UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 24 September 2026
Test Your Knowledge
17 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 17
1 Article 324 of the Constitution fixes the number of Election Commissioners at two.
2 Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, the Chief Justice of India is a member of the Selection Committee.
3 The Search Committee under the 2023 Act is headed by the Union Minister of Law and Justice.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
Article 324(2) says the Commission consists of the CEC and “such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix”; two is the number fixed since 1993, not a constitutional figure.
Statement 2Incorrect
The Act’s Selection Committee is the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister and the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha; the Chief Justice sat only on the interim committee set by the Supreme Court in Anoop Baranwal (2023).
Statement 3Correct
A Search Committee headed by the Law Minister, with two Secretary-level members, prepares a panel of five names.
Analysis
On 23 September 2026 Justices Dipankar Datta and Satish Chandra Sharma split on whether the challenge to the 2023 Act needs a larger Bench, and both placed it before the Chief Justice.
Concept note
Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, State legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President in the Election Commission. For four decades the Commission had only a CEC; two Election Commissioners were appointed in October 1989, the posts were abolished in January 1990, and the Commission has been multi-member since 1 October 1993.
In T.N. Seshan v. Union of India (1995) the Supreme Court upheld this and held that the CEC is first among equals. Article 324(2) left appointments to a law of Parliament, which was not made until 2023.
In Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (March 2023), a Constitution Bench ordered that, until such a law, appointments be made on the advice of the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition and the Chief Justice. The 2023 Act replaced the Chief Justice with a Cabinet Minister, giving the government two of three votes.
Members hold office for six years or until 65; the CEC can be removed only like a Supreme Court judge, and an EC only on the CEC’s recommendation.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (constitutional bodies, separation of powers). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** institutional independence, neutral selector, executive majority, Article 145(3), perception test. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Putting the Chief Justice on the 2023 Act’s committee; that was the 2023 judgment’s interim arrangement. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Selection: PM, Cabinet Minister, Leader of Opposition. Search: Law Minister plus two Secretaries, five names. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can an institution be independent if the government holds a majority on the panel that selects it? |
Question 2 of 17
1 It was added by the Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985.
2 A member who votes contrary to the direction of the party is not disqualified if the party condones the act within fifteen days.
3 A political party may likewise condone a member’s voluntarily giving up membership of that party.
4 The exception for a split by one-third of a legislature party was deleted by the Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act, 2003.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The 52nd Amendment of 1985 inserted the Tenth Schedule and amended Articles 101, 102, 190 and 191.
Statement 2Correct
Under Paragraph 2(1)(b), voting or abstaining against the party’s direction does not disqualify if the party condones it within fifteen days.
Statement 3Incorrect
Condonation applies only to Paragraph 2(1)(b); voluntarily giving up membership under Paragraph 2(1)(a) cannot be condoned, and it can be inferred from conduct.
Statement 4Correct
The 91st Amendment deleted Paragraph 3, leaving only the two-thirds merger exception in Paragraph 4.
Analysis
On 24 September 2026 the Supreme Court dismissed a former Telangana MLA’s plea that his party could condone his defection, observing that condonation covers only whip violations.
Concept note
The anti-defection law was enacted after the “Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram” politics of the late 1960s. A member of a House is disqualified if he voluntarily gives up membership of his party, or votes or abstains contrary to its whip without permission (unless condoned within fifteen days).
An independent member who joins a party, and a nominated member who joins one after six months, are also disqualified. Paragraph 4 protects members only if at least two-thirds of the legislature party agree to a merger.
Paragraph 6 makes the Speaker or Chairman the deciding authority. In Kihoto Hollohan (1992) the Supreme Court upheld the Schedule but held the presiding officer’s decision subject to judicial review, and struck down Paragraph 7, which had barred the courts.
In Keisham Meghachandra Singh (2020) it said petitions should ordinarily be decided within three months. The 91st Amendment also inserted Article 361B (no remunerative political post for a disqualified member) and capped the size of ministries at 15 per cent of the House.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Parliament and State legislatures, constitutional amendments). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** voluntarily giving up membership, condonation, Speaker as tribunal, three-month rule, merger exception. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming condonation applies to all grounds of defection; it applies only to Paragraph 2(1)(b). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 52nd Amendment (1985) created it; 91st Amendment (2003) deleted the split clause. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the Speaker, a party member, decide defection cases, or an independent tribunal? |
Question 3 of 17
Statement-I: India levies a higher effective import duty on refined edible oils than on crude edible oils.
Statement-II: A duty differential between crude and refined oils encourages the use of domestic refining capacity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The government keeps an effective import duty differential of 19.25 per cent between crude and refined edible oils.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
The stated purpose of the higher duty on refined oil is to support the use of domestic refining capacity and discourage imports of ready-refined oil, keeping value addition in India.
Analysis
On 24 September 2026 the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution announced cuts in Basic Customs Duty on crude sunflower oil (10 per cent to nil) and crude soybean and palm oil (10 to 5 per cent) to curb retail prices, while keeping the differential.
Concept note
India imports more than half of the edible oil it consumes: palm oil mainly from Indonesia and Malaysia, soybean oil from Argentina and Brazil and sunflower oil from Russia and Ukraine. Customs duty is therefore the government’s quickest lever on prices.
Duty is levied under the Customs Act, 1962 at rates in the Customs Tariff Act, 1975, with exemption notifications setting effective rates; crude edible oils also bear the Agriculture Infrastructure and Development Cess, and a Social Welfare Surcharge applies on duty. Lower duty helps consumers and eases food inflation but depresses prices of domestic oilseeds such as soybean, groundnut and mustard, hurting farmers, especially near the kharif harvest.
The long-term strategy is to raise domestic output: the National Mission on Edible Oils (Oil Palm), launched in 2021, and the National Mission on Edible Oils (Oilseeds), approved in 2024 for 2024-25 to 2030-31 with an outlay of Rs 10,103 crore, aim to raise primary oilseed output to 69.7 million tonnes by 2030-31.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (agriculture, MSP, inflation, trade policy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** landed cost, crude-refined differential, import dependence, NMEO-Oilseeds, rules-based duty band. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading the 19.25 per cent as the difference in Basic Customs Duty alone; it is the effective gap. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NMEO-OP (2021) is oil palm; NMEO-Oilseeds (2024) covers primary oilseeds. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Consumer relief or farmer income: how should the government decide edible oil duties? |
Question 4 of 17
1 The National Statistics Office was formed by merging the Central Statistics Office and the National Sample Survey Office.
2 The Periodic Labour Force Survey is conducted by the Labour Bureau under the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
3 The Domestic Tourism Expenditure Survey is conducted as part of a round of the National Sample Survey.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The NSO was created in 2019 under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation by merging the CSO and the NSSO.
Statement 2Incorrect
The PLFS is conducted by the NSO; the Labour Bureau runs other surveys, such as the quarterly establishment-based surveys.
Statement 3Correct
The 2025-26 Domestic Tourism Expenditure Survey was part of the NSS 80th round.
Analysis
MoSPI released the tourism survey on 23 September 2026, finding pilgrimage the leading purpose of overnight trips over a year (social visits led trips in the 30-day window), and on 18 September released the first district-level labour estimates from the PLFS.
Concept note
The National Sample Survey began in 1950 as a system of large household surveys in “rounds”, each covering subjects such as consumption, health, education or tourism. In 2019 the government merged the Central Statistics Office (national accounts, price indices, industrial statistics) and the National Sample Survey Office into the National Statistics Office under MoSPI.
The Periodic Labour Force Survey, launched in 2017, is the main source of employment data; from January 2025 its sample design was revised to produce monthly and quarterly estimates and to shift to a calendar year, which also allowed the first district-level estimates. The Domestic Tourism Expenditure Survey (July 2025 to June 2026) covered 2,46,113 households and found that 48 per cent of overnight trips over a year were for pilgrimage, that health trips were the costliest of those year-long trips, and that Uttar Pradesh received the largest share of visitor-trips.
Such surveys feed the Tourism Satellite Account, which estimates tourism’s contribution to GDP and jobs.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (economy, data systems); GS1 (society, religion and travel). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** NSS round, household survey, district-level estimates, Tourism Satellite Account, data gaps. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Crediting the PLFS to the Labour Bureau; it is run by the NSO. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NSO = CSO + NSSO (2019), under MoSPI. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why do surveys taken a decade apart make policy-making harder? |
Question 5 of 17
Statement-I: India withdrew from the negotiations on the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) in 2019.
Statement-II: New Zealand is not a member of the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
India stepped out of RCEP in November 2019, citing the risk of import surges, particularly from China, and inadequate safeguards for farmers and dairy.
Statement IIIncorrect
New Zealand is one of RCEP’s fifteen members, along with the ten ASEAN States, China, Japan, South Korea and Australia.
Analysis
The India-New Zealand FTA, signed on 27 April 2026, enters into force on 20 October 2026; The Hindu’s editorial of 24 September argues that such deals with smaller partners give exporters alternative markets, and India kept dairy out of it.
Concept note
RCEP was signed in November 2020 and entered into force in 2022. It is the world’s largest trading bloc by population and output.
India had negotiated for seven years but walked out in 2019, largely because of its trade deficit with China and the absence of an automatic safeguard against import surges. Since then India has preferred bilateral agreements with economies that complement its own: the UAE CEPA and the Australia ECTA (2022), the India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (signed March 2024, in force October 2025), the India-UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (signed July 2025) and agreements with Oman and New Zealand.
Free trade areas are permitted under Article XXIV of GATT as an exception to most-favoured-nation treatment, provided they cover substantially all trade. The India-New Zealand FTA makes all of India’s exports duty-free in New Zealand, while India excludes dairy, sugar and edible oils and uses tariff rate quotas with a minimum import price for apples, kiwifruit and Manuka honey.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (bilateral and regional agreements); GS3 (trade, agriculture). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** RCEP exit, trade diversification, sensitive list, tariff rate quota, FTA utilisation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming New Zealand is outside RCEP because India negotiated a separate FTA with it. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** RCEP = ASEAN 10 plus China, Japan, South Korea, Australia and New Zealand. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Did leaving RCEP cost India a place in Asian supply chains? |
Question 6 of 17
1 Quality Control Orders that make certification by the Bureau of Indian Standards mandatory are issued under the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016.
2 The Bureau of Indian Standards functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
3 Under the WTO Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade, members are required to notify draft technical regulations so that other members can comment on them.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 16 of the BIS Act, 2016 lets the Central Government, after consulting BIS, make use of the Standard Mark compulsory for notified goods.
Statement 2Incorrect
BIS works under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, although the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade issues many QCOs.
Statement 3Correct
The TBT Agreement requires notification of draft technical regulations and an opportunity for comment.
Analysis
A Hindu op-ed of 24 September by Prerna Prabhakar and Nancy Gupta argues that QCOs on intermediate inputs such as chemicals have cut value added in large firms and profits in small ones.
Concept note
Quality Control Orders are India’s main technical regulations. Once a QCO takes effect, an uncertified product cannot be made, imported, stored or sold, whether domestic or foreign.
BIS certifies through Scheme-I (product certification with the Standard Mark, the ISI mark) and Scheme-II (the Compulsory Registration Scheme, used mainly for electronics and IT goods, where screen protectors will be added from April 2027). The number of products under QCOs rose from 88 in 2019 to 765 by December 2024.
Since late 2025 the government has revoked or suspended several QCOs on intermediate goods, and in June 2026 it notified a transition facilitation order for some sectors. WTO rules allow technical regulations for legitimate objectives such as safety, health and the environment, but they must not be more trade-restrictive than necessary; food safety and plant and animal health fall under the separate Agreement on Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures.
Trading partners raised QCOs as non-tariff barriers during India’s Trade Policy Review.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (industrial policy, MSMEs); GS2 (WTO). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** non-tariff barrier, intermediate inputs, regulatory impact assessment, value addition, compliance cost. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing BIS under Commerce and Industry; it is under Consumer Affairs. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 16, BIS Act, 2016; Scheme-I is ISI mark, Scheme-II is compulsory registration. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you design a quality rule that protects consumers without choking small manufacturers? |
Question 7 of 17
1 The second stage of India’s three-stage programme uses fast breeder reactors fuelled by plutonium produced in the first stage.
2 India follows a closed fuel cycle in which spent fuel is reprocessed to recover uranium and plutonium.
3 The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board was originally created by an Act of Parliament in 1983.
4 Vitrification is a method of immobilising high-level radioactive liquid waste in glass.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Stage one uses pressurised heavy water reactors on natural uranium, and the plutonium they produce fuels stage two’s fast breeder reactors, such as the 500 MWe prototype at Kalpakkam.
Statement 2Correct
India reprocesses spent fuel rather than treating it as waste for direct disposal.
Statement 3Incorrect
The AERB was constituted in 1983 by an executive order under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962; it received statutory status only under the SHANTI framework.
Statement 4Correct
Vitrification fixes high-level liquid waste in a glass matrix for storage.
Analysis
An Indian Express column of 24 September by physicist Nishant Sahdev argues that, with private operators entering nuclear power, the rules must say who pays for spent fuel after it leaves the reactor pool.
Concept note
Homi J. Bhabha designed India’s three-stage programme to use its modest uranium and large thorium reserves: pressurised heavy water reactors (stage one), fast breeder reactors on plutonium (stage two) and thorium-based reactors (stage three). The Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor at Kalpakkam attained first criticality on 6 April 2026.
Because stage two needs plutonium, spent fuel has always been treated as a resource and reprocessed. Reprocessing reduces the volume of high-level waste but does not remove radioactivity; the resulting streams include reusable fuel, high-level waste, contaminated equipment and cladding.
The Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Act, 2025 replaced the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010, allowed private companies to build and operate nuclear plants and gave the AERB statutory status. A deep geological repository isolates high-level waste permanently; Finland has built the first for spent fuel, while the United States project at Yucca Mountain stalled.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (energy, S&T, environment); GS4 (intergenerational equity). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** closed fuel cycle, back-end liability, ring-fenced waste fund, geological repository, polluter pays. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the AERB was a statutory body from 1983; it was created by executive order. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Stage 1 PHWR (natural uranium), Stage 2 FBR (plutonium), Stage 3 thorium (uranium-233). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should a private nuclear operator pay today for waste that will be buried fifty years from now? |
Question 8 of 17
Statement-I: An Election Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
Statement-II: The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The proviso to Article 324(5) says any other Election Commissioner shall not be removed except on the recommendation of the CEC.
Statement IICorrectDoes not explain Statement I
The CEC’s protection, equivalent to a Supreme Court judge’s, is a separate safeguard in the same clause; it does not explain why the removal of an EC depends on the CEC.
Analysis
The Indian Express editorial of 24 September, on two Election Commissioners’ recorded objections during the Special Intensive Revision, raises the question of how a multi-member constitutional body should decide when its members disagree.
Concept note
Article 324(5) gives the Chief Election Commissioner the same security of tenure as a Supreme Court judge: removal only by an address of both Houses of Parliament on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity, and no variation of service conditions to his disadvantage after appointment. Other Election Commissioners have a lesser protection: they can be removed only on the CEC’s recommendation.
Critics argue this asymmetry makes Election Commissioners dependent on the CEC, and the Law Commission and others have proposed equal protection. Since 1993 the Commission has been multi-member, and in T.N. Seshan v. Union of India (1995) the Supreme Court held that the CEC is first among equals, the Commission deciding as a body and by majority where members differ.
The law governing the Commission’s business says decisions should be unanimous as far as possible and otherwise by majority. The Election Commission conducts elections to Parliament, State legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President; State Election Commissions (Articles 243K and 243ZA) conduct panchayat and municipal polls.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (constitutional bodies); GS4 (institutional accountability). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** security of tenure, first among equals, collective decision-making, majority rule, institutional trust. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming ECs enjoy the same removal protection as the CEC. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 324(5): CEC like a Supreme Court judge; ECs only on the CEC’s recommendation. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should dissent within the Election Commission be published, as the RBI publishes MPC votes? |
Question 9 of 17
1 A standard essential patent is a patent that must necessarily be used to implement a technical standard.
2 In patent licensing, FRAND stands for fair, reasonable and non-discriminatory terms.
3 Section 84 of the Patents Act, 1970 provides for the grant of compulsory licences.
4 The Competition Act, 2002 permits reasonable conditions needed to protect intellectual property rights in agreements that would otherwise be anti-competitive.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
A device cannot comply with a standard such as 4G or Wi-Fi without using its essential patents.
Statement 2Correct
FRAND is the licensing commitment SEP holders give to standards bodies.
Statement 3Correct
Section 84 allows any interested person to seek a compulsory licence after three years from grant, on grounds such as unmet reasonable requirements of the public or an unaffordable price.
Statement 4Correct
Section 3(5) of the Competition Act protects reasonable conditions for protecting IP rights from the prohibition on anti-competitive agreements; there is no such exception for abuse of dominance under Section 4.
Analysis
A Hindustan Times op-ed of 24 September argues that India must enforce FRAND licensing predictably and build its own standard essential patents.
Concept note
Technical standards (4G, 5G, Wi-Fi, video codecs) are set by bodies such as ETSI, IEEE and the ITU, and India’s telecom standards body is TSDSI. Patents essential to a standard give their holders leverage, so they commit to license on FRAND terms.
Two risks follow: hold-up, where a patent holder demands excessive royalties, and hold-out, where an implementer delays paying. Courts have developed rules: Huawei v. ZTE (Court of Justice of the European Union, 2015) set negotiation steps before an injunction, and Unwired Planet v. Huawei (UK Supreme Court, 2020) allowed courts to set global FRAND terms.
In India, the Delhi High Court held in July 2023 that the Patents Act is a complete code on patent licensing abuse and prevails over the Competition Act; the Supreme Court declined to interfere in September 2025, noting that the original informants had settled, and kept the questions of law open. Philips v. Rajesh Bansal (2018) was India’s first post-trial SEP judgment.
India’s R&D spending remains below 1 per cent of GDP.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (IPR, S&T); GS2 (regulatory bodies: CCI). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** static versus dynamic efficiency, hold-up, hold-out, FRAND, standard-setter. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Applying the Section 3(5) IP exception to abuse of dominance cases under Section 4. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 84 compulsory licence (after three years); Section 3(d) against evergreening. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should an importer of technology prefer strong or weak patent enforcement? |
Question 10 of 17
1 The International Convention for the Control and Management of Ships' Ballast Water and Sediments has entered into force.
2 The International Maritime Organization’s guidelines for the control and management of ships' biofouling are legally binding on its member States.
3 Target 6 of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework concerns invasive alien species.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Ballast Water Management Convention, adopted in 2004, entered into force on 8 September 2017.
Statement 2Incorrect
The IMO’s biofouling guidelines, revised in 2023, are voluntary; in 2025 the IMO approved guidance on in-water cleaning and agreed to develop a legally binding instrument, which has not yet been adopted.
Statement 3Correct
Target 6 aims to cut the introduction and establishment of invasive alien species by at least 50 per cent by 2030.
Analysis
A Hindustan Times op-ed of 24 September by K.V. Sankaran warns that ships held idle in the Gulf by the Hormuz disruption may carry invasive species on their hulls to ports such as Mumbai and Colombo.
Concept note
Shipping moves marine species in two ways: in ballast water, pumped in to stabilise a ship and discharged at the next port, and as biofouling, organisms such as algae, barnacles and mussels that grow on hulls and other submerged surfaces. The risk rises when ships stay idle for long periods.
Ballast water is governed by a binding convention that requires ships to manage and treat ballast; biofouling is governed only by voluntary IMO guidelines, first adopted in 2011 and revised in 2023. The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES), set up in 2012, found in its 2023 assessment that invasive alien species are a major factor in about 60 per cent of recorded global extinctions and that prevention is the most cost-effective response.
In India, the Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 empowered the Centre to regulate or prohibit invasive alien species. Marine invasions are especially hard to reverse because the ocean is vast and connected.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (biodiversity, environmental conventions); GS1 (straits and sea lanes). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** biofouling, biosecurity, prevention over eradication, risk-based inspection, Target 6. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Believing the Ballast Water Convention also covers hull fouling. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** BWM Convention in force 2017; IMO biofouling guidelines 2011, revised 2023, voluntary. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India impose mandatory hull inspections on ships arriving from high-risk regions? |
Question 11 of 17
1 The Bletchley Declaration on the safety of frontier AI was adopted at a summit held in the United Kingdom.
2 The AI Action Summit held in Paris was co-chaired by France and India.
3 The United Nations General Assembly has decided to establish an Independent International Scientific Panel on Artificial Intelligence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Bletchley Declaration came out of the AI Safety Summit at Bletchley Park, UK, in November 2023.
Statement 2Correct
France and India co-chaired the AI Action Summit in Paris in February 2025, and India hosted the next summit, the AI Impact Summit, in New Delhi in February 2026.
Statement 3Correct
A UN General Assembly resolution of August 2025 set up an Independent International Scientific Panel on AI and a Global Dialogue on AI Governance.
Analysis
An Economic Times column of 24 September by Subimal Bhattacharjee warns that US-China talks on AI could become a two-power bargain that leaves other countries, India included, as rule-takers.
Concept note
AI governance is developing on several tracks. The summit series began at Bletchley Park (2023), with a declaration on frontier AI risks, and continued at Seoul (2024), Paris (2025) and New Delhi (2026), the first in the Global South.
At the United Nations, the General Assembly set up a scientific panel and a global dialogue in 2025. Great powers also negotiate directly: in November 2024 the US and Chinese leaders affirmed the need to keep human control over decisions to use nuclear weapons.
Their strategies differ: the United States relies on export controls on advanced chips and restricted access to frontier models, while China promotes low-cost open models and uses its dominance of rare earth processing as leverage. India’s interests include access to computing capacity, secure supplies of critical minerals, a voice in standards, and room for its own ecosystem under the IndiaAI Mission, approved in March 2024 with an outlay of about Rs 10,372 crore.
India sits in both the BRICS and G7-outreach camps.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international institutions, great-power relations); GS3 (S&T, critical minerals). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** frontier AI, export controls, open-weight models, rule-taker, bridging role. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling the Paris meeting the AI Safety Summit; that name belongs to Bletchley Park. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Bletchley (2023), Seoul (2024), Paris (2025, co-chaired by India), New Delhi (2026). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India align with one AI bloc or try to bridge them? |
Question 12 of 17
1 The Narcotics Control Bureau functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2 The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act was enacted by Parliament in 1985.
3 Police is a subject in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The NCB, constituted in 1986, is the apex drug law enforcement and coordination agency under the MHA.
Statement 2Correct
The NDPS Act, 1985 is the central law on narcotics, and the NCB was created under it.
Statement 3Incorrect
Police and public order are in the State List (Entries 1 and 2 of List II), which is why each State and UT runs its own Anti-Narcotics Task Force.
Analysis
At the third national conference of ANTF heads on 22 September 2026, the Home Minister set 31 December 2029 as the target for uprooting the drug trade, under the Vision Document 2026-2029.
Concept note
India’s drug-control framework rests on the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, which gives effect to the three UN drug conventions (1961, 1971 and 1988), and on the Prevention of Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1988. The Narcotics Control Bureau coordinates enforcement across central and State agencies, while the Central Bureau of Narcotics licenses legal opium cultivation.
Because police is a State subject, enforcement on the ground depends on State police; the Centre has encouraged every State and UT to set up a dedicated Anti-Narcotics Task Force and uses the multi-level NCORD mechanism for coordination. India lies between the “Golden Crescent” (Afghanistan, Iran, Pakistan) and the “Golden Triangle” (Myanmar, Laos, Thailand), the two largest illicit opium-producing regions, which makes Punjab and the North-East especially vulnerable.
The Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan, launched in 2020 by the Ministry of Social Justice, addresses demand reduction.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (internal security, organised crime); GS2 (Centre-State relations). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** NDPS Act, supply reduction, demand reduction, NCORD, Golden Crescent, Golden Triangle. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating police as a Concurrent subject; it is in the State List. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NDPS Act 1985; NCB 1986 under MHA; Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan under Social Justice. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is drug addiction a law-and-order problem or a public-health problem? |
Question 13 of 17
1. Bhikaji Cama : Unfurled a flag of Indian independence at the International Socialist Congress, Stuttgart
2. Communal Award : Announced by Lord Irwin
3. Poona Pact : Reserved seats for the depressed classes within joint electorates
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
Bhikaji Cama raised a flag bearing “Vande Mataram” at the International Socialist Congress in Stuttgart on 22 August 1907.
Pair 2Incorrect
The Communal Award of August 1932 was announced by the British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald, not by the Viceroy; Lord Irwin had left India in 1931.
Pair 3Correct
The Poona Pact replaced separate electorates for the depressed classes with seats reserved for them in joint electorates, 148 in the provincial legislatures.
Analysis
24 September marks both the Poona Pact (1932) and Bhikaji Cama’s birth anniversary (1861).
Concept note
The Communal Award of 1932, which followed the Round Table Conferences, gave separate electorates to Muslims, Sikhs, Christians and others and extended them to the depressed classes. Gandhi, then in Yerwada jail, began a fast unto death on 20 September 1932 against separating the depressed classes from the Hindu electorate.
The Poona Pact, negotiated with B.R. Ambedkar and signed on 24 September 1932 by Ambedkar, Madan Mohan Malaviya and others (Gandhi himself did not sign; he ended his fast on 26 September), gave the depressed classes 148 reserved seats in provincial legislatures and 18 per cent of the general seats in the central legislature, with candidates first chosen through a primary election. The principle of reserved constituencies within a common electorate survives in Articles 330 and 332 of the Constitution.
Bhikaji Cama, born in Bombay in 1861, worked from Europe for Indian independence with the Paris Indian Society and published the journal Bande Mataram; the Stuttgart flag is one of the earliest versions of an Indian national flag raised abroad.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (freedom struggle, social reform); GS2 (reservation in legislatures). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** separate electorates, joint electorates, reserved seats, Gandhi-Ambedkar debate, revolutionaries abroad. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Attributing the Communal Award to a Viceroy; it was announced by Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Poona Pact: 148 provincial seats; Stuttgart flag: 1907. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Were separate electorates or reserved seats the better protection for the depressed classes? |
Question 14 of 17
1 The Joint Monitoring Programme for water supply, sanitation and hygiene is run jointly by the World Health Organization and UNICEF.
2 Sustainable Development Goal 6 includes a target of ending open defecation.
3 Under the Joint Monitoring Programme’s service ladder for schools, a basic sanitation service requires facilities that are single-sex and usable.
4 The Joint Monitoring Programme also reports on water, sanitation and hygiene in health-care facilities.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The JMP is the WHO/UNICEF programme that tracks global progress on drinking water, sanitation and hygiene.
Statement 2Correct
Target 6.2 aims to achieve sanitation and hygiene for all and end open defecation by 2030.
Statement 3Correct
A basic school sanitation service means improved facilities that are single-sex and usable at the time of the survey.
Statement 4Correct
The JMP publishes separate reports on WASH in health-care facilities, alongside households and schools.
Analysis
The JMP report released on 22 September 2026 found India has about 50 million of the world’s 244 million school-age children with no sanitation service at school.
Concept note
The WHO/UNICEF Joint Monitoring Programme, set up in 1990, is the custodian of global data for the Sustainable Development Goal targets on drinking water (6.1) and sanitation and hygiene (6.2), and it also reports on schools (linked to SDG 4.a) and health-care facilities. It classifies services on a ladder, from no service through limited to basic, so a school that has a toilet which is locked, broken or shared by boys and girls does not count as basic.
The 2015-2025 schools report found India has the largest number of schoolchildren with no sanitation service (about 50 million), though it is on track for universal basic drinking water in schools by 2030. Globally, basic sanitation in schools rose from 67 to 77 per cent over the decade.
India’s Swachh Vidyalaya campaign (2014) built toilets in government schools; the challenge now is water supply, maintenance and menstrual hygiene facilities, which strongly affect the attendance of adolescent girls.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (health, education, social sector); GS3 (SDGs). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** service ladder, usable facilities, menstrual hygiene, maintenance, girls' attendance. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Equating toilets built with a basic service; the JMP counts only usable, single-sex facilities. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** JMP = WHO + UNICEF, since 1990; SDG 6.1 water, 6.2 sanitation and hygiene. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why does India still top a list of children without school sanitation after building lakhs of toilets? |
Question 15 of 17
Exercise : Partner country
1. Varuna : France
2. Shakti : France
3. Yudh Abhyas : United Kingdom
4. SLINEX : Sri Lanka
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
Varuna is the India-France naval exercise, now in its 24th edition.
Pair 2Correct
Shakti is the India-France army exercise.
Pair 3Incorrect
Yudh Abhyas is the India-United States army exercise; the India-UK army exercise is Ajeya Warrior.
Pair 4Correct
SLINEX is the Sri Lanka-India naval exercise.
Analysis
INS Trishul arrived at Toulon, France, on 22 September 2026 for the 24th edition of Varuna.
Concept note
India’s defence exercises with France span all three services: Varuna (navy), Shakti (army) and Garuda (air force), reflecting a strategic partnership that dates from 1998 and includes the Rafale aircraft and Scorpene submarines. With the United States, India holds Yudh Abhyas (army), Vajra Prahar (special forces), Cope India (air) and Malabar, which began as a bilateral naval exercise in 1992 and now includes Japan and Australia.
With the United Kingdom, India holds Ajeya Warrior (army) and Konkan (navy). With Sri Lanka, SLINEX (navy) and Mitra Shakti (army).
Exercises test interoperability, build familiarity between forces and signal strategic intent; in the Indian Ocean they also support India’s MAHASAGAR vision of security and growth across regions. Toulon, on France’s Mediterranean coast, is the French Navy’s main base.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (security); GS2 (India-France and India-US relations). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** interoperability, strategic partnership, maritime security, MAHASAGAR, defence diplomacy. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Pairing Yudh Abhyas with the UK; it is with the US. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** France: Varuna (navy), Shakti (army), Garuda (air). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What does India gain from a dense network of bilateral military exercises? |
Question 16 of 17
Facts
The Strait of Hormuz separates Iran to the north from Oman’s Musandam Governorate, an exclave at the tip of the Musandam peninsula, to the south, linking the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea. The United Arab Emirates is the tempting distractor: it lies on the Gulf coast close to the strait, but Musandam, which forms the strait’s southern shore, belongs to Oman.
Analysis
A Hindustan Times op-ed of 24 September warns that ships held idle in the Gulf by the Hormuz disruption may spread invasive marine species through biofouling.
Concept note
The Strait of Hormuz is one of the world’s most important chokepoints: before the present crisis about a fifth of global oil consumption and a large share of liquefied natural gas trade passed through it, and roughly 130 commercial vessels transited daily. India imports much of its crude oil and LPG from Gulf producers such as Iraq, Saudi Arabia, the UAE, Kuwait and Qatar, so any disruption raises its import bill and threatens supply.
Other chokepoints in India’s neighbourhood include the Bab-el-Mandeb (between Yemen and Djibouti, linking the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden), the Strait of Malacca (between Malaysia and Indonesia’s Sumatra) and the Suez Canal. India’s responses include strategic petroleum reserves at Visakhapatnam, Mangaluru and Padur, diversification of suppliers, and naval deployments to protect shipping in the Arabian Sea.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (world geography, chokepoints); GS3 (energy security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** chokepoint, sea lanes of communication, energy security, strategic petroleum reserve. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the UAE on the southern shore of the strait; it is Oman’s Musandam. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Hormuz: Iran and Oman; Bab-el-Mandeb: Yemen and Djibouti. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should India protect its energy imports if a chokepoint closes? |
Question 17 of 17
Facts
Argentina was invited to join BRICS from 2024 but declined, so it is not a member. Ethiopia and the United Arab Emirates joined in 2024 along with Egypt and Iran, and Indonesia joined in 2025; all took part in the BRICS Heads of Tax Authorities meeting in New Delhi. The tempting distractor is Indonesia, which some aspirants remember only as a partner country.
Analysis
The meeting on 23 September 2026 closed India’s chairship of the BRICS tax track; China takes over the track in 2027.
Concept note
BRICS began as BRIC in 2006, with the first summit in Yekaterinburg in 2009; South Africa joined in 2010. At the Johannesburg summit of 2023, six countries were invited: Argentina, Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia and the UAE.
Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran and the UAE joined from 2024, Argentina declined, and Saudi Arabia has not formally confirmed membership. Indonesia became a full member in January 2025.
A separate category of partner countries was created at the Kazan summit in 2024. BRICS institutions include the New Development Bank, headquartered in Shanghai, and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement.
India chairs BRICS in 2026 and hosted the 18th summit in New Delhi. Its tax track produced two India-led working groups, on international taxation and transfer pricing and on revenue statistics, and backed the negotiations on a UN Framework Convention on International Tax Cooperation, which developing countries favour as a more inclusive forum than the OECD.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international groupings). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** BRICS expansion, Global South, New Development Bank, UN tax convention, inclusive rule-making. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Counting Argentina as a member because it was invited in 2023. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 2024 entrants: Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, UAE; 2025: Indonesia. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does BRICS expansion strengthen or dilute India’s voice? |
Performance
Question-wise Result