UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 28 August 2026
Daily Practice
Test Your Knowledge
15 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
15 MCQs
Explanations
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Question 1 of 15
Article 240 of the Constitution empowers the President to make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of certain Union Territories. Which of the following is correctly covered by it?
FACT: Article 240 applies to Union Territories that do not have a legislature. Ladakh, constituted as a UT without a legislature by the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, falls squarely within it.
ANALYSIS: Delhi is governed by Article 239AA and is excluded from Article 240 by name. Jammu and Kashmir has a legislature, so it is outside Article 240 even though it was created by the same Act.
The Chandigarh option is fabricated in its second half, which is what makes it a distractor rather than a near-miss.
ANALYSIS: Delhi is governed by Article 239AA and is excluded from Article 240 by name. Jammu and Kashmir has a legislature, so it is outside Article 240 even though it was created by the same Act.
The Chandigarh option is fabricated in its second half, which is what makes it a distractor rather than a near-miss.
📝 Concept Note
The full list under Article 240 is the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, and Ladakh, plus Puducherry when its legislature is suspended or dissolved. The power is remarkable in substance: such a regulation has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament and may repeal or amend an Act of Parliament in its application to that territory.
It is plenary lawmaking vested in the executive, available precisely where no legislature exists to exercise it.
It is plenary lawmaking vested in the executive, available precisely where no legislature exists to exercise it.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2 Union Territories; the President’s powers; federal structure. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | plenary executive lawmaking, democratic deficit, representation, Sixth Schedule. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | including Delhi in the Article 240 list. Delhi has Article 239AA. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | the test is whether the UT has a legislature, not its size or strategic importance. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** If a decision is unambiguously good for the people affected, does the absence of their consent to it matter? |
Question 2 of 15
On August 27, 2026, a Ladakh sitting of the High Court of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh was created. Which instrument was used?
FACT: Regulation No. 10 of 2026 was promulgated by the President under Article 240 read with Section 58(2) of the 2019 Act, and published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary the same day. ANALYSIS: The reason the ordinary route was unavailable is the point.
Section 51 of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 lets the President establish a permanent bench elsewhere after consulting the Governor of the State and the Chief Justice of the High Court. Ladakh is not a State and has no Governor, so that machinery does not reach it.
Section 51 of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 lets the President establish a permanent bench elsewhere after consulting the Governor of the State and the Chief Justice of the High Court. Ladakh is not a State and has no Governor, so that machinery does not reach it.
📝 Concept Note
The Regulation permits Judges and Division Courts to sit at a place in Ladakh appointed by the Chief Justice with the approval of the Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh. Three limitations are built in: the principal seat is expressly preserved, so this is a bench and not a second High Court; the Chief Justice retains discretion to direct that a Ladakh case be heard at Srinagar or Jammu; and commencement is by notification of the Administrator of Ladakh, so the bench is not yet sitting.
Between Leh and Kargil, the choice of place will itself be contested.
Between Leh and Kargil, the choice of place will itself be contested.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2 judiciary; Union Territories; Centre-UT relations. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | access to justice, Article 39A, executive lawmaking, Zoji La, Sixth Schedule demand. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | treating a High Court bench as a new High Court. Creating a High Court needs parliamentary legislation. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | the Jaswant Singh Commission, 1981, laid down the working criteria for establishing High Court benches. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should a territory receive a constitutional benefit through the same mechanism that reflects its lack of representation? |
Question 3 of 15
Which statement correctly distinguishes mediation from conciliation?
FACT: The defining difference is the neutral’s role in shaping the outcome. A conciliator may put proposed terms of settlement to the parties.
A mediator facilitates but does not propose or decide. ANALYSIS: Option A describes arbitration, where the third party hears both sides and delivers a binding award.
Options B and D are simply false; both processes have statutory recognition and neither is confined by subject matter.
A mediator facilitates but does not propose or decide. ANALYSIS: Option A describes arbitration, where the third party hears both sides and delivers a binding award.
Options B and D are simply false; both processes have statutory recognition and neither is confined by subject matter.
📝 Concept Note
Both are recognised in Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, inserted in 1999 and effective from 2002, which empowers a court to refer a dispute to arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement including Lok Adalat, or mediation. Conciliation is dealt with in the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
Mediation now has its own statute, the Mediation Act, 2023. A further distinction worth holding: a Lok Adalat award under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, is deemed a decree of a civil court and is final with no appeal.
Mediation now has its own statute, the Mediation Act, 2023. A further distinction worth holding: a Lok Adalat award under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, is deemed a decree of a civil court and is final with no appeal.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2 alternative dispute resolution; judicial reform; pendency. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | party autonomy, confidentiality, power asymmetry, pre-litigation filter. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | using mediation and conciliation interchangeably. The proposing power is the whole difference. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | four ADR mechanisms, four different roles for the neutral: arbitrator decides, conciliator proposes, mediator facilitates, Lok Adalat settles with decree effect. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Mediation is confidential and consensual; litigation is public and adversarial. Which protects the weaker party better? |
Question 4 of 15
Under the Mediation Act, 2023, what is the status of a mediated settlement agreement?
FACT: The Act gives a mediated settlement agreement the status of a judgment or decree of a court, enforceable in the same manner. ANALYSIS: This was the historic weakness of mediation in India, and fixing it is the Act’s single most consequential provision.
Before it, a mediated outcome was contractual, and a party that reneged forced the other into fresh litigation, which destroyed the point of mediating.
Before it, a mediated outcome was contractual, and a party that reneged forced the other into fresh litigation, which destroyed the point of mediating.
📝 Concept Note
The Mediation Council of India, the regulator that registers mediators and recognises Mediation Service Providers, was notified only on 27 August 2026 under Section 31(1), roughly three years after the Act received assent in September 2023. That gap is a clean implementation-deficit case study: the Act existed, its machinery did not.
Note the safeguard: unlike a Lok Adalat award, which is final and non-appealable, a mediated settlement agreement may be challenged on limited grounds such as fraud, corruption or impersonation.
Note the safeguard: unlike a Lok Adalat award, which is final and non-appealable, a mediated settlement agreement may be challenged on limited grounds such as fraud, corruption or impersonation.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2 statutory bodies; judiciary; implementation deficit. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | pre-litigation mediation, enforceability, accreditation, electronic depository. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | assuming a mediated settlement needs court confirmation. It does not; it has decree status by statute. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | India signed the Singapore Convention on Mediation in 2019, and the Act was framed with it in view. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does ADR reduce pendency, or add a stage that most disputes pass through before being filed anyway? |
Question 5 of 15
The Ministry of Defence’s revised export framework notified on August 28, 2026 changed the Open General Export Licence in which way?
FACT: Validity went from two years to three, and country coverage from 41 to all countries barring negative and sensitive nations and those under UN Security Council sanctions or arms embargoes. ANALYSIS: The structural change beneath the numbers is that the default has inverted, from prohibited-unless-cleared to permitted-unless-barred.
Option D is wrong on the crucial qualifier: safeguards for sensitive countries are retained, and no country list is unconditional.
Option D is wrong on the crucial qualifier: safeguards for sensitive countries are retained, and no country list is unconditional.
📝 Concept Note
Three separate OGEL SOPs, covering major platforms and equipment, parts and components, and intra-company technology transfer, were consolidated into a single unified SOP. Stakeholder consultation was dispensed with for non-lethal items to most destinations and for all items going to international tenders and exhibitions. A new provision allows OGEL for Indian firms holding long-term contracts with Foreign OEMs, with validity co-terminus with the contract.
Note what has moved rather than disappeared: pre-shipment approval is a preventive control, post-shipment end-use monitoring is a detective one, and India has not tested the second at this scale.
Note what has moved rather than disappeared: pre-shipment approval is a preventive control, post-shipment end-use monitoring is a detective one, and India has not tested the second at this scale.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS3 defence indigenisation, ease of doing business; GS2 defence exports as foreign policy. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | end-use monitoring, MSME participation, negative list, assembly-tier versus platform exports. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | confusing defence production (Rs 1.78 lakh crore in FY26) with defence exports (Rs 38,424 crore). Exports are roughly a fifth of production. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | read this against draft DAP 2026, which removes offsets, the very mechanism that pulled private firms into global supply chains. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does easier export procedure build defence-industrial depth, or accelerate whatever tier India already occupies? |
Question 6 of 15
India is a member of which of the following export control regimes?
FACT: India joined the Missile Technology Control Regime in 2016, the Wassenaar Arrangement in 2017 and the Australia Group in 2018. It is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group.
ANALYSIS: This is one of the most reliably examined distinctions in India’s external-security syllabus, and the NSG is the one that keeps catching people out, because India’s membership bid is well known and is frequently mistaken for membership.
ANALYSIS: This is one of the most reliably examined distinctions in India’s external-security syllabus, and the NSG is the one that keeps catching people out, because India’s membership bid is well known and is frequently mistaken for membership.
📝 Concept Note
India’s NSG membership has been blocked principally over the question of admitting states that are not parties to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty. India is not an NPT signatory.
Separately, India’s own dual-use export control list is SCOMET, Special Chemicals, Organisms, Materials, Equipment and Technologies, administered by the DGFT under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, with munitions in Category 6 licensed by the Department of Defence Production.
Separately, India’s own dual-use export control list is SCOMET, Special Chemicals, Organisms, Materials, Equipment and Technologies, administered by the DGFT under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, with munitions in Category 6 licensed by the Department of Defence Production.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2 international groupings; GS3 security and defence exports. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | non-proliferation, dual-use technology, SCOMET, end-use certification. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | assuming India is in the NSG. It is not, and the reason is the NPT. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | the years are 2016, 2017, 2018 in that order for MTCR, Wassenaar and the Australia Group. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does export-control credibility matter more to India as a supplier now than as an importer? |
Question 7 of 15
Under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, the RuPay debit card accident insurance cover is Rs 2 lakh for cards issued from which date?
FACT: Cards issued on or after 28 August 2018 carry accident insurance cover of Rs 2 lakh; cards issued before that date carry Rs 1 lakh. ANALYSIS: The date is not arbitrary. 28 August 2018 is the fourth anniversary of the scheme, and it is when PMJDY was made open-ended rather than a fixed-term mission, with the overdraft limit simultaneously raised from Rs 5,000 to Rs 10,000.
Three changes, one date.
Three changes, one date.
📝 Concept Note
PMJDY completed twelve years on 28 August 2026. Data as on 19 August 2026 show 59.09 crore accounts holding Rs 3,16,514 crore, with average deposit per account at Rs 5,356.
Deposits are up about 12.8 times against accounts up about 2.3 times, which is the ratio that answers the old zero-balance criticism. Women hold 55.7 per cent of accounts and 77.8 per cent are rural and semi-urban.
Note the reporting convention: state the data-as-on date, since the snapshot predates the anniversary.
Deposits are up about 12.8 times against accounts up about 2.3 times, which is the ratio that answers the old zero-balance criticism. Women hold 55.7 per cent of accounts and 77.8 per cent are rural and semi-urban.
Note the reporting convention: state the data-as-on date, since the snapshot predates the anniversary.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2 welfare schemes; GS3 financial inclusion, banking. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | access versus depth, DBT in transit, Bank Mitra cost recovery, ownership versus control. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | treating PMJDY as a scheme that transfers money. It provides an account, an overdraft facility and card-linked insurance; the transfers belong to other schemes. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | three things changed on 28 August 2018: open-ended status, Rs 10,000 overdraft, Rs 2 lakh cover. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** An account in a woman’s name is not an account under a woman’s control. How would you close that gap? |
Question 8 of 15
TRAI data for July 2026 recorded urban teledensity at 154.12 per cent. What does a figure above 100 per cent indicate?
FACT: Teledensity is telephone connections per 100 population. It counts connections, not people, so a single user holding two SIMs registers twice.
ANALYSIS: This is why headline near-universal teledensity is partly a statistical artefact, and why the honest comparison is urban 154.12 per cent against rural 61.05 per cent rather than the national average of 94.68 per cent.
ANALYSIS: This is why headline near-universal teledensity is partly a statistical artefact, and why the honest comparison is urban 154.12 per cent against rural 61.05 per cent rather than the national average of 94.68 per cent.
📝 Concept Note
Total subscribers stood at 1,354.28 million at end-July 2026, but active wireless subscribers on the date of peak VLR were 1,204.01 million, a gap of roughly 150 million. Where welfare delivery, DBT, health records and education assume a working phone, that gap and the rural figure are where exclusion errors live.
Read it directly against Jan Dhan: an account plus Aadhaar plus a mobile is the operating assumption of the JAM architecture, and rural teledensity is its weakest leg. VLR, the Visitor Location Register, is what makes the active count possible.
Read it directly against Jan Dhan: an account plus Aadhaar plus a mobile is the operating assumption of the JAM architecture, and rural teledensity is its weakest leg. VLR, the Visitor Location Register, is what makes the active count possible.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS3 digital infrastructure; GS2 digital divide as a governance and inclusion issue. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | JAM trinity, exclusion error, active subscribers, last-mile connectivity. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | reading teledensity as a penetration rate among individuals. It is connections per 100 population. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | teledensity is computed on projections from the Report of the Technical Group on Population Projections for India and States 2011-2036. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** If the third leg of JAM is the weakest, should benefit delivery be redesigned to not require it? |
Question 9 of 15
Which statement about the Index of Industrial Production is correct?
FACT: The IIP is a volume index of industrial production, it excludes construction entirely, and it covers only the organised sector. ANALYSIS: The exclusion of construction is the one most answers get wrong, because construction is intuitively industrial.
It is compiled by the National Statistics Office under MoSPI, not by the RBI, and the current base year is 2022-23, not 2011-12.
It is compiled by the National Statistics Office under MoSPI, not by the RBI, and the current base year is 2022-23, not 2011-12.
📝 Concept Note
July 2026 IIP grew 6.7 per cent, easing from 7.3 per cent in June. The composition is the story: electricity and gas supply grew 8.7 per cent and manufacturing 7.3 per cent, while mining and quarrying contracted 0.9 per cent.
Growth carried by utilities and consumer-facing manufacturing while upstream extraction contracts can mean the expansion is running on existing capacity utilisation rather than new investment. Note also that RBI corporate sales growth of 19.4 per cent for Q1 FY27 is nominal and value-based over a quarter, and is not comparable with a real, volume-based monthly IIP figure.
Growth carried by utilities and consumer-facing manufacturing while upstream extraction contracts can mean the expansion is running on existing capacity utilisation rather than new investment. Note also that RBI corporate sales growth of 19.4 per cent for Q1 FY27 is nominal and value-based over a quarter, and is not comparable with a real, volume-based monthly IIP figure.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS3 industrial performance; statistical indicators and their limits. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | capacity utilisation versus fresh capex, composition effect, nominal versus real, formal-sector coverage. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | quoting IIP manufacturing and RBI corporate sales as though they measure the same thing. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | IIP Quick Estimates are released on the 28th of every month with a six-week lag; the eight core industries carry about 40 per cent weight. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is improving corporate profitability converting into private capex, or into balance-sheet repair? |
Question 10 of 15
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India may be removed from office in which manner?
FACT: Article 148 provides that the CAG shall be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court, which means an address by both Houses, each by a special majority, on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. ANALYSIS: This is the security of tenure that makes the office independent of the executive it audits.
The appointment, however, is by the President without a collegium, which is a frequently missed asymmetry.
The appointment, however, is by the President without a collegium, which is a frequently missed asymmetry.
📝 Concept Note
On 27 August 2026 the CAG, K. Sanjay Murthy, launched the Certification on Audit of Digital Systems with IIT Madras, and said it would in time become mandatory for officers auditing digital systems. The significance is what it concedes about the audit object.
When an entitlement is granted or refused by a system rather than an officer, the decision exists in code, configuration and thresholds rather than in a file, and a wrong rule applies to every transaction it touches rather than to one case. An auditor who cannot audit an algorithm cannot discharge the Article 148 mandate over DBT and Aadhaar-linked delivery.
When an entitlement is granted or refused by a system rather than an officer, the decision exists in code, configuration and thresholds rather than in a file, and a wrong rule applies to every transaction it touches rather than to one case. An auditor who cannot audit an algorithm cannot discharge the Article 148 mandate over DBT and Aadhaar-linked delivery.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2 constitutional bodies, accountability; GS3 IT and e-governance. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | algorithmic audit, auditing standards, data access, vendor confidentiality, exclusion at scale. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | assuming the CAG controls expenditure. Despite the title, India’s CAG has no power to authorise issue of money from the Consolidated Fund, unlike the British office. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | CAG tenure is six years or until age 65, whichever is earlier; salary is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** If an algorithm wrongly denies an entitlement to a hundred thousand people, who is accountable? |
Question 11 of 15
What is the current IUCN Red List status of the snow leopard (Panthera uncia)?
FACT: The snow leopard is listed as Vulnerable, having been downlisted from Endangered in 2017. ANALYSIS: The older Endangered classification is still very widely repeated in study material, which is exactly why examiners like the question.
A downlisting reflects improved population estimates and survey coverage, not necessarily an improvement in the species’ actual condition.
A downlisting reflects improved population estimates and survey coverage, not necessarily an improvement in the species’ actual condition.
📝 Concept Note
The snow leopard is on Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, on CITES Appendix I and on CMS Appendix I. Its Indian range covers Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh, and it occurs across twelve range countries. On 26 August 2026 India presented advances in population estimation, radio telemetry and genetic analysis at a Russia-India roundtable in Moscow, under a partnership between the Interregional Association Irbis and the International Big Cat Alliance signed in December 2025.
Unlike other Panthera species, the snow leopard cannot roar.
Unlike other Panthera species, the snow leopard cannot roar.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS3 biodiversity and conservation; GS2 international scientific cooperation. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | transboundary conservation, non-invasive genetic sampling, baseline versus trend, standardised protocols. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | citing Endangered. It was downlisted in 2017. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | a first national assessment such as SPAI establishes a baseline, not a trend. Claims of recovery need a second assessment on the same method. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can scientific standardisation substitute for political agreement where borders are closed? |
Question 12 of 15
Which statement correctly distinguishes the International Big Cat Alliance from the Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection Programme?
FACT: IBCA is India-led, headquartered in India, and covers seven big cats: tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, cheetah, jaguar and puma. GSLEP was launched at Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan in 2013, is snow-leopard-specific, and covers all twelve range countries.
ANALYSIS: Option C inverts both halves, and it also contains a trap worth noticing on its own: the jaguar and the puma are in IBCA’s seven and neither occurs in India, so the alliance is not restricted to Indian species.
ANALYSIS: Option C inverts both halves, and it also contains a trap worth noticing on its own: the jaguar and the puma are in IBCA’s seven and neither occurs in India, so the alliance is not restricted to Indian species.
📝 Concept Note
The overlap is the analytically interesting part. GSLEP already occupies the ground, with a secretariat and an agreed framework across all twelve range countries.
A second alliance adds value only if it supplies something GSLEP does not, most plausibly finance and technical standards. If it supplies only meetings and declarations, it fragments an already thin institutional field, and range states with limited capacity end up reporting to two bodies instead of one.
The Russia partnership is the easiest possible bilateral test case; the hard test is China, which holds the majority of the global range.
A second alliance adds value only if it supplies something GSLEP does not, most plausibly finance and technical standards. If it supplies only meetings and declarations, it fragments an already thin institutional field, and range states with limited capacity end up reporting to two bodies instead of one.
The Russia partnership is the easiest possible bilateral test case; the hard test is China, which holds the majority of the global range.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2 India-led multilateral initiatives; GS3 conservation institutions. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | institutional fragmentation, standard-setting versus convening, transboundary governance, range-state capacity. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | treating IBCA and GSLEP as the same platform. Different origins, different scope, different membership. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | the Bishkek Declaration is GSLEP’s founding document. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** When does creating a new international body strengthen a regime, and when does it dilute one? |
Question 13 of 15
Mahatma Ayyankali’s Villuvandi Yatra of 1893 asserted which right?
FACT: Ayyankali bought a villuvandi, a bullock cart of the kind used by upper-caste men, and drove it along a public road in Venganoor reserved for caste Hindus. ANALYSIS: The road prohibition was not merely humiliating, it was economically disabling.
A community that could not use the roads could not reach markets or sell its labour freely. Ayyankali attacked the infrastructure of caste rather than its sentiment.
The distractors are all real Kerala struggles, from different movements and different decades.
A community that could not use the roads could not reach markets or sell its labour freely. Ayyankali attacked the infrastructure of caste rather than its sentiment.
The distractors are all real Kerala struggles, from different movements and different decades.
📝 Concept Note
The school-entry demand came later and produced the longer struggle. In 1904, denied government schooling, he built a school for Dalit children himself; it was destroyed by upper-caste men.
He founded the Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangham in 1907 and petitioned the government, which passed an order permitting Dalit admission that same year. When officials and landlord-run school managements refused to implement it, he called an agricultural labourers’ strike in 1907, widely regarded as among the first organised agricultural strikes in India, telling the landlords that if their children were not allowed to study, weeds would grow in the fields.
Education without discrimination was effectively realised only in 1910. He was nominated to the Sree Moolam Praja Sabha in 1912.
He founded the Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangham in 1907 and petitioned the government, which passed an order permitting Dalit admission that same year. When officials and landlord-run school managements refused to implement it, he called an agricultural labourers’ strike in 1907, widely regarded as among the first organised agricultural strikes in India, telling the landlords that if their children were not allowed to study, weeds would grow in the fields.
Education without discrimination was effectively realised only in 1910. He was nominated to the Sree Moolam Praja Sabha in 1912.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS1 social reform movements; social empowerment; GS4 methods of securing rights. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | infrastructure of caste, agrestic labour, economic indispensability, notified right versus enjoyed right. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | dating the agricultural strike to 1904. The strike was 1907; 1904 is when he built his own school, which was then destroyed. Also do not conflate Ayyankali with Sree Narayana Guru: the Guru inspired the SNDP Yogam, 1903; Ayyankali founded the SJPS, 1907. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | the Vaikom Satyagraha, 1924-25, was about roads around a temple, not entry into it. Temple entry came with the 1936 Proclamation. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Ayyankali converted a moral claim into an economic cost. Is that a legitimate way to secure a right? |
Question 14 of 15
In Mineral Area Development Authority vs Steel Authority of India (2024), the nine-judge Bench of the Supreme Court held that:
FACT: The nine-judge Bench held that royalty is not a tax, and that states have competence to tax mineral rights under Entry 50 of the State List and mineral-bearing land under Entry 49. ANALYSIS: Royalty is a payment made by a lessee to a lessor for the right to extract.
A tax is an imposition by sovereign authority. Because royalty is not a tax, the power to tax mineral rights is a separate and additional power, which is precisely what the 2026 amendment restricts.
A tax is an imposition by sovereign authority. Because royalty is not a tax, the power to tax mineral rights is a separate and additional power, which is precisely what the 2026 amendment restricts.
📝 Concept Note
The judgment overruled the earlier position in India Cement vs State of Tamil Nadu (1990). Parliament responded with the MMDR Amendment Act, 2026: introduced 10 August, passed by the Lok Sabha on 12 August and the Rajya Sabha on 13 August, assented 17 August 2026.
It bars states from levying any tax, cess or other levy on mineral rights or mineral-bearing lands except on conditions the Centre prescribes, and invalidates unpaid pre-amendment levies without requiring refund of amounts already collected. Karnataka, Kerala and Telangana are challenging it in the Supreme Court.
It bars states from levying any tax, cess or other levy on mineral rights or mineral-bearing lands except on conditions the Centre prescribes, and invalidates unpaid pre-amendment levies without requiring refund of amounts already collected. Karnataka, Kerala and Telangana are challenging it in the Supreme Court.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2 fiscal federalism, Seventh Schedule, legislative competence; GS3 mineral security. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | removing the basis versus annulling a judgment, excessive delegation, Article 14, retrospective validation. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | asserting that states have exclusive competence here. Entry 50 is expressly subject to limitations imposed by Parliament by a law relating to mineral development, so the contest is over how far that qualifier reaches. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | DMF and NMET both came from the 2015 amendment and are contributions, not state taxes, so neither is touched by the 2026 restriction. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is restricting a recognised state taxing power by ordinary legislation a legitimate response to a judgment, or an attempt to overrule one? |
Question 15 of 15
The August 2026 Nepal flash flood travelled down the Bhote Koshi in Rasuwa district. That river belongs to which basin?
FACT: The Bhote Koshi in Rasuwa flows into the Trishuli, which joins the Narayani and enters India as the Gandak, part of the Gandaki system. ANALYSIS: The name is the trap, and it is a real one.
Two different Nepali rivers are called Bhote Koshi. The other, the Poiqu or Matsang at Kodari in Sindhupalchok, does belong to the Koshi basin.
The August 2026 flood was on the Rasuwa river, so it is a Gandaki basin event.
Two different Nepali rivers are called Bhote Koshi. The other, the Poiqu or Matsang at Kodari in Sindhupalchok, does belong to the Koshi basin.
The August 2026 flood was on the Rasuwa river, so it is a Gandaki basin event.
📝 Concept Note
Satellite analysis, including by ISRO, points to a glacier collapse or ice-rock avalanche in Tibet, possibly followed by a temporary river blockage and its sudden failure, about 20 km east of the Rasuwagadhi crossing on the Lhende river. A second distinction matters: this is not a textbook GLOF. A GLOF requires a pre-existing glacial lake whose dam fails, and such a lake can be inventoried, monitored and sometimes drained.
An avalanche-dammed impoundment forms and fails within hours and cannot. India has about 15,000 glaciers and nearly 7,500 glacial lakes, with field verification feasible mainly from July to September.
An avalanche-dammed impoundment forms and fails within hours and cannot. India has about 15,000 glaciers and nearly 7,500 glacial lakes, with field verification feasible mainly from July to September.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS1 Himalayan geography; GS3 disaster management; GS2 transboundary cooperation. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | hazard versus disaster, runout zone, landslide-dammed outburst flood, upstream data sharing. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | calling every Himalayan flash flood a GLOF. The mechanism determines the warning horizon and the preparedness investment. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | India is the downstream riparian on the Brahmaputra, Sutlej, Gandak and Koshi alike, and has MoUs with China on hydrological data for the first two only, seasonally. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** If residents of a vulnerable valley have nowhere else to go, does an accurate forecast reduce the death toll? |
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