission the contributions in excess of Rs 20,000 that it receives from any person or company in a financial year.
3 The Election Commission has a general statutory power to deregister a registered party that does not contest elections.
4 The ceilings on election expenditure apply to candidates, not to political parties.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 29A requires an association seeking registration to apply to the Commission with a copy of its memorandum or constitution.
Statement 2Correct
Section 29C requires a report of contributions above Rs 20,000 in a financial year, and the party’s tax exemption depends on filing it.
Statement 3Incorrect
In Indian National Congress v. Institute of Social Welfare (2002), the Supreme Court held that the Commission cannot deregister a party except in narrow cases such as registration obtained by fraud; delisting inactive parties is an administrative step.
Statement 4Correct
Section 77 of the 1951 Act and Rule 90 of the Conduct of Election Rules cap a candidate’s spending, while party spending is not capped.
Analysis
In The Hindu of 25 September 2026, former Election Commissioner Ashok Lavasa argued that registered unrecognised parties and weak audits keep political finance opaque.
Concept note
Political parties find mention in the Constitution only through the Tenth Schedule, added in 1985; their legal framework is the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968. Section 29A, in force since 1989, provides for registration, and a party must declare allegiance to the Constitution and to the principles of socialism, secularism and democracy.
Recognition as a national or State party, which brings a reserved symbol and other benefits, depends on votes and seats won under the Symbols Order; most registered parties remain unrecognised. Section 29B allows parties to accept contributions from any person or company other than a government company, and Section 29C mandates reporting of larger contributions.
Party income is exempt from income tax if conditions on accounts, audit and reporting are met. In Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India (February 2024), a Constitution Bench struck down the electoral bond scheme as violating voters’ right to information under Article 19(1)(a).
The Election Commission has long sought powers to deregister parties and to regulate their finances more closely.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (elections, Representation of the People Act, electoral reforms). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** political finance, registered unrecognised parties, transparency, tax exemption, deregistration. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Equating delisting with deregistration; the ECI lacks a general power to deregister. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 29A registration, 29B contributions, 29C reporting above Rs 20,000. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should political parties come under the Right to Information Act? |
Question 13 of 15
1 The Nirbhaya Fund is a non-lapsable corpus fund.
2 The National Crime Records Bureau publishes the annual "Crime in India" report.
3 The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 followed the report of a committee headed by Justice J.S. Verma.
4 Stalking was made a specific offence by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Fund, announced in the Union Budget 2013-14, is a non-lapsable corpus administered by the Department of Economic Affairs, with the Ministry of Women and Child Development as the nodal ministry for appraising projects.
Statement 2Correct
The NCRB, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, publishes Crime in India.
Statement 3Correct
The Justice J.S. Verma Committee reported in January 2013.
Statement 4Correct
The 2013 Act inserted Section 354D (stalking) into the Indian Penal Code, an offence now carried into the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
Analysis
The Indian Express argued on 25 September 2026, after an alleged gang rape in a Delhi park, that women’s safety fails on implementation rather than law, citing NCRB data that Delhi recorded 13,396 crimes against women in 2024.
Concept note
After the gang rape in Delhi on 16 December 2012, the government appointed a three-member committee headed by former Chief Justice J.S. Verma, with Justice Leila Seth and Gopal Subramanium, which reported within about a month. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 widened the definition of rape, added offences such as acid attack, sexual harassment, voyeurism and stalking, and enhanced punishments.
The Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 then allowed children aged 16 to 18 accused of heinous offences to be tried as adults after a preliminary assessment. The Nirbhaya Fund has financed the Emergency Response Support System (112), One Stop Centres (Sakhi), the Women Helpline (181), Safe City projects in eight cities, fast-track special courts and forensic capacity, but audits and parliamentary committees have repeatedly flagged its under-utilisation.
The Mission Shakti umbrella scheme now brings together One Stop Centres, the Women Helpline, Beti Bachao Beti Padhao and other programmes for women’s safety and empowerment. Gender-responsive urban planning, including lighting, public transport and more women in the police, addresses the everyday conditions that keep women out of public space.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (women, urbanisation); GS2 (welfare schemes, vulnerable sections). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** implementation gap, safe cities, gender-responsive planning, fund utilisation, enabling state. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the NCRB under the Women and Child Development ministry; it is under Home Affairs. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** The Verma Committee (2013) led to the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013; Mission Shakti bundles women’s safety schemes. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** As a Municipal Commissioner, what would you do first to make public spaces safer for women? |
Question 14 of 15
Statement-I: Extreme rainfall events are projected to become more intense as the climate warms.
Statement-II: The amount of water vapour that saturated air can hold increases by about 7 per cent for every degree Celsius of warming.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The IPCC’s Sixth Assessment Report finds that heavy precipitation events have become more frequent and intense over most land regions with sufficient data and will intensify further with warming.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
Under the Clausius-Clapeyron relation, a warmer atmosphere can hold more moisture, which is released in heavier downpours.
Analysis
In the Hindustan Times of 25 September 2026, Tapio Schneider and Sandeep Juneja wrote that in a world two or three degrees warmer a once-in-a-decade downpour would be 15 to 20 per cent more intense, a climate for which AI weather models have no training data.
Concept note
The Indian summer monsoon, from June to September, brings about three-quarters of the country’s annual rainfall. It is driven by the differential heating of land and sea, the northward shift of the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone, and the Tibetan Plateau, which acts as an elevated heat source and helps set up the Tropical Easterly Jet.
Sea surface temperatures matter too: El Nino in the Pacific tends to weaken the monsoon, while a positive Indian Ocean Dipole tends to strengthen it. Within a season, the monsoon alternates between active spells and breaks, which matter greatly for sowing.
The India Meteorological Department, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, issues forecasts against a Long Period Average of 87 cm (1971-2020), with rainfall between 96 and 104 per cent of it classed as normal. Mission Mausam, approved in 2024, aims to improve observations and forecasts.
Aerosols from pollution can weaken the monsoon by cooling the land surface, and observed monsoon rainfall declined over the second half of the twentieth century. Adaptation needs denser observations, city drainage built for heavier extremes, and heat action plans such as Ahmedabad’s (2013).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (monsoon, climatology); GS3 (climate change, disaster management, S&T). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Clausius-Clapeyron, rainfall extremes, AI weather models, hybrid models, adaptive infrastructure. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading intensified extremes as more total rainfall; totals and extremes can move differently. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** IMD calls a monsoon normal at 96 to 104 per cent of the LPA of 87 cm. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India rely on AI weather models built abroad or develop its own? |
Question 15 of 15
2 The Census of India is conducted under the Census Act, 1948.
3 The electoral roll of a constituency includes every person aged 18 or above who is ordinarily resident in it, whether or not a citizen of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Census is Entry 69 of List I.
Statement 2Correct
The Census Act, 1948 provides the legal basis, and the Registrar General and Census Commissioner under the Ministry of Home Affairs conducts the census.
Statement 3Incorrect
Under Article 326 and Section 16 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, only citizens can be registered as voters; the census, by contrast, counts every person in India.
Analysis
In The Economic Times of 25 September 2026, former ECI Director General Akshay Rout argued that the SIR of electoral rolls, Census 2027 and the latest GDP estimates all need open, validated methods to keep public trust.
Concept note
The first synchronous census in India was held in 1881, and the Census Act, 1948 has governed every census since 1951. Census 2027 will be the sixteenth census and the eighth since Independence; it is the first to be conducted digitally, through a mobile application with a self-enumeration option, and the first since 1931 to enumerate caste beyond Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Its reference date is 1 March 2027, and 1 October 2026 for Ladakh and snow-bound areas of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. Census data matter for representation: Article 82 requires readjustment of Lok Sabha seats after each census, but the 42nd and 84th Amendments froze the allocation of seats among States until the first census after 2026, and Article 334A ties the one-third reservation for women to delimitation after the next census.
Individual census records are confidential under Section 15 of the Census Act and are not admissible in evidence. Electoral rolls are prepared separately by Electoral Registration Officers under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, under the superintendence of the Election Commission.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (constitutional bodies, Union List, elections); GS1 (population). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** public trust, statistical integrity, delimitation, caste enumeration, voter deletion. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the electoral roll like the census; only citizens can be enrolled as voters. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Census: Entry 69, Union List; Census Act, 1948; confidentiality under Section 15. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How can the state keep public trust in official numbers in a polarised age? |
Performance
Question-wise Result