UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 22 September 2026
Daily Practice
Test Your Knowledge
20 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
20 MCQs
Explanations
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Question 1 of 20
With reference to Article 22 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1 A person who is arrested cannot be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of their choice.
2 The protections in clauses (1) and (2) of Article 22 do not extend to a person arrested under a law providing for preventive detention.
3 The period of 24 hours within which an arrested person must be produced before a Magistrate includes the time taken for the journey.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1 A person who is arrested cannot be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of their choice.
2 The protections in clauses (1) and (2) of Article 22 do not extend to a person arrested under a law providing for preventive detention.
3 The period of 24 hours within which an arrested person must be produced before a Magistrate includes the time taken for the journey.
How many of the above statements are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: Article 22(1) guarantees the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest and the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of one’s choice. Statement 2 is correct: Article 22(3) excludes enemy aliens and persons arrested under preventive detention laws from clauses (1) and (2).
Statement 3 is wrong: Article 22(2) requires production within 24 hours excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the court. ANALYSIS: The news peg is the Supreme Court’s ruling of 21 September 2026 in Jaskaran Jeet Singh Deol v. State of Punjab: after an Article 22(1) breach, re-arrest needs written grounds and a Judicial Magistrate’s sanction.
Statement 3 is wrong: Article 22(2) requires production within 24 hours excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the court. ANALYSIS: The news peg is the Supreme Court’s ruling of 21 September 2026 in Jaskaran Jeet Singh Deol v. State of Punjab: after an Article 22(1) breach, re-arrest needs written grounds and a Judicial Magistrate’s sanction.
📝 Concept Note
Article 22 guards against arbitrary arrest. Clause (1) requires that an arrested person be informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds of arrest and not be denied the right to consult and be defended by a lawyer of their choice.
Clause (2) requires production before the nearest Magistrate within 24 hours, excluding journey time. Clause (3) removes these protections for enemy aliens and preventive detainees, whose safeguards lie in clauses (4) to (7): advisory board review beyond three months, communication of grounds and an opportunity to make a representation.
The Supreme Court has steadily hardened the grounds-of-arrest requirement: written grounds under the PMLA in Pankaj Bansal (October 2023), under the UAPA in Prabir Purkayastha (May 2024), arrest vitiated by the breach in Vihaan Kumar (February 2025), and written grounds for all offences in a language the person understands in Mihir Rajesh Shah (November 2025). The September 2026 ruling adds a remedy: re-arrest after a breach needs judicial sanction, the case moves to another officer, and a departmental inquiry follows.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, Section 47 covers grounds of arrest and Section 58 the 24-hour limit.
Clause (2) requires production before the nearest Magistrate within 24 hours, excluding journey time. Clause (3) removes these protections for enemy aliens and preventive detainees, whose safeguards lie in clauses (4) to (7): advisory board review beyond three months, communication of grounds and an opportunity to make a representation.
The Supreme Court has steadily hardened the grounds-of-arrest requirement: written grounds under the PMLA in Pankaj Bansal (October 2023), under the UAPA in Prabir Purkayastha (May 2024), arrest vitiated by the breach in Vihaan Kumar (February 2025), and written grounds for all offences in a language the person understands in Mihir Rajesh Shah (November 2025). The September 2026 ruling adds a remedy: re-arrest after a breach needs judicial sanction, the case moves to another officer, and a departmental inquiry follows.
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, Section 47 covers grounds of arrest and Section 58 the 24-hour limit.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (fundamental rights, judiciary, police reforms); GS4 (accountability of public servants). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Article 22(1), grounds of arrest, judicial sanction, departmental inquiry, BNSS Section 47. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking Article 22(1) and 22(2) protect preventive detainees; Article 22(3) excludes them. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** The ruling applies Article 22(1) to arrests under special statutes too, and the accused need not prove prejudice. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does requiring a Magistrate’s sanction for re-arrest strike the right balance between liberty and investigation? |
Question 2 of 20
With reference to the Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) regime in India, consider the following statements:
1 The EIA Notification, 2006 was issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2 Screening is a stage of the EIA process that applies only to Category A projects.
3 Coastal Regulation Zone clearance for port projects is granted under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 The EIA Notification, 2006 was issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2 Screening is a stage of the EIA process that applies only to Category A projects.
3 Coastal Regulation Zone clearance for port projects is granted under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: the notification of 14 September 2006 is subordinate legislation under the 1986 Act. Statement 2 is wrong: screening applies only to Category B projects, to sort them into B1 (EIA report required) and B2.
Statement 3 is wrong: the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, 2019, like the EIA Notification, is issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986; the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 governs diversion of forest land. ANALYSIS: The news peg is the EIA amendment of 21 September 2026, which made environmental clearance for ports, harbours, breakwaters and dredging valid for 20 years, extendable to a conditional maximum of 30.
Statement 3 is wrong: the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, 2019, like the EIA Notification, is issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986; the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 governs diversion of forest land. ANALYSIS: The news peg is the EIA amendment of 21 September 2026, which made environmental clearance for ports, harbours, breakwaters and dredging valid for 20 years, extendable to a conditional maximum of 30.
📝 Concept Note
The EIA Notification, 2006 replaced the 1994 notification and requires prior environmental clearance for listed new projects and for expansion, modernisation or capacity addition beyond thresholds. Category A projects are appraised at the Centre by the Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC) of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change; Category B projects by the State Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA), advised by the State-level Expert Appraisal Committee (SEAC).
The four stages are screening, scoping, public consultation and appraisal. The 2026 amendment covers ports, harbours, breakwaters and dredging (item 7(e) of the Schedule).
Validity rises from 10 years plus a one-year extension to 20 years, with a five-year extension after the EAC or SEAC re-examines the adequacy of safeguards, and a further five years where the project has not become operational. The draft of 20 May 2026 had proposed 15 plus 5 years, and the ports ministry had sought parity with mining.
Port projects in coastal areas also need clearance under the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, 2019, issued under the same 1986 Act. Critics worry that baselines go stale over 20 to 30 years and that cumulative coastal impacts are rarely assessed.
The four stages are screening, scoping, public consultation and appraisal. The 2026 amendment covers ports, harbours, breakwaters and dredging (item 7(e) of the Schedule).
Validity rises from 10 years plus a one-year extension to 20 years, with a five-year extension after the EAC or SEAC re-examines the adequacy of safeguards, and a further five years where the project has not become operational. The draft of 20 May 2026 had proposed 15 plus 5 years, and the ports ministry had sought parity with mining.
Port projects in coastal areas also need clearance under the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification, 2019, issued under the same 1986 Act. Critics worry that baselines go stale over 20 to 30 years and that cumulative coastal impacts are rarely assessed.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (environmental impact assessment, infrastructure, coastal regulation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** EC validity, EAC, SEAC, cumulative impact assessment, CRZ 2019, post-clearance monitoring. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing CRZ clearance under the Forest (Conservation) Act; both the CRZ and EIA notifications come under the 1986 Act. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Screening applies to Category B only; Category A projects are appraised at the Centre. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does a longer clearance weaken environmental protection, or only shift the burden to monitoring? |
Question 3 of 20
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In India’s National Accounts series with base year 2022-23, real gross value added in most manufacturing categories is estimated by double deflation.
Statement-II: When input prices and output prices move differently, deflating output and inputs by a single price index misstates real value added.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement-I: In India’s National Accounts series with base year 2022-23, real gross value added in most manufacturing categories is estimated by double deflation.
Statement-II: When input prices and output prices move differently, deflating output and inputs by a single price index misstates real value added.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
FACT: Statement-I is correct: MoSPI’s Sources and Methods for Compilation of National Accounts Statistics, released on 21 September 2026, confirms double deflation for 28 of 30 manufacturing categories, using the output Producer Price Index. Statement-II is correct and is the reason: real value added is real output minus real inputs, and a single index cannot capture a change in margins when input and output prices diverge.
ANALYSIS: If input prices fall while output prices rise, single deflation overstates real growth; double deflation corrects this.
ANALYSIS: If input prices fall while output prices rise, single deflation overstates real growth; double deflation corrects this.
📝 Concept Note
India’s National Accounts are periodically rebased so that the weights and data sources reflect the current structure of the economy. The series with base year 2022-23, released on 27 February 2026 and updated on 31 August 2026 for the new Producer Price Index and Index of Industrial Production, replaced the 2011-12 base and is the eighth base-year revision.
It was guided by the Advisory Committee on National Accounts Statistics, set up on 27 June 2024 under Prof. B.N. Goldar.
In the old series only agriculture used double deflation. The two manufacturing categories still on single extrapolation are food processing (meat, fish, fruit, vegetables, oils and fats) and pharmaceuticals, where heavy use of imported inputs makes item-level price mapping difficult.
Other changes include direct estimation of the household sector from the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises and the Periodic Labour Force Survey, the UN’s COICOP 2018 classification for private consumption, the Proportional Denton method for benchmarking quarterly GDP, and new methodology for Supply Use Tables and regional accounts. Critics still want a long back series linking the new base to earlier years.
It was guided by the Advisory Committee on National Accounts Statistics, set up on 27 June 2024 under Prof. B.N. Goldar.
In the old series only agriculture used double deflation. The two manufacturing categories still on single extrapolation are food processing (meat, fish, fruit, vegetables, oils and fats) and pharmaceuticals, where heavy use of imported inputs makes item-level price mapping difficult.
Other changes include direct estimation of the household sector from the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises and the Periodic Labour Force Survey, the UN’s COICOP 2018 classification for private consumption, the Proportional Denton method for benchmarking quarterly GDP, and new methodology for Supply Use Tables and regional accounts. Critics still want a long back series linking the new base to earlier years.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (measurement of growth, national income accounting). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** double deflation, base revision, Producer Price Index, ASUSE, PLFS, COICOP 2018, Proportional Denton. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying the old series double-deflated mining; only agriculture used double deflation. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** The base year is 2022-23, the eighth revision, replacing 2011-12. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What more should MoSPI do to settle doubts about GDP data? |
Question 4 of 20
Consider the following statements:
1 Article 51A(a) makes it a fundamental duty to respect the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2 The status of Vande Mataram as a national song honoured equally with Jana Gana Mana rests on a statement of the Constituent Assembly of 24 January 1950, not on an Article of the Constitution.
3 In Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala (1986), the Supreme Court upheld the expulsion of students who stood respectfully but did not sing the National Anthem.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1 Article 51A(a) makes it a fundamental duty to respect the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2 The status of Vande Mataram as a national song honoured equally with Jana Gana Mana rests on a statement of the Constituent Assembly of 24 January 1950, not on an Article of the Constitution.
3 In Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala (1986), the Supreme Court upheld the expulsion of students who stood respectfully but did not sing the National Anthem.
How many of the above statements are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: Article 51A(a) names the Constitution, its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem; the National Song is not mentioned. Statement 2 is correct: the Constituent Assembly’s statement, read by Dr Rajendra Prasad, gave Vande Mataram equal honour.
Statement 3 is wrong: the Court set aside the expulsion, holding that it violated Articles 19(1)(a) and 25(1) and that no law compelled anyone to sing. ANALYSIS: On 22 September 2026 the Supreme Court, hearing a challenge to the 2026 amendment of the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, said Bijoe Emmanuel still holds.
Statement 3 is wrong: the Court set aside the expulsion, holding that it violated Articles 19(1)(a) and 25(1) and that no law compelled anyone to sing. ANALYSIS: On 22 September 2026 the Supreme Court, hearing a challenge to the 2026 amendment of the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, said Bijoe Emmanuel still holds.
📝 Concept Note
The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 protects the National Flag, the Constitution and the National Anthem. Its 2026 amendment, which received assent in August 2026, extended Section 3 to the National Song, so that intentionally preventing its singing, or disturbing an assembly singing it, is punishable with up to three years, a fine or both.
Separate Home Ministry directions require the full six-stanza version at specified occasions. A petition by T.M. Krishna argues that stanzas three to six are devotional and that compelled singing violates Articles 14, 15(1), 19(1)(a), 21 and 25(1).
A Bench headed by CJI Surya Kant sought the Centre’s response within two weeks and observed that the State may decide what the National Song is, but conscientious objectors should not face prosecution. Bijoe Emmanuel (1986) involved three Jehovah’s Witness children; the Court held that the right to free expression includes the right to remain silent.
Vande Mataram was written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and appeared in Anandamath (1882). In 1937 the Congress Working Committee resolved that its first two stanzas be sung at national gatherings.
Separate Home Ministry directions require the full six-stanza version at specified occasions. A petition by T.M. Krishna argues that stanzas three to six are devotional and that compelled singing violates Articles 14, 15(1), 19(1)(a), 21 and 25(1).
A Bench headed by CJI Surya Kant sought the Centre’s response within two weeks and observed that the State may decide what the National Song is, but conscientious objectors should not face prosecution. Bijoe Emmanuel (1986) involved three Jehovah’s Witness children; the Court held that the right to free expression includes the right to remain silent.
Vande Mataram was written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and appeared in Anandamath (1882). In 1937 the Congress Working Committee resolved that its first two stanzas be sung at national gatherings.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (fundamental rights, secularism); GS1 (freedom struggle, national symbols); GS4 (conscience and duty). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** conscientious objector, compelled speech, right to silence, positive secularism. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming Article 51A names the National Song; it names only the Flag and the Anthem. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Fundamental Duties are not directly enforceable in court on their own. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can respect for national symbols be secured through penal law? |
Question 5 of 20
Consider the following statements about bank capital regulation:
1 The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision is hosted by the Bank for International Settlements in Basel.
2 The minimum total capital that the RBI requires of banks is lower than the Basel III minimum of 8 per cent of risk-weighted assets.
3 Capital charges for market risk apply mainly to positions in a bank’s trading book.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision is hosted by the Bank for International Settlements in Basel.
2 The minimum total capital that the RBI requires of banks is lower than the Basel III minimum of 8 per cent of risk-weighted assets.
3 Capital charges for market risk apply mainly to positions in a bank’s trading book.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: the BCBS was set up in 1974 by G10 central bank governors and is hosted by the BIS. Statement 2 is wrong: the RBI requires total capital of 9 per cent of risk-weighted assets, plus a 2.5 per cent capital conservation buffer, which is stricter than the Basel minimum of 8 per cent. Statement 3 is correct: market risk arises from price movements on positions held for trading; the RBI’s 2026 Directions define the trading book by the Held for Trading sub-classification.
ANALYSIS: Loans in the banking book carry credit risk, which is capitalised separately.
ANALYSIS: Loans in the banking book carry credit risk, which is capitalised separately.
📝 Concept Note
On 21 September 2026 the RBI issued the Minimum Capital Requirements for Market Risk Directions, 2026, adopting the Simplified Standardised Approach of the revised Basel III market-risk framework, effective 1 April 2027; transition scalars have applied since 1 April 2024 and the draft dated from 17 February 2023. The Basel accords are standards, not treaties, and each country adopts them through its regulator.
Basel I (1988) set a minimum capital ratio of 8 per cent against credit risk, with market risk added by a 1996 amendment. Basel II (2004) introduced three pillars: minimum capital, supervisory review and market discipline.
Basel III, from 2010, responded to the 2008 crisis with higher-quality capital, a capital conservation buffer, a leverage ratio and the Liquidity Coverage and Net Stable Funding ratios. The revised market-risk framework, the Fundamental Review of the Trading Book, was finalised in 2016 and revised in 2019; the simplified approach suits banks with modest trading books.
Market risk has four components: interest rate, equity, foreign exchange and commodity risk. For Indian banks, which hold large government securities portfolios, interest rate risk dominates.
Basel I (1988) set a minimum capital ratio of 8 per cent against credit risk, with market risk added by a 1996 amendment. Basel II (2004) introduced three pillars: minimum capital, supervisory review and market discipline.
Basel III, from 2010, responded to the 2008 crisis with higher-quality capital, a capital conservation buffer, a leverage ratio and the Liquidity Coverage and Net Stable Funding ratios. The revised market-risk framework, the Fundamental Review of the Trading Book, was finalised in 2016 and revised in 2019; the simplified approach suits banks with modest trading books.
Market risk has four components: interest rate, equity, foreign exchange and commodity risk. For Indian banks, which hold large government securities portfolios, interest rate risk dominates.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (banking regulation, capital adequacy, government securities market). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** market risk, trading book, Simplified Standardised Approach, capital conservation buffer, BCBS, BIS. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming India follows the Basel minimum of 8 per cent; the RBI requires 9 per cent plus the buffer. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Basel II introduced the three pillars; Basel III added the liquidity ratios LCR and NSFR. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can stricter capital for trading positions reduce liquidity in the bond market? |
Question 6 of 20
Consider the following pairs of nuclear power projects and the States in which they are located:
1. Kakrapar: Gujarat;
2. Rawatbhata: Madhya Pradesh;
3. Gorakhpur (Anu Vidyut Pariyojana): Uttar Pradesh;
4. Kudankulam: Karnataka.
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. Kakrapar: Gujarat;
2. Rawatbhata: Madhya Pradesh;
3. Gorakhpur (Anu Vidyut Pariyojana): Uttar Pradesh;
4. Kudankulam: Karnataka.
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
FACT: Only pair 1 is correct: Kakrapar is in Gujarat. Pair 2 is wrong: Rawatbhata, where fuel loading began at RAPP-8 on 19 September 2026, is in Chittorgarh district, Rajasthan, on the Chambal near the Madhya Pradesh border.
Pair 3 is wrong: the Gorakhpur Haryana Anu Vidyut Pariyojana is in Fatehabad district, Haryana. Pair 4 is wrong: Kudankulam is in Tamil Nadu; Kaiga is the Karnataka site.
ANALYSIS: Each wrong pair uses a real confusion: Rawatbhata lies close to Madhya Pradesh, and the Gorakhpur project shares its name with the better-known city in Uttar Pradesh but takes it from a village in Haryana.
Pair 3 is wrong: the Gorakhpur Haryana Anu Vidyut Pariyojana is in Fatehabad district, Haryana. Pair 4 is wrong: Kudankulam is in Tamil Nadu; Kaiga is the Karnataka site.
ANALYSIS: Each wrong pair uses a real confusion: Rawatbhata lies close to Madhya Pradesh, and the Gorakhpur project shares its name with the better-known city in Uttar Pradesh but takes it from a village in Haryana.
📝 Concept Note
RAPP-8 is the fourth of 16 indigenous 700 MWe Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors, after KAPP-3 and KAPP-4 at Kakrapar (commercial operation in 2023-24) and RAPP-7 (April 2025). Initial fuel loading began on 19 September 2026 after permission from the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board; the next step is the First Approach to Criticality.
PHWRs use natural uranium as fuel and heavy water as both moderator and coolant, forming Stage 1 of Homi Bhabha’s three-stage programme; fast breeder reactors form Stage 2 and thorium-based reactors Stage 3. In 2017 the Union Cabinet approved ten 700 MWe PHWRs to be built in fleet mode, a standard design built in series to cut cost and time.
Besides RAPP-8, NPCIL has eight reactors under construction: two at Gorakhpur (Haryana), two at Kaiga (Karnataka) and four at Kudankulam (Tamil Nadu), the last being Russian-designed VVERs that use enriched uranium. The government’s Nuclear Energy Mission targets 100 GW of nuclear capacity by 2047, against under 9 GW installed today, and the SHANTI Act, 2025 opened the sector to wider participation.
PHWRs use natural uranium as fuel and heavy water as both moderator and coolant, forming Stage 1 of Homi Bhabha’s three-stage programme; fast breeder reactors form Stage 2 and thorium-based reactors Stage 3. In 2017 the Union Cabinet approved ten 700 MWe PHWRs to be built in fleet mode, a standard design built in series to cut cost and time.
Besides RAPP-8, NPCIL has eight reactors under construction: two at Gorakhpur (Haryana), two at Kaiga (Karnataka) and four at Kudankulam (Tamil Nadu), the last being Russian-designed VVERs that use enriched uranium. The government’s Nuclear Energy Mission targets 100 GW of nuclear capacity by 2047, against under 9 GW installed today, and the SHANTI Act, 2025 opened the sector to wider participation.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (energy, nuclear technology, indigenisation); GS1 (location of infrastructure). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** PHWR, fleet mode, three-stage programme, AERB, Nuclear Energy Mission. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the Gorakhpur nuclear project in Uttar Pradesh; it is in Haryana. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** PHWRs run on natural uranium; the Kudankulam VVERs run on enriched uranium. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can India reach 100 GW of nuclear capacity by 2047? |
Question 7 of 20
Consider the following statements:
1 All members of the Visegrad Group are members of both the European Union and NATO.
2 A non-permanent member of the UN Security Council can be re-elected for the term immediately following its current term.
3 An amendment to the UN Charter comes into force only when ratified by two-thirds of UN members, including all five permanent members of the Security Council.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1 All members of the Visegrad Group are members of both the European Union and NATO.
2 A non-permanent member of the UN Security Council can be re-elected for the term immediately following its current term.
3 An amendment to the UN Charter comes into force only when ratified by two-thirds of UN members, including all five permanent members of the Security Council.
How many of the above statements are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: Poland, Hungary, Slovakia and the Czech Republic belong to both. Statement 2 is wrong: under Article 23 of the UN Charter a retiring non-permanent member is not eligible for immediate re-election.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 108 requires a two-thirds vote of the General Assembly and ratification by two-thirds of members, including all permanent members. ANALYSIS: Article 108 is why permanent membership for India is a long game, and why India builds support in layers: bilateral endorsements, such as all four V4 states on 21 September 2026, plurilateral groupings and non-permanent terms.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 108 requires a two-thirds vote of the General Assembly and ratification by two-thirds of members, including all permanent members. ANALYSIS: Article 108 is why permanent membership for India is a long game, and why India builds support in layers: bilateral endorsements, such as all four V4 states on 21 September 2026, plurilateral groupings and non-permanent terms.
📝 Concept Note
At UNGA-81 in New York on 21 September 2026, India held the first V4+India Foreign Ministers’ Meeting under Slovakia’s presidency of the Visegrad Group, where the V4 backed India’s permanent membership of the Security Council; the two sides agreed on annual ministerial meetings and a business forum. The V4 was founded in 1991 at Visegrad, Hungary, by Czechoslovakia, Hungary and Poland, and became four after Czechoslovakia split in 1993.
The same day, P4M (Partners for Multilateralism, International Law, Peace and Prosperity) was launched with seven co-sponsors: Australia, Barbados, Brazil, Canada, the EU, India and Kenya. India is seeking a non-permanent seat for 2028-29, in an election due in 2027, and Tajikistan is also a candidate; India has been elected eight times, most recently for 2021-22.
The Council has 15 members, five permanent and ten non-permanent elected for two-year terms by a two-thirds majority of the General Assembly; it was enlarged from 11 by an amendment adopted in 1963 and in force from 1965. The G4 (India, Brazil, Germany, Japan) back one another for permanent seats, while the Uniting for Consensus group opposes new permanent members.
The same day, P4M (Partners for Multilateralism, International Law, Peace and Prosperity) was launched with seven co-sponsors: Australia, Barbados, Brazil, Canada, the EU, India and Kenya. India is seeking a non-permanent seat for 2028-29, in an election due in 2027, and Tajikistan is also a candidate; India has been elected eight times, most recently for 2021-22.
The Council has 15 members, five permanent and ten non-permanent elected for two-year terms by a two-thirds majority of the General Assembly; it was enlarged from 11 by an amendment adopted in 1963 and in force from 1965. The G4 (India, Brazil, Germany, Japan) back one another for permanent seats, while the Uniting for Consensus group opposes new permanent members.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international institutions, UN reform, India and Europe). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** reformed multilateralism, V4, P4M, G4, Uniting for Consensus, Article 108. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking non-permanent members can serve back-to-back terms; Article 23 bars immediate re-election. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 108 amendments need ratification by all five permanent members. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Do middle-power coalitions help or dilute India’s case for a permanent seat? |
Question 8 of 20
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls is vested in the Election Commission of India.
Statement-II: Article 326 of the Constitution requires a person to be ordinarily resident in a constituency to be registered as an elector there.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement-I: The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls is vested in the Election Commission of India.
Statement-II: Article 326 of the Constitution requires a person to be ordinarily resident in a constituency to be registered as an elector there.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
FACT: Statement-I is correct: Article 324(1) vests the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections in the Election Commission. Statement-II is incorrect: Article 326 provides for elections on the basis of adult suffrage for citizens aged at least 18 who are not otherwise disqualified; the “ordinarily resident” condition comes from Sections 19 and 20 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
ANALYSIS: Keeping the constitutional and statutory sources apart is the precision that the Special Intensive Revision debate rewards.
ANALYSIS: Keeping the constitutional and statutory sources apart is the precision that the Special Intensive Revision debate rewards.
📝 Concept Note
The Hindu’s editorial of 22 September 2026 on the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) cites the Election Commission’s counter-affidavit in the Supreme Court: in West Bengal, of more than 38 lakh appeals submitted to the SIR appellate tribunals, just over 1,22,000 had been disposed of by early September, a disposal rate of 3.2 per cent, and 1,13,943 electors were restored, nearly 93 per cent of decided appeals. It argues that this shows the verification stage wrongly declared many eligible electors ineligible, and that making electors prove eligibility against rolls from the early 2000s manufactures discrepancies.
The constitutional frame: Article 324 (Election Commission), Article 325 (one general roll per constituency, no exclusion on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex), Article 326 (adult suffrage). The voting age was lowered from 21 to 18 by the 61st Amendment Act, 1988.
Under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, Section 16 lists disqualifications, Section 21(3) lets the Commission order a special revision, and Section 24 provides appeals against the Electoral Registration Officer. Four qualifying dates a year were introduced by the Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021.
The constitutional frame: Article 324 (Election Commission), Article 325 (one general roll per constituency, no exclusion on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex), Article 326 (adult suffrage). The voting age was lowered from 21 to 18 by the 61st Amendment Act, 1988.
Under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, Section 16 lists disqualifications, Section 21(3) lets the Commission order a special revision, and Section 24 provides appeals against the Electoral Registration Officer. Four qualifying dates a year were introduced by the Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (constitutional bodies, Representation of the People Act, electoral reforms). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** burden of proof, disposal rate, inclusion rate, Article 324, RP Act 1950. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Attributing the "ordinarily resident" condition to Article 326; it is statutory. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** The 61st Amendment Act, 1988 lowered the voting age from 21 to 18. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you design a roll revision that does not make voters prove a negative? |
Question 9 of 20
With reference to the law of the sea, consider the following statements:
1 Under UNCLOS, the right of transit passage through straits used for international navigation cannot be suspended by the States bordering the strait.
2 Iran has ratified the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea.
3 The Strait of Hormuz lies between Iran and Saudi Arabia.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1 Under UNCLOS, the right of transit passage through straits used for international navigation cannot be suspended by the States bordering the strait.
2 Iran has ratified the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea.
3 The Strait of Hormuz lies between Iran and Saudi Arabia.
How many of the above statements are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: Article 44 of UNCLOS bars the suspension of transit passage, a right created by Part III. Statement 2 is wrong: Iran signed UNCLOS in 1982 but has not ratified it, and argues that transit passage is owed only to parties. Statement 3 is wrong: the Strait of Hormuz lies between Iran to the north and Oman’s Musandam peninsula, with the UAE, to the south.
ANALYSIS: The dispute over Hormuz is a triangle: Iran outside the treaty, the United States also outside it but treating transit passage as customary law, and user States dependent on the strait.
ANALYSIS: The dispute over Hormuz is a triangle: Iran outside the treaty, the United States also outside it but treating transit passage as customary law, and user States dependent on the strait.
📝 Concept Note
Where a strait is narrower than 24 nautical miles, two 12-nautical-mile territorial seas meet and no high-seas corridor remains, so the legal regime decides who may pass. In the territorial sea the general rule is innocent passage (Articles 17 to 19): the coastal State may temporarily suspend it in specified areas for security (Article 25(3)), submarines must navigate on the surface (Article 20), and there is no right of overflight.
Transit passage, created by Part III (Articles 34 to 45) for straits used for international navigation, permits continuous and expeditious transit by all ships and aircraft and cannot be suspended. The Hindu op-ed of 22 September 2026 recalls how the Straits of Malacca and Singapore, bordered by Indonesia, Malaysia and Singapore, were settled during the UNCLOS negotiations: Indonesia accepted transit passage in exchange for recognition of archipelagic States (Part IV), and a 2007 Cooperative Mechanism created a user-funded Aids to Navigation Fund with no tolls, based on Article 43.
UNCLOS was adopted in 1982 and entered into force in 1994; India is a party. The Strait of Hormuz is about 21 nautical miles wide at its narrowest.
Transit passage, created by Part III (Articles 34 to 45) for straits used for international navigation, permits continuous and expeditious transit by all ships and aircraft and cannot be suspended. The Hindu op-ed of 22 September 2026 recalls how the Straits of Malacca and Singapore, bordered by Indonesia, Malaysia and Singapore, were settled during the UNCLOS negotiations: Indonesia accepted transit passage in exchange for recognition of archipelagic States (Part IV), and a 2007 Cooperative Mechanism created a user-funded Aids to Navigation Fund with no tolls, based on Article 43.
UNCLOS was adopted in 1982 and entered into force in 1994; India is a party. The Strait of Hormuz is about 21 nautical miles wide at its narrowest.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international law, maritime security); GS1 (straits and chokepoints). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** innocent passage, transit passage, UNCLOS Part III, archipelagic State, Cooperative Mechanism. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying a coastal State can legally close an international strait; transit passage cannot be suspended. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Hormuz: Iran to the north, Oman (Musandam) and the UAE to the south. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why can the Malacca model not simply be copied to Hormuz? |
Question 10 of 20
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980), the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the death penalty for murder.
Statement-II: In Manoj v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2022), the Supreme Court required sentencing courts to have material on the accused’s mitigating circumstances, such as probation officer and prison reports, before imposing a death sentence.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement-I: In Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980), the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the death penalty for murder.
Statement-II: In Manoj v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2022), the Supreme Court required sentencing courts to have material on the accused’s mitigating circumstances, such as probation officer and prison reports, before imposing a death sentence.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
FACT: Both statements are correct. Bachan Singh, a five-judge bench, upheld the death penalty but confined it to the “rarest of rare” cases, requiring courts to weigh the circumstances of the criminal as well as the crime.
Manoj (May 2022) made mitigation investigable by requiring reports from the probation officer and prison authorities, a psychological evaluation and the defence’s mitigation material. Statement-II does not explain Statement-I: it is a later procedural safeguard, not the reason the penalty was upheld.
ANALYSIS: Statement-I/II questions test the relationship as well as the facts; two true statements about the same subject need not be cause and effect.
Manoj (May 2022) made mitigation investigable by requiring reports from the probation officer and prison authorities, a psychological evaluation and the defence’s mitigation material. Statement-II does not explain Statement-I: it is a later procedural safeguard, not the reason the penalty was upheld.
ANALYSIS: Statement-I/II questions test the relationship as well as the facts; two true statements about the same subject need not be cause and effect.
📝 Concept Note
An Indian Express column by Anup Surendranath of The Square Circle Clinic, NALSAR University of Law, argues that trial courts are ignoring these safeguards. An Additional District and Sessions Judge in Muzaffarnagar imposed 23 death sentences in about five months in nine judgments, reasoning almost wholly from the crime.
Of 216 cases in which trial courts imposed death sentences between 2023 and 2025, only eight complied with the Supreme Court’s requirements. In Vasanta Sampat Dupare v. Union of India (August 2025), the Court held that imposing death without the Manoj safeguards violates fundamental rights.
Related cases: Jagmohan Singh (1973) upheld the death penalty before the doctrine; Machhi Singh (1983) set out categories to apply the rarest-of-rare test; Mithu (1983) struck down mandatory death under Section 303 of the former Indian Penal Code. A death sentence by a Sessions Court must be confirmed by the High Court.
The President may pardon under Article 72, which expressly covers every case of a death sentence; the Governor’s power is under Article 161. The Law Commission’s 262nd Report (2015) recommended abolition except for terrorism-related offences and waging war.
Of 216 cases in which trial courts imposed death sentences between 2023 and 2025, only eight complied with the Supreme Court’s requirements. In Vasanta Sampat Dupare v. Union of India (August 2025), the Court held that imposing death without the Manoj safeguards violates fundamental rights.
Related cases: Jagmohan Singh (1973) upheld the death penalty before the doctrine; Machhi Singh (1983) set out categories to apply the rarest-of-rare test; Mithu (1983) struck down mandatory death under Section 303 of the former Indian Penal Code. A death sentence by a Sessions Court must be confirmed by the High Court.
The President may pardon under Article 72, which expressly covers every case of a death sentence; the Governor’s power is under Article 161. The Law Commission’s 262nd Report (2015) recommended abolition except for terrorism-related offences and waging war.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (judiciary, Article 21); GS4 (ethics of punishment, retribution and reform). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** rarest of rare, individualised sentencing, mitigation investigation, Manoj guidelines. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Crediting Machhi Singh with the rarest-of-rare doctrine; it applied Bachan Singh. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 72(1)(c) expressly empowers the President to pardon in every case where the sentence is death. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should a judge’s sentence reflect public anger in a brutal case? |
Question 11 of 20
Consider the following statements:
1 Sulphuric acid is used to convert rock phosphate into a water-soluble form of phosphorus.
2 Urea is subsidised under the Nutrient Based Subsidy scheme.
3 Single super phosphate supplies sulphur in addition to phosphorus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 Sulphuric acid is used to convert rock phosphate into a water-soluble form of phosphorus.
2 Urea is subsidised under the Nutrient Based Subsidy scheme.
3 Single super phosphate supplies sulphur in addition to phosphorus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: rock phosphate must be treated with sulphuric acid, made from sulphur, before plants can absorb its phosphorus; this yields single super phosphate and phosphoric acid for di-ammonium phosphate. Statement 2 is wrong: the Nutrient Based Subsidy scheme covers phosphatic and potassic fertilisers; urea is outside it, with its retail price fixed by the government.
Statement 3 is correct: SSP contains about 16 per cent P2O5 and also supplies sulphur and calcium. ANALYSIS: This is why a global sulphur shortage hits India’s phosphatic fertilisers while urea is protected by imports of urea and LNG.
Statement 3 is correct: SSP contains about 16 per cent P2O5 and also supplies sulphur and calcium. ANALYSIS: This is why a global sulphur shortage hits India’s phosphatic fertilisers while urea is protected by imports of urea and LNG.
📝 Concept Note
An Indian Express editorial of 22 September 2026 argues that the energy crisis from the conflicts in West Asia and Russia-Ukraine is different because drone and missile strikes have knocked out refining capacity, so shortages are in diesel, jet fuel and sulphur more than crude. Brent crude was about 102 dollars a barrel, nearly 55 per cent above a year earlier, but below the peaks of 147.5 dollars (July 2008) and 139.1 dollars (March 2022).
Sulphur, recovered when refineries and gas plants make low-sulphur fuels, rose from 200 dollars a tonne or less to 1,000 dollars or more. India produced 284.9 million tonnes of refined products in 2025-26 against consumption of 243.2 million tonnes, which is why fuel outlets have not run dry, but its phosphatic fertiliser chain depends on imported rock phosphate, phosphoric acid and sulphur.
Di-ammonium phosphate is graded 18-46-0 (nitrogen, P2O5, K2O). The Nutrient Based Subsidy scheme has been in force since 1 April 2010.
India moved to Bharat Stage VI fuel, with sulphur capped at 10 ppm, on 1 April 2020. Sulphur is often called the fourth major plant nutrient after nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium.
Sulphur, recovered when refineries and gas plants make low-sulphur fuels, rose from 200 dollars a tonne or less to 1,000 dollars or more. India produced 284.9 million tonnes of refined products in 2025-26 against consumption of 243.2 million tonnes, which is why fuel outlets have not run dry, but its phosphatic fertiliser chain depends on imported rock phosphate, phosphoric acid and sulphur.
Di-ammonium phosphate is graded 18-46-0 (nitrogen, P2O5, K2O). The Nutrient Based Subsidy scheme has been in force since 1 April 2010.
India moved to Bharat Stage VI fuel, with sulphur capped at 10 ppm, on 1 April 2020. Sulphur is often called the fourth major plant nutrient after nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (energy security, agricultural inputs, fertiliser subsidies). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** crack spread, recovered sulphur, NBS scheme, NPK balance, input security. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Putting urea under the Nutrient Based Subsidy scheme; urea has a government-fixed retail price. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** DAP is graded 18-46-0; SSP carries about 16 per cent P2O5. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How can India secure fertiliser inputs it does not produce? |
Question 12 of 20
Consider the following statements:
1 Greenland is an autonomous territory within the Kingdom of Denmark.
2 Greenland is a member of the European Union.
3 The Pituffik Space Base in Greenland was earlier known as Thule Air Base.
4 India is an observer at the Arctic Council.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1 Greenland is an autonomous territory within the Kingdom of Denmark.
2 Greenland is a member of the European Union.
3 The Pituffik Space Base in Greenland was earlier known as Thule Air Base.
4 India is an observer at the Arctic Council.
How many of the above statements are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: Greenland gained Home Rule in 1979 and wider self-government under the 2009 Self-Government Act, within the Danish realm. Statement 2 is wrong: Greenland left the European Communities in 1985 after a 1982 referendum and is associated with the EU as an overseas country and territory.
Statement 3 is correct: Thule Air Base was renamed Pituffik Space Base in 2023. Statement 4 is correct: India has been an Arctic Council observer since 2013.
ANALYSIS: The US-Denmark-Greenland deal announced on 18 September 2026 builds on the US rights under the 1951 Greenland Defence Agreement.
Statement 3 is correct: Thule Air Base was renamed Pituffik Space Base in 2023. Statement 4 is correct: India has been an Arctic Council observer since 2013.
ANALYSIS: The US-Denmark-Greenland deal announced on 18 September 2026 builds on the US rights under the 1951 Greenland Defence Agreement.
📝 Concept Note
An Indian Express editorial of 22 September 2026 argues that the deal between the United States, Denmark and Greenland, announced on Friday 18 September, adds little to the 1951 Greenland Defence Agreement, which already gave the US broad rights to build and operate military facilities and access to Greenland’s airspace and waters. The new deal may expand the US military presence and give Washington a veto over third-party military activity and certain sensitive investments.
Its real cost, the editorial says, is trust within NATO: about nine months earlier, Denmark and other allies had deployed troops to Greenland in response to President Trump’s threat of a takeover. Diversification is the natural response, as seen in Canada’s move towards some form of associate membership of the EU. Greenland is the world’s largest island, about 2.16 million sq km, with about 56,000 people; its capital is Nuuk.
NATO was founded in 1949 under the Washington Treaty, with Denmark a founding member; Article 5, the collective defence clause, has been invoked once, after 11 September 2001. India released its Arctic Policy in 2022, and its research station Himadri at Ny-Alesund, Svalbard, was set up in 2008.
Its real cost, the editorial says, is trust within NATO: about nine months earlier, Denmark and other allies had deployed troops to Greenland in response to President Trump’s threat of a takeover. Diversification is the natural response, as seen in Canada’s move towards some form of associate membership of the EU. Greenland is the world’s largest island, about 2.16 million sq km, with about 56,000 people; its capital is Nuuk.
NATO was founded in 1949 under the Washington Treaty, with Denmark a founding member; Article 5, the collective defence clause, has been invoked once, after 11 September 2001. India released its Arctic Policy in 2022, and its research station Himadri at Ny-Alesund, Svalbard, was set up in 2008.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (policies of developed countries, international groupings); GS1 (world geography). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** alliance cohesion, hedging, Arctic geopolitics, strategic autonomy. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating Greenland as an EU member because Denmark is one. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** The Arctic Council was set up by the Ottawa Declaration of 1996; observers have no vote. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What does the Greenland episode teach India about depending on a single partner? |
Question 13 of 20
Consider the following statements: 1. "Water, that is to say, water supplies, irrigation and canals" is an entry in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule.
2 Drinking water is a matter listed in the Twelfth Schedule but not in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution.
3 Under Article 262, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction over disputes on the waters of inter-State rivers.
How many of the above statements are correct?
2 Drinking water is a matter listed in the Twelfth Schedule but not in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution.
3 Under Article 262, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction over disputes on the waters of inter-State rivers.
How many of the above statements are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is wrong: water is Entry 17 of the State List, subject to Entry 56 of the Union List on inter-State rivers. Statement 2 is wrong: drinking water is item 11 of the Eleventh Schedule (Panchayats), added by the 73rd Amendment, 1992; water supply also appears in the Twelfth Schedule for Municipalities.
Statement 3 is wrong: Article 262 lets Parliament provide for adjudication of inter-State water disputes and bar the jurisdiction of courts, which the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 does in favour of tribunals. ANALYSIS: “None” is a legitimate UPSC key; each statement here inverts a Centre-State or court-tribunal line.
Statement 3 is wrong: Article 262 lets Parliament provide for adjudication of inter-State water disputes and bar the jurisdiction of courts, which the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 does in favour of tribunals. ANALYSIS: “None” is a legitimate UPSC key; each statement here inverts a Centre-State or court-tribunal line.
📝 Concept Note
Union Jal Shakti Minister C.R. Patil, writing in the Hindustan Times on 22 September 2026, framed the 9th India International Water Week (New Delhi, 22 to 26 September 2026, theme “Climate Resilient Water Management”) around Jan Bhagidari, or people’s participation. By the ministry’s count, the Jal Jeevan Mission, launched on 15 August 2019, has taken tap connections in rural homes from 3.23 crore to more than 15.9 crore; its service norm is 55 litres per capita per day, and the Union Budget 2025-26 extended it to 2028.
Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0 aims to turn connections into reliable service, with Gram Panchayats and Village Water and Sanitation Committees acting as local micro-utilities and Jal Seva Aankalan assessing the regularity, adequacy, quality and sustainability of supply. Swachh Bharat Mission-Grameen, launched on 2 October 2014, has built more than 12 crore rural toilets, and its second phase targets solid and liquid waste management.
The Catch the Rain campaign was launched on World Water Day, 22 March 2021. The Ministry of Jal Shakti was formed in 2019.
Critics note that functionality, groundwater stress and water quality, not connections, are now the binding constraints.
Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0 aims to turn connections into reliable service, with Gram Panchayats and Village Water and Sanitation Committees acting as local micro-utilities and Jal Seva Aankalan assessing the regularity, adequacy, quality and sustainability of supply. Swachh Bharat Mission-Grameen, launched on 2 October 2014, has built more than 12 crore rural toilets, and its second phase targets solid and liquid waste management.
The Catch the Rain campaign was launched on World Water Day, 22 March 2021. The Ministry of Jal Shakti was formed in 2019.
Critics note that functionality, groundwater stress and water quality, not connections, are now the binding constraints.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Centre-State relations, local government); GS3 (water resources, climate resilience). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Jan Bhagidari, functional tap connection, micro-utility, source sustainability, cooperative federalism. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing water in the Union List; it is a State subject, subject to Parliament’s power over inter-State rivers. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Drinking water is in the Eleventh Schedule (Panchayats), added by the 73rd Amendment. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why is the government now measuring water service rather than tap connections? |
Question 14 of 20
Which one of the following is NOT among the criteria used by the India Meteorological Department to declare the withdrawal of the southwest monsoon from a region?
FACT: IMD declares withdrawal from a region after continuous cessation of rainfall for five days, the establishment of an anticyclone in the lower troposphere, and a considerable reduction in moisture. The northeast monsoon’s onset is a separate event, usually in October, and is not a criterion for the southwest monsoon’s withdrawal.
ANALYSIS: Withdrawal begins in the north-west, where the monsoon arrives last; the normal date for west Rajasthan was revised in 2020 from 1 September to 17 September.
ANALYSIS: Withdrawal begins in the north-west, where the monsoon arrives last; the normal date for west Rajasthan was revised in 2020 from 1 September to 17 September.
📝 Concept Note
The India Meteorological Department said withdrawal began from parts of west Rajasthan on 19 September 2026, two days after the normal date of 17 September, with the line passing through Ramgarh, Mohangarh, Phalodi and Khajuwala. Country-wide rainfall up to 19 September was 15 per cent below normal, at 695.6 mm; rainfall was below normal in June, August and September and only about 1 per cent above normal in July.
Among the worst-hit States were Meghalaya (-59 per cent), Andhra Pradesh (-43 per cent), Arunachal Pradesh (-41 per cent) and Bihar (-36 per cent). In IMD’s all-India classification, a season below 90 per cent of the long period average is “deficient”, 90 to 95 per cent is “below normal” and 96 to 104 per cent is “normal”.
The monsoon’s onset over Kerala is normally around 1 June. The retreat of the monsoon trough and the build-up of high pressure over north-west India mark the transition to the post-monsoon season, when the northeast monsoon brings most of the annual rain to Tamil Nadu.
A deficient season with a late withdrawal stresses reservoirs, groundwater and rabi sowing.
Among the worst-hit States were Meghalaya (-59 per cent), Andhra Pradesh (-43 per cent), Arunachal Pradesh (-41 per cent) and Bihar (-36 per cent). In IMD’s all-India classification, a season below 90 per cent of the long period average is “deficient”, 90 to 95 per cent is “below normal” and 96 to 104 per cent is “normal”.
The monsoon’s onset over Kerala is normally around 1 June. The retreat of the monsoon trough and the build-up of high pressure over north-west India mark the transition to the post-monsoon season, when the northeast monsoon brings most of the annual rain to Tamil Nadu.
A deficient season with a late withdrawal stresses reservoirs, groundwater and rabi sowing.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (Indian monsoon, climatology); GS3 (agriculture, water security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** monsoon withdrawal, long period average, El Nino, rabi sowing. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the monsoon withdraws first from Kerala, where it arrives first. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** IMD revised the normal onset and withdrawal dates in 2020. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should Indian agriculture adapt to more erratic monsoons? |
Question 15 of 20
In the context of international trade, which one of the following best describes a "tariff rate quota"?
FACT: A tariff rate quota is a two-tier tariff: a set quantity enters at a lower (in-quota) rate and anything above it pays the higher (out-of-quota) rate. It is not a ban, and quotas are set by the importing country in its commitments, not allotted by the WTO. ANALYSIS: Combined with a minimum import price and seasonal windows, as India has done for New Zealand apples, kiwifruit and Manuka honey, a TRQ opens the market while protecting domestic growers in their peak season.
📝 Concept Note
Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal and New Zealand’s Trade Minister Todd McClay announced on 21 September 2026 that the India-New Zealand FTA will enter into force on 20 October 2026, Vijayadashami. The agreement was signed on 27 April 2026, and New Zealand’s Parliament passed the implementing legislation on 16 September.
Every tariff line covering India’s exports to New Zealand becomes duty-free, removing peak tariffs of up to 10 per cent on textiles, leather, gems and jewellery, engineering goods and processed foods. India kept dairy, animal meat (except sheep), key agricultural commodities, sugar and edible oils out of its tariff concessions, which matters because New Zealand is a leading dairy exporter.
New Zealand committed to facilitate 20 billion US dollars of investment in India, and the agreement offers 5,000 Temporary Employment Entry visas and 1,000 Working Holiday visas a year, with post-study work rights of up to three years for STEM graduates and four years for doctoral scholars. New Zealand will also accept inspection approvals from the US FDA, the European Medicines Agency, the UK MHRA and Health Canada for Indian pharmaceuticals.
The two countries upgraded ties to a Strategic Partnership in July 2026.
Every tariff line covering India’s exports to New Zealand becomes duty-free, removing peak tariffs of up to 10 per cent on textiles, leather, gems and jewellery, engineering goods and processed foods. India kept dairy, animal meat (except sheep), key agricultural commodities, sugar and edible oils out of its tariff concessions, which matters because New Zealand is a leading dairy exporter.
New Zealand committed to facilitate 20 billion US dollars of investment in India, and the agreement offers 5,000 Temporary Employment Entry visas and 1,000 Working Holiday visas a year, with post-study work rights of up to three years for STEM graduates and four years for doctoral scholars. New Zealand will also accept inspection approvals from the US FDA, the European Medicines Agency, the UK MHRA and Health Canada for Indian pharmaceuticals.
The two countries upgraded ties to a Strategic Partnership in July 2026.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (bilateral agreements); GS3 (trade policy, agriculture, market access). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** FTA, tariff rate quota, minimum import price, sensitive list, services mobility. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing the FTA’s signing date (27 April 2026) with its entry into force (20 October 2026). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** India excluded dairy, its most sensitive sector against New Zealand, from concessions. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should India balance market access with protecting small farmers in trade agreements? |
Question 16 of 20
The Global Gender Gap Index is published by:
FACT: The Global Gender Gap Report and its index are published annually by the World Economic Forum, which launched the series in 2006. The UNDP publishes the Gender Inequality Index and the Gender Development Index as part of its Human Development Report; the World Bank publishes Women, Business and the Law.
ANALYSIS: “Which body publishes index X” is a recurring Prelims pattern, and the UNDP’s two gender indices are the standard distractors for the WEF’s index.
ANALYSIS: “Which body publishes index X” is a recurring Prelims pattern, and the UNDP’s two gender indices are the standard distractors for the WEF’s index.
📝 Concept Note
The Global Gender Gap Index measures the gap between women and men, not absolute levels of development, across four sub-indices: Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, and Political Empowerment. Scores run from 0 to 1 (or 0 to 100 per cent), where 1 means full parity.
In the 2026 edition India kept its rank of 131 out of 145 countries with an overall parity score of 64.5 per cent. Its educational attainment parity was high, at 96.6 per cent, but economic participation parity was only 41.2 per cent, reflecting low female labour force participation and wage gaps; political empowerment is also weak, with women’s share in Parliament and ministerial posts far below parity.
Iceland topped the index, followed by Finland and Norway. The UNDP’s Gender Inequality Index, by contrast, measures reproductive health, empowerment and labour market participation, and its Gender Development Index compares female and male Human Development Index values.
For Mains, the index gives a quick frame for the gap between India’s gains in schooling and its weak conversion of education into paid work, which links to care burdens, safety, mobility and the structure of available jobs.
In the 2026 edition India kept its rank of 131 out of 145 countries with an overall parity score of 64.5 per cent. Its educational attainment parity was high, at 96.6 per cent, but economic participation parity was only 41.2 per cent, reflecting low female labour force participation and wage gaps; political empowerment is also weak, with women’s share in Parliament and ministerial posts far below parity.
Iceland topped the index, followed by Finland and Norway. The UNDP’s Gender Inequality Index, by contrast, measures reproductive health, empowerment and labour market participation, and its Gender Development Index compares female and male Human Development Index values.
For Mains, the index gives a quick frame for the gap between India’s gains in schooling and its weak conversion of education into paid work, which links to care burdens, safety, mobility and the structure of available jobs.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (role of women, social empowerment); GS2 (welfare of vulnerable sections); GS3 (inclusive growth, labour force). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** female labour force participation, economic participation gap, political empowerment, care economy. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Attributing the Global Gender Gap Index to the UNDP, which publishes the Gender Inequality Index instead. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** The index has four sub-indices; India does best on educational attainment and worst on economic participation. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why has rising education among Indian women not raised their workforce participation? |
Question 17 of 20
The National Formulary of India is published by:
FACT: The National Formulary of India is published by the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC), an autonomous body under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, which also publishes the Indian Pharmacopoeia and serves as the National Coordination Centre for the Pharmacovigilance Programme of India. The CDSCO is the national drug regulator, the ICMR funds and conducts biomedical research, and the NPPA fixes and monitors drug prices.
ANALYSIS: Aspirants often confuse the standard-setting body (IPC) with the licensing regulator (CDSCO).
ANALYSIS: Aspirants often confuse the standard-setting body (IPC) with the licensing regulator (CDSCO).
📝 Concept Note
A formulary is a guidance document for prescribers on the rational and safe use of medicines. NFI 2026, the seventh edition, has 34 chapters, 20 appendices and 653 drugs, including 42 fixed-dose combinations and 30 immunologicals, with monographs aligned to the National List of Essential Medicines and National Health Programmes; it is available in print and online.
It was released alongside government approval of the Biovigilance Programme of India, which extends safety monitoring to transplant procedures, and the ADR-PvPI 2.0 mobile app for reporting adverse drug reactions. India’s safety surveillance now has three strands: pharmacovigilance for medicines, materiovigilance for medical devices, and biovigilance.
India has risen to 8th in contributions to the WHO patient-safety database, from 123rd in 2009-14. The Indian Pharmacopoeia, by contrast, sets legally binding standards of identity, purity and strength for drugs under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, while the NPPA, set up in 1997, enforces the Drugs (Prices Control) Order.
The 2026 Pharmacovigilance Week theme was “Promoting Rational Use of Medicines through Pharmacovigilance: A Step Towards Safer Healthcare”.
It was released alongside government approval of the Biovigilance Programme of India, which extends safety monitoring to transplant procedures, and the ADR-PvPI 2.0 mobile app for reporting adverse drug reactions. India’s safety surveillance now has three strands: pharmacovigilance for medicines, materiovigilance for medical devices, and biovigilance.
India has risen to 8th in contributions to the WHO patient-safety database, from 123rd in 2009-14. The Indian Pharmacopoeia, by contrast, sets legally binding standards of identity, purity and strength for drugs under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, while the NPPA, set up in 1997, enforces the Drugs (Prices Control) Order.
The 2026 Pharmacovigilance Week theme was “Promoting Rational Use of Medicines through Pharmacovigilance: A Step Towards Safer Healthcare”.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (health, regulatory institutions); GS3 (pharmaceutical sector). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** rational use of medicines, pharmacovigilance, materiovigilance, National List of Essential Medicines. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing the IPC, which sets standards and runs pharmacovigilance, with the CDSCO, which licenses drugs. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Materiovigilance covers medical devices; the NPPA fixes drug prices under the DPCO. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why does India under-report adverse drug reactions, and how can patients be brought into reporting? |
Question 18 of 20
The song Vande Mataram first appeared in which one of the following novels of Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay?
FACT: Vande Mataram appeared in Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay’s novel Anandamath, published in 1882 and set against the Sannyasi rebellion of the late eighteenth century in Bengal. Durgeshnandini (1865), Kapalkundala (1866) and Devi Chaudhurani (1884) are other novels by Bankim.
ANALYSIS: Prelims history questions often use an author’s other works as distractors, so knowing which work carries which theme is the test.
ANALYSIS: Prelims history questions often use an author’s other works as distractors, so knowing which work carries which theme is the test.
📝 Concept Note
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (1838-1894), among the first graduates of the University of Calcutta, was a deputy magistrate in the colonial service and a leading figure of the Bengal Renaissance; he also edited the journal Bangadarshan. Vande Mataram, written in a Sanskritised Bengali, was later included in Anandamath, whose story draws on the Sannyasi rebellion against East India Company rule.
Rabindranath Tagore sang the song at the 1896 Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress, and it became the rallying cry of the Swadeshi movement after the Partition of Bengal in 1905. In 1937 the Congress Working Committee resolved that only its first two stanzas would be sung at national gatherings, a position that bears directly on the petition now before the Supreme Court, which asks that only the first two stanzas be recognised as the National Song.
On 24 January 1950 the Constituent Assembly, in a statement read by Dr Rajendra Prasad, gave Vande Mataram equal honour with Jana Gana Mana. The 2026 amendment extended Section 3 of the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 to the National Song.
Rabindranath Tagore sang the song at the 1896 Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress, and it became the rallying cry of the Swadeshi movement after the Partition of Bengal in 1905. In 1937 the Congress Working Committee resolved that only its first two stanzas would be sung at national gatherings, a position that bears directly on the petition now before the Supreme Court, which asks that only the first two stanzas be recognised as the National Song.
On 24 January 1950 the Constituent Assembly, in a statement read by Dr Rajendra Prasad, gave Vande Mataram equal honour with Jana Gana Mana. The 2026 amendment extended Section 3 of the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 to the National Song.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (modern Indian history, Bengal Renaissance, national movement); GS2 (national symbols). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** cultural nationalism, Swadeshi movement, Bengal Renaissance, national symbols. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing Vande Mataram in Durgeshnandini, Bankim’s first Bengali novel. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Anandamath (1882) is set against the Sannyasi rebellion; Tagore sang the song at the 1896 Congress session. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should a plural society treat national symbols that carry religious imagery? |
Question 19 of 20
The Strait of Malacca lies between:
FACT: The Strait of Malacca, about 800 km long, lies between the Malay Peninsula and the Indonesian island of Sumatra, and links the Andaman Sea with the Strait of Singapore and the South China Sea. Java and Sumatra are separated by the Sunda Strait; the Malay Peninsula and Borneo by the South China Sea; Sumatra and Borneo by the Karimata Strait and the Java Sea.
ANALYSIS: Map-based straits questions are a Prelims staple, and the Sunda and Lombok Straits are the usual alternatives to Malacca for shipping.
ANALYSIS: Map-based straits questions are a Prelims staple, and the Sunda and Lombok Straits are the usual alternatives to Malacca for shipping.
📝 Concept Note
The Straits of Malacca and Singapore are among the busiest shipping lanes in the world, carrying a large share of the oil and trade moving between the Indian Ocean and East Asia, which is why China’s dependence on them is often called the “Malacca dilemma”. The littoral States are Indonesia, Malaysia and Singapore.
At their narrowest the straits are well under 24 nautical miles wide, so the territorial seas of the littoral States meet and ships pass under the regime of transit passage created by Part III of the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea, 1982. In 2007 the littoral States and user States agreed a Cooperative Mechanism with an Aids to Navigation Fund financed by voluntary contributions, with no tolls on transit.
India’s Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie close to the western approach; the Six Degree Channel separates Great Nicobar from Sumatra. Alternatives to Malacca include the Sunda Strait between Sumatra and Java, and the Lombok Strait between Bali and Lombok, which deep-draught vessels use.
The Hindu op-ed argues that Hormuz differs because its dispute is about Iran’s security, not navigational safety.
At their narrowest the straits are well under 24 nautical miles wide, so the territorial seas of the littoral States meet and ships pass under the regime of transit passage created by Part III of the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea, 1982. In 2007 the littoral States and user States agreed a Cooperative Mechanism with an Aids to Navigation Fund financed by voluntary contributions, with no tolls on transit.
India’s Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie close to the western approach; the Six Degree Channel separates Great Nicobar from Sumatra. Alternatives to Malacca include the Sunda Strait between Sumatra and Java, and the Lombok Strait between Bali and Lombok, which deep-draught vessels use.
The Hindu op-ed argues that Hormuz differs because its dispute is about Iran’s security, not navigational safety.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (world physical geography, straits); GS2 (maritime security, Indo-Pacific); GS3 (energy security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** chokepoint, transit passage, Malacca dilemma, Cooperative Mechanism, sea lines of communication. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the Strait of Malacca between Java and Sumatra; that is the Sunda Strait. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Six Degree Channel: Great Nicobar and Sumatra; Ten Degree Channel: Little Andaman and Car Nicobar. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How does India’s position near the Malacca approach shape its Indo-Pacific strategy? |
Question 20 of 20
On the IUCN Red List, the greater one-horned rhinoceros is classified as:
FACT: The greater one-horned rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis) is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List, after its numbers recovered from under 200 in the early twentieth century to over 4,000 today. The Javan and Sumatran rhinos are Critically Endangered.
ANALYSIS: Prelims tests IUCN categories through look-alike species; the Asian rhinos are the classic set, with only the Indian species recovered enough to be Vulnerable.
ANALYSIS: Prelims tests IUCN categories through look-alike species; the Asian rhinos are the classic set, with only the Indian species recovered enough to be Vulnerable.
📝 Concept Note
India holds about 80 per cent of the world’s greater one-horned rhinos, most of them in Assam, and Kaziranga National Park, a UNESCO World Heritage Site since 1985, alone holds about two-thirds of the global population. Other Indian habitats include Orang, Pobitora and Manas in Assam, Jaldapara and Gorumara in West Bengal, and Dudhwa in Uttar Pradesh; Nepal’s Chitwan and Bardia also hold significant populations.
The species is listed in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2022, and in Appendix I of CITES, which bans commercial international trade. Its main threats are poaching for horn, habitat loss, and floods in the Brahmaputra floodplain.
India has pursued its recovery through the Indian Rhino Vision 2020 translocations and the National Rhino Conservation Strategy of 2019. Of the five rhino species in the world, three are Asian (greater one-horned, Javan and Sumatran) and two African (white and black).
World Rhino Day, first observed in 2010, draws attention to all five. Assam recorded no rhino poaching in several recent years, a result credited to armed protection and community vigilance.
The species is listed in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2022, and in Appendix I of CITES, which bans commercial international trade. Its main threats are poaching for horn, habitat loss, and floods in the Brahmaputra floodplain.
India has pursued its recovery through the Indian Rhino Vision 2020 translocations and the National Rhino Conservation Strategy of 2019. Of the five rhino species in the world, three are Asian (greater one-horned, Javan and Sumatran) and two African (white and black).
World Rhino Day, first observed in 2010, draws attention to all five. Assam recorded no rhino poaching in several recent years, a result credited to armed protection and community vigilance.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (biodiversity, conservation, wildlife laws); GS1 (distribution of fauna). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** species recovery, anti-poaching, translocation, floodplain habitat. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling the Indian rhino Endangered; it is Vulnerable, while the Javan and Sumatran rhinos are Critically Endangered. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Kaziranga, a World Heritage Site since 1985, holds about two-thirds of all greater one-horned rhinos. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What can other species programmes learn from India’s rhino recovery? |
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