How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
Correct Answer:D) Four
Four Delimitation Commissions have been constituted — in 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002.
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to include which languages? 1. Konkani 2. Manipuri 3. Nepali 4. Maithili
Correct Answer:A) 1, 2 and 3
The 71st Amendment Act, 1992 added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule. Maithili was added later by the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003.
Consider the following pairs: Party — Leader 1. Bhartiya Jana Sangh — Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee 2. Socialist Party — C. Rajagopalachari 3. Congress for Democracy — Jagjivan Ram 4. Swatantra Party — Acharya Narendra Dev How many are correctly matched?
Correct Answer:B) Only two
Bhartiya Jana Sangh was founded by Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee and Congress for Democracy was founded by Jagjivan Ram. C. Rajagopalachari founded the Swatantra Party (not Socialist Party), and Acharya Narendra Dev was associated with the Congress Socialist Party (not Swatantra Party).
Which statements about the Constitution are correct? 1. Powers of Municipalities are in Part IX A. 2. Emergency provisions are in Part XVIII. 3. Amendment provisions are in Part XX.
Correct Answer:D) 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct. Part IX-A deals with Municipalities (Articles 243P–243ZG), Part XVIII deals with Emergency Provisions (Articles 352–360), and Part XX deals with Amendment of the Constitution (Article 368).
Which statement is correct as per the Constitution? (a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject. (b) Inter-State migration is a State subject. (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject. (d) Corporation tax is a State subject.
Correct Answer:C) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject
Inter-State quarantine is Entry 81 of the Union List. Inter-State trade and commerce is under Article 301–307 (Union matter). Corporation tax is a Union subject (Entry 85, Union List).
Under which Article has the Supreme Court placed the Right to Privacy?
Correct Answer:D) Article 21
In the landmark K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) case, the Supreme Court declared Right to Privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty).
What are the duties of CDS as Head of Department of Military Affairs? 1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee. 2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs. 3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters.
Correct Answer:D) 1 and 3 only
The CDS is the Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee and the Principal Military Advisor to the Defence Minister on tri-service matters. However, the CDS does not exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs.
Operations by the Army for upliftment of local population in remote areas addressing basic needs is called:
Correct Answer:C) Operation Sadbhavana
Operation Sadbhavana (Goodwill) is a unique humane initiative undertaken by the Indian Army in Jammu & Kashmir and Northeast India to address basic needs and aspirations of the local population in remote areas.
The longest border between any two countries is between:
Correct Answer:A) Canada and USA
The Canada-USA border is the longest international border in the world at approximately 8,891 km (including the Great Lakes boundary).
Which statements about Lok Sabha Ethics Committee are correct? 1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee. 2. Only a Member of Lok Sabha can make a complaint about unethical conduct. 3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Correct Answer:C) 1 and 3 only
The Ethics Committee was initially an ad-hoc committee before being made a standing committee. It cannot take up matters which are sub-judice. However, complaints can also be made by the public, not only by Lok Sabha members.
Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad?
Correct Answer:D) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly when it first met on December 9, 1946. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was later elected as the permanent President on December 11, 1946.
About Government of India Act, 1935: 1. It provided for an All India Federation based on union of British Indian Provinces and Princely States. 2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were under control of federal legislatures.
Correct Answer:A) 1 only
The Government of India Act, 1935 did provide for an All India Federation based on the union of British Indian Provinces and Princely States. However, Defence and Foreign Affairs were reserved subjects under the control of the Governor-General, not the federal legislature.
Which work is attributed to playwright Bhasa?
Correct Answer:C) Madhyama-vyayoga
Madhyama-vyayoga is attributed to Bhasa, one of the earliest known Indian playwrights. Kavyalankara is by Bhamaha, Natyashastra by Bharata Muni, and Mahabhashya by Patanjali.
Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, authored a commentary on:
Correct Answer:C) Sarvastivada Vinaya
Sanghabhuti authored a commentary on the Sarvastivada Vinaya. He was an Indian Buddhist monk who travelled to China and contributed to the translation and commentary of Buddhist texts.
UNESCO World Heritage properties included in 2023: 1. Shantiniketan 2. Rani-ki-Vav 3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas 4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya How many were included in 2023?
Correct Answer:B) Only two
In 2023, Shantiniketan and Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas were inscribed as UNESCO World Heritage Sites. Rani-ki-Vav was inscribed in 2014 and the Mahabodhi Temple Complex in 2002.
As per Article 368, Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of: 1. Addition 2. Variation 3. Repeal
Correct Answer:D) 1, 2 and 3
Article 368(1) states that Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal.
Countries with low birth rates or ageing population: 1. Italy 2. Japan 3. Nigeria 4. South Korea 5. South Africa
Correct Answer:A) 1, 2 and 4
Italy, Japan and South Korea are well-known for their low birth rates and ageing populations. Nigeria and South Africa have relatively high birth rates and younger populations.
Correct statements about Money Bills: 1. Article 109 mentions special procedure for Money Bills. 2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. 3. Rajya Sabha can approve or suggest changes but cannot reject it. 4. Amendments suggested by Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by Lok Sabha.
Correct Answer:C) 1, 2 and 3
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Article 109 deals with special procedure for Money Bills. Money Bills can only be introduced in Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha can suggest amendments within 14 days but cannot reject it. However, Lok Sabha is not bound to accept Rajya Sabha suggestions (Statement 4 is incorrect).
Equivalent ranks in defence services: Army — Airforce — Navy 1. Brigadier — Air Commodore — Commander 2. Major General — Air Vice Marshal — Vice Admiral 3. Major — Squadron Leader — Lieutenant Commander 4. Lieutenant Colonel — Group Captain — Captain
Correct Answer:D) 3 only
Only Major — Squadron Leader — Lieutenant Commander is correctly matched. Brigadier equates to Commodore (not Commander) in Navy. Major General equates to Rear Admiral (not Vice Admiral). Lieutenant Colonel equates to Wing Commander (not Group Captain).
North Eastern Council after 2002 amendment comprises: 1. Governor of Constituent States 2. Chief Minister of Constituent States 3. Three Members nominated by President 4. Home Minister of India
Correct Answer:A) 1, 2 and 3 only
After the 2002 amendment to the North Eastern Council Act, the NEC comprises the Governor and Chief Minister of constituent states, and three members nominated by the President. The Home Minister is not a statutory member of the NEC.
About Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam: 1. Provisions will come into effect from 18th Lok Sabha. 2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act. 3. There are provisions for reservation of seats for SC Women within SC quota.
Correct Answer:C) 2 and 3 only
The Act will be in force for 15 years and provides for sub-reservation for SC/ST women within the SC/ST quota. However, the provisions will come into effect only after a delimitation exercise based on the first Census conducted after the Act, not necessarily from the 18th Lok Sabha.
About Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023: 1. Joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh. 2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune). 3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal. 4. Indian Air Force was part of this exercise.
Correct Answer:D) 2, 3 and 4
Exercise Mitra Shakti is a joint military exercise between India and Sri Lanka (not Bangladesh). The 2023 edition commenced in Aundh (Pune), included counter-terrorism operations as a goal, and the Indian Air Force participated.
A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by Supreme Court or High Courts to:
Correct Answer:C) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings
A Writ of Prohibition is issued by a higher court (Supreme Court or High Court) to a lower court or tribunal, prohibiting it from continuing proceedings in a case where it has no jurisdiction.
About Scheduled Tribe recognition: 1. It is the State Government who recognizes and declares any community as a Scheduled Tribe. 2. A community declared ST in a State need not be so in another State.
Correct Answer:B) 2 only
Under Article 342, it is the President who specifies Scheduled Tribes, and Parliament can modify the list — not the State Government. However, the ST list is State/UT-specific, so a community declared ST in one State need not be so in another.
About Union Budget: 1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both Houses. 2. No demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President.
Correct Answer:B) 2 only
Statement 2 is correct — under Article 113, no demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President. Statement 1 is incorrect — the Finance Minister presents the Budget on behalf of the President (not the Prime Minister), as per Article 112.
Author of "The India Way" and "Why Bharat Matters":
Correct Answer:D) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
Dr. S. Jaishankar, India's External Affairs Minister, authored both 'The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World' (2020) and 'Why Bharat Matters' (2024).
Country — Reason for news: 1. Argentina — Worst economic crisis 2. Sudan — War between regular and paramilitary forces 3. Turkey — Rescinded its membership of NATO How many correctly matched?
Correct Answer:B) Only two
Argentina faced a severe economic crisis and Sudan experienced a war between the Sudanese Armed Forces and the Rapid Support Forces (RSF) in 2023. However, Turkey has not rescinded its NATO membership — it remains a NATO member.
Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil shipments to Europe. Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.
Correct Answer:A) Both correct, II explains I
Both statements are correct and Statement II explains Statement I. The SUMED (Suez-Mediterranean) pipeline runs from Ain Sukhna on the Red Sea to Sidi Kerir on the Mediterranean, providing an alternative to the Suez Canal for transporting oil from the Persian Gulf to Europe.
About the Red Sea: 1. It receives very little precipitation. 2. No water enters from rivers.
Correct Answer:A) 1 only
The Red Sea receives very little precipitation (less than 100mm per year), making it one of the most saline water bodies. However, it does receive some water from seasonal wadis (dry riverbeds that flow during rains), so Statement 2 is not entirely correct.
According to EPA, largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions:
Correct Answer:D) Power plants using fossil fuels
According to the US Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), the largest source of sulphur dioxide (SO2) emissions is the burning of fossil fuels by power plants, particularly coal-fired power plants.
Statement-I: If USA defaults on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds cannot exercise their claims. Statement-II: USA Government debt is not backed by hard assets, but only by faith of the Government.
Correct Answer:D) I incorrect, II correct
Statement I is incorrect — even in a default scenario, bondholders retain their legal claims and can pursue them. Statement II is correct — US government debt is backed by the 'full faith and credit' of the US government, not by hard assets.
Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads risk of borrower default across multiple lenders. Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount but cannot be a credit line.
Correct Answer:C) I correct, II incorrect
Statement I is correct — syndicated lending involves multiple lenders sharing the loan, thereby spreading the default risk. Statement II is incorrect — syndicated loans can take the form of both fixed-amount term loans and revolving credit lines.
About digital rupee: 1. Sovereign currency issued by RBI in alignment with monetary policy. 2. Appears as liability on RBI balance sheet. 3. Insured against inflation by its design. 4. Freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.
Correct Answer:D) 1, 2 and 4
The digital rupee (e-Rupee/CBDC) is a sovereign digital currency issued by RBI, appears as a liability on the RBI balance sheet (like physical currency), and is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash. However, it is not insured against inflation by design — it is subject to the same inflationary pressures as physical currency.
Epithets of Gautama Buddha: 1. Nayaputta 2. Shakyamuni 3. Tathagata
Correct Answer:B) 2 and 3 only
Shakyamuni (Sage of the Shakya clan) and Tathagata (One who has thus come/gone) are well-known epithets of Gautama Buddha. Nayaputta (Nataputta) is an epithet of Mahavira, the founder of Jainism.
Archaeological sites: 1. Chandraketugarh — Odisha — Trading Port town 2. Inamgaon — Maharashtra — Chalcolithic site 3. Mangadu — Kerala — Megalithic site 4. Salihundam — Andhra Pradesh — Rock-cut cave shrines How many correctly matched?
Correct Answer:B) 2 and 3
Inamgaon is a Chalcolithic site in Maharashtra and Mangadu is a Megalithic site in Kerala — both correctly matched. Chandraketugarh is in West Bengal (not Odisha), and Salihundam in Andhra Pradesh is a Buddhist stupa site (not rock-cut cave shrines).
Who gave permission to Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?
Correct Answer:A) Krishnadevaraya
Krishnadevaraya, the famous ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire, gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal as part of diplomatic and trade relations.
About Cornwallis revenue collection: 1. Under Ryotwari Settlement, peasants were exempted from revenue payment in bad harvests. 2. Under Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if Zamindar failed to pay on time, he would be removed.
Correct Answer:B) 2 only
Under the Permanent Settlement (1793) introduced by Cornwallis in Bengal, if a Zamindar failed to pay the fixed revenue on time, his zamindari would be auctioned off. The Ryotwari system did not exempt peasants from revenue in bad harvests — it was the direct collection from individual cultivators.
About Upanishads: 1. There are no parables in Upanishads. 2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.
Correct Answer:B) 2 only
Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas — Upanishads date to approximately 800-200 BCE while the Puranas were composed later. However, Statement 1 is incorrect as the Upanishads do contain parables (e.g., the parable of the chariot in the Katha Upanishad).
About International Grains Council: 1. India is a member. 2. A country needs to be a member for exporting or importing rice and wheat.
Correct Answer:A) 1 only
India is a member of the International Grains Council (IGC). However, membership is not required for exporting or importing rice and wheat — non-member countries can freely trade in grains.
Latest inclusion in UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage List:
Correct Answer:C) Garba dance
Garba dance of Gujarat was inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2023. Chhau dance was inscribed in 2010, Kumbh Mela in 2017, and Durga Puja in 2021.
Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security in the Sahel region. Statement-II: There have been military coups in several Sahel countries recently.
Correct Answer:A) Both correct, II explains I
Both statements are correct and Statement II explains Statement I. The Sahel region has experienced multiple military coups (Mali 2020/2021, Burkina Faso 2022, Niger 2023, Gabon 2023), which have contributed to instability and worsening security conditions.
Statement-I: India does not import apples from the USA. Statement-II: Indian law prohibits import of GM food without competent authority approval.
Correct Answer:D) I incorrect, II correct
Statement I is incorrect — India does import apples from the USA, though tariffs have varied. Statement II is correct — under the Food Safety and Standards Act and Environment Protection Act, import of GM food requires approval from competent authorities (FSSAI/GEAC).
About Lok Sabha Speaker removal: While resolution for removal is under consideration: 1. He/She shall not preside. 2. He/She shall not have right to speak. 3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in first instance.
Correct Answer:A) 1 only
Under Article 96, while a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside but retains the right to speak and participate in proceedings. The Speaker also retains the right to vote in the first instance on such resolution.
About Indian Parliament: 1. A bill pending in Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. 2. A bill passed by Lok Sabha and pending in Rajya Sabha lapses on dissolution of Lok Sabha. 3. A bill regarding which President notified intention to summon joint sitting lapses on dissolution.
Correct Answer:B) 1 and 2
A bill pending in Lok Sabha lapses on dissolution (Statement 1 correct). A bill passed by Lok Sabha and pending in Rajya Sabha also lapses on dissolution of Lok Sabha (Statement 2 correct). However, a bill regarding which the President has notified intention to summon a joint sitting does not lapse (Statement 3 incorrect) — it can be taken up in the joint sitting.
About Parliament prorogation: 1. Prorogation does not require advice of Council of Ministers. 2. Prorogation is generally done after adjournment sine die but there is no bar to proroguing a House in session. 3. Dissolution of Lok Sabha is done by President on advice of Council of Ministers save in exceptional circumstances.
Correct Answer:C) 2 and 3
Statement 2 is correct — prorogation is generally done after adjournment sine die but a House can be prorogued while in session. Statement 3 is correct — dissolution of Lok Sabha is done by the President on advice of Council of Ministers except in exceptional circumstances. Statement 1 is incorrect — prorogation is done by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Statement-I: European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act. Statement-II: The EU intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and aims to develop all its own clean technology by that time.
Correct Answer:C) I correct, II incorrect
Statement I is correct — the European Parliament did approve the Net-Zero Industry Act. Statement II is incorrect — the EU aims to achieve carbon neutrality by 2050 (not 2040), and the Act does not aim to develop all clean technology domestically.
Statement-I: Venezuela has achieved rapid recovery from economic crisis and prevented emigration. Statement-II: Venezuela has the world largest oil reserves.
Correct Answer:D) I incorrect, II correct
Statement I is incorrect — Venezuela has not achieved rapid economic recovery and has seen massive emigration (over 7 million Venezuelans have fled). Statement II is correct — Venezuela has the world's largest proven oil reserves (approximately 303 billion barrels).
About Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme: 1. Central Government provides 100% funding. 2. Cadastral Maps are digitized. 3. Initiative to transliterate Records of Rights from local language to any Constitutional language.
Correct Answer:D) 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct. DILRMP is a 100% centrally funded programme that digitizes cadastral maps and includes transliteration of Records of Rights from local languages to any language in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
About Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan: 1. Guarantees minimum antenatal care in second and third trimesters and six months post-delivery in government facilities. 2. Private sector providers of certain specialities can volunteer at nearby government facilities.
Correct Answer:C) Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. PMSMA provides assured, comprehensive and quality antenatal care to pregnant women on the 9th of every month, with private sector specialists volunteering their services at government health facilities.
About PM-SYM Yojana: 1. Entry age group is 21 to 40 years. 2. Age specific contribution by beneficiary. 3. Minimum pension of Rs. 3000 per month after attaining age 60. 4. Family pension applicable to spouse and unmarried daughters.
Correct Answer:B) 2 and 3 only
PM-SYM (Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan) provides a minimum pension of Rs. 3000 per month after age 60 (Statement 3), with age-specific monthly contributions (Statement 2). The entry age is 18-40 years (not 21-40), and family pension is 50% to spouse only (not to unmarried daughters).
Statement-I: Atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than terrestrial radiation. Statement-II: CO2 and greenhouse gases are good absorbers of long wave radiation.
Correct Answer:D) I incorrect, II correct
Statement I is incorrect — the atmosphere is heated more by terrestrial (longwave) radiation than by incoming solar radiation. The atmosphere is largely transparent to incoming shortwave solar radiation but absorbs outgoing longwave terrestrial radiation. Statement II is correct — CO2 and other greenhouse gases are good absorbers of longwave radiation.
Statement-I: Thickness of troposphere at equator is much greater than at poles. Statement-II: At equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.
Correct Answer:A) Both correct, II explains I
Both statements are correct and Statement II explains Statement I. The troposphere is about 16-18 km thick at the equator compared to 8-10 km at the poles. This is because strong convectional currents at the equator transport heat to greater heights, pushing the tropopause higher.
Products of volcanic eruptions: 1. Pyroclastic debris 2. Ash and dust 3. Nitrogen compounds 4. Sulphur compounds How many are products of volcanic eruptions?
Correct Answer:D) All four
All four are products of volcanic eruptions. Volcanoes emit pyroclastic debris (rocks, lava fragments), ash and dust, nitrogen compounds (like nitrogen oxides), and sulphur compounds (like sulphur dioxide and hydrogen sulphide).
Inferences from January isothermal maps: 1. Isotherms deviate to north over ocean and south over continent. 2. Cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make North Atlantic colder and isotherms bend north.
Correct Answer:A) 1 only
In January (Northern Hemisphere winter), isotherms deviate to the north over oceans (which are warmer) and to the south over continents (which are colder). Statement 2 is incorrect — the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift are warm currents that make the North Atlantic warmer (not colder), causing isotherms to bend northward.
Two largest cocoa producers in the world:
Correct Answer:C) Cote d Ivoire and Ghana
Cote d'Ivoire (Ivory Coast) and Ghana are the two largest cocoa producers in the world, together accounting for over 60% of global cocoa production.
Himalayan rivers joining Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, correct sequence:
Downstream of Prayagraj, the Himalayan rivers join the Ganga from west to east in this order: Gomati (at Ghazipur), Ghaghara (at Chapra/Revelganj), Gandak (at Hajipur/Patna), and Kosi (at Kursela).
Statement-I: Rainfall is a reason for weathering of rocks. Statement-II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution. Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.
Correct Answer:A) Both II and III correct and both explain I
Both Statements II and III are correct and both explain why rainfall causes weathering. CO2 dissolved in rainwater forms carbonic acid which causes chemical weathering. Atmospheric oxygen dissolved in rainwater causes oxidation, another form of chemical weathering.
Countries with North Sea border: 1. Finland 2. Germany 3. Norway 4. Russia How many have a border with the North Sea?
Correct Answer:B) Only two
Germany and Norway border the North Sea. Finland borders the Baltic Sea and Arctic Ocean, and Russia borders the Baltic Sea, Black Sea, Arctic Ocean and Pacific Ocean but not the North Sea.
Waterfalls: 1. Dhuandhar — Malwa — Narmada 2. Hundru — Chota Nagpur — Subarnarekha 3. Gersoppa — Western Ghats — Netravati How many correctly matched?
Correct Answer:B) Only two
Dhuandhar Falls is on the Narmada river in the Malwa region (correct). Hundru Falls is on the Subarnarekha river in Chota Nagpur Plateau (correct). However, Gersoppa (Jog) Falls is on the Sharavathi river (not Netravati) in the Western Ghats.
Mountain ranges: 1. Central Asia — Vosges — Fold mountain 2. Europe — Alps — Block mountain 3. North America — Appalachians — Fold mountain 4. South America — Andes — Fold mountain How many correctly matched?
Correct Answer:B) Only two
Appalachians (fold mountain in North America) and Andes (fold mountain in South America) are correctly matched. Vosges is in Europe (not Central Asia) and is a block mountain (not fold mountain). Alps are fold mountains (not block mountains).
Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater are:
Correct Answer:C) Insects
Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater are all insects. Cicadas belong to order Hemiptera, Froghoppers are also Hemipterans (family Cercopidae), and Pond skaters (water striders) belong to family Gerridae.
Statement-I: Many chewing gums are a source of environmental pollution. Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.
Correct Answer:A) Both correct, II explains I
Both statements are correct and Statement II explains Statement I. Many conventional chewing gums use polyethylene and polyvinyl acetate (plastics) as their gum base, which makes them non-biodegradable and a source of environmental pollution.
Country — Animal in Natural Habitat: 1. Brazil — Indri 2. Indonesia — Elk 3. Madagascar — Bonobo How many correctly matched?
Correct Answer:D) None
None are correctly matched. Indri is native to Madagascar (not Brazil). Elk are found in North America and East Asia (not Indonesia). Bonobos are native to the Democratic Republic of Congo (not Madagascar).
About World Toilet Organization: 1. It is a UN agency. 2. World Toilet Summit, Day and College are its initiatives. 3. Main focus is granting funds to least developed countries to end open defecation.
Correct Answer:A) 2 only
Only Statement 2 is correct — World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are initiatives of the World Toilet Organization. The WTO is not a UN agency — it is a non-profit organization founded by Jack Sim in 2001. Its main focus is advocacy and awareness, not granting funds.
About big cats: 1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season. 2. Unlike most big cats, cheetahs do not roar. 3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim territory by scent marking.
Correct Answer:A) 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Lions can breed year-round with no particular breeding season. Cheetahs cannot roar — they chirp, purr and yelp instead. Statement 3 is incorrect — male leopards do proclaim territory by scent marking (urine spraying, claw marks).
What is "100 Million Farmers"?
Correct Answer:A) Platform for net-zero food and water systems increasing farmer resilience
100 Million Farmers is a platform initiative by the World Economic Forum aimed at building net-zero food and water systems while increasing farmer resilience to climate change.
Distributed Energy Resources: 1. Battery storage 2. Biomass generators 3. Fuel cells 4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units How many are DERs?
Correct Answer:D) All four
All four are Distributed Energy Resources (DERs). DERs are small-scale energy resources connected to the distribution grid, including battery storage, biomass generators, fuel cells, and rooftop solar PV units.
Tree with unique insect pollinator that co-evolved with it:
Correct Answer:A) Fig
Fig trees have a unique mutualistic relationship with fig wasps (family Agaonidae). Each fig species has its own specific fig wasp species that has co-evolved with it for pollination — one of nature's most specialized plant-pollinator relationships.
Poisonous species: 1. Butterflies 2. Fish 3. Frogs How many have poisonous species?
Correct Answer:C) All three
All three groups have poisonous species. Monarch butterflies are toxic due to milkweed consumption. Pufferfish contain tetrodotoxin. Poison dart frogs (Dendrobatidae) are among the most poisonous animals on Earth.
Native to India: 1. Cashew 2. Papaya 3. Red sanders How many are actually native to India?
Correct Answer:A) Only one
Only Red sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) is native to India — specifically endemic to the southern Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh. Cashew is native to Brazil and was introduced to India by the Portuguese. Papaya is native to Central America and southern Mexico.
Greenfield airport projects: 1. Donyi Polo Airport 2. Kushinagar International Airport 3. Vijayawada International Airport
Correct Answer:A) 1 and 2 only
Donyi Polo Airport (Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh) and Kushinagar International Airport (Uttar Pradesh) are greenfield airports. Vijayawada International Airport (Gannavaram) is a brownfield airport that was expanded and upgraded.
About water vapour: 1. It is a gas whose amount decreases with altitude. 2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles.
Correct Answer:A) 1 only
Statement 1 is correct — water vapour concentration decreases with altitude as temperature decreases. Statement 2 is incorrect — water vapour percentage is maximum in warm tropical regions near the equator (where evaporation is highest) and minimum at the poles.
Climate type: Low annual and daily temperature range, precipitation throughout year, 50-250 cm precipitation:
Correct Answer:D) Marine West coast climate
Marine West Coast climate (Cfb/Cfc in Koppen classification) is characterized by low annual and daily temperature ranges due to oceanic influence, precipitation distributed throughout the year, and moderate precipitation (50-250 cm). Found in Western Europe, Pacific Northwest, New Zealand, etc.
About Coriolis force: 1. It increases with increase in wind velocity. 2. It is maximum at poles and absent at equator.
Correct Answer:C) Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The Coriolis force is proportional to the speed of the moving object — it increases with wind velocity. It is also proportional to the sine of latitude — maximum at the poles (sin 90 = 1) and zero at the equator (sin 0 = 0).
On June 21, which latitudes experience more than 12 hours sunlight? 1. Equator 2. Tropic of Cancer 3. Tropic of Capricorn 4. Arctic Circle
Correct Answer:D) 2 and 4
On June 21 (Summer Solstice), the Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun. The Tropic of Cancer experiences more than 12 hours of daylight, and the Arctic Circle experiences 24 hours of daylight. The Equator has exactly 12 hours, and the Tropic of Capricorn has less than 12 hours.
Region with world largest tropical peatland holding about three years of global carbon emissions:
Correct Answer:B) Congo Basin
The Congo Basin contains the world's largest tropical peatland, discovered in the Cuvette Centrale region. It stores approximately 30 billion tonnes of carbon — equivalent to about three years of global fossil fuel emissions.
About PFAS: 1. Found widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging. 2. Not easily degraded in the environment. 3. Persistent exposure leads to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.
Correct Answer:D) 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct. PFAS (Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances), known as 'forever chemicals', are found in drinking water, food, and food packaging. They are extremely persistent in the environment and do not break down easily. They bioaccumulate in living organisms through persistent exposure.
Parasitoid species found among: 1. Carabid beetles 2. Centipedes 3. Flies 4. Termites 5. Wasps How many have parasitoid species?
Correct Answer:B) Only three
Parasitoid species are found among carabid beetles (some species are parasitoids of other insects), flies (family Tachinidae are well-known parasitoids), and wasps (parasitoid wasps are the most diverse group of parasitoids). Centipedes and termites are not known to have parasitoid species.
Pea family plants: 1. Groundnut 2. Horse-gram 3. Soybean How many belong to the pea family?
Correct Answer:C) All three
All three — groundnut (Arachis hypogaea), horse-gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum), and soybean (Glycine max) — belong to the pea family Fabaceae (Leguminosae).
Statement-I: Indian Flying Fox is placed under vermin category in Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Statement-II: Indian Flying Fox feeds on blood of other animals.
Correct Answer:C) I correct, II incorrect
Statement I is correct — the Indian Flying Fox (Pteropus medius) has been listed under the vermin category. Statement II is incorrect — the Indian Flying Fox is a fruit bat (megabat) that feeds on fruits, nectar and flowers, not blood. Vampire bats (found only in the Americas) feed on blood.
Total fertility rate is defined as:
Correct Answer:D) Average number of live births a woman would have by end of child-bearing age
Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is defined as the average number of children (live births) that a woman would have by the end of her childbearing years (ages 15-49) if she experienced the current age-specific fertility rates throughout her life.
Financial institutions: 1. In India, NBFCs can access LAF window of RBI. 2. FIIs can hold G-Secs. 3. Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.
Correct Answer:C) 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct. Select NBFCs (like NABARD, SIDBI, EXIM Bank, NHB) can access the LAF window. FIIs (now FPIs) can hold government securities. Stock exchanges like BSE and NSE offer separate debt trading platforms.
Who can trade in Corporate Bonds in India? 1. Insurance Companies 2. Pension Funds 3. Retail Investors
Correct Answer:D) 1, 2 and 3
All three can trade in corporate bonds in India. Insurance companies, pension funds and retail investors are all permitted to invest in and trade corporate bonds, though the market has traditionally been dominated by institutional investors.
Consider the following financial instruments: 1. Treasury Bills 2. Bankers Acceptance 3. Commercial Papers Which of the above are Money Market instruments?
Correct Answer:D) 1, 2 and 3
All three are Money Market instruments. Treasury Bills are short-term government securities, Bankers Acceptance is a time draft guaranteed by a bank, and Commercial Papers are unsecured short-term promissory notes issued by companies. All are short-term (up to one year) and traded in the money market.
Consider the following pairs: Sector — Example 1. Primary — Iron and steel industry 2. Secondary — Transport services 3. Tertiary — Banking services How many are correctly matched?
Correct Answer:A) Only one
Only one pair is correctly matched — Tertiary sector includes Banking services. Iron and steel industry belongs to the Secondary sector (not Primary — which includes agriculture, mining, fishing). Transport services belong to the Tertiary sector (not Secondary — which includes manufacturing and construction).
Sustainable Aviation Fuel feedstocks: 1. Used cooking oil 2. Petroleum refinery waste 3. Agricultural residues 4. Municipal solid waste Which can be used as feedstock for SAF?
Correct Answer:D) 1, 3 and 4 only
Used cooking oil, agricultural residues and municipal solid waste are approved feedstocks for Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF). Petroleum refinery waste is a fossil fuel byproduct and using it would not make the fuel 'sustainable' — SAF must come from non-petroleum renewable sources.
Consider the following: 1. Tools and machines 2. Buildings 3. Raw materials ready for use 4. Money and other financial assets Which are physical capital?
Correct Answer:B) Only two
Physical capital includes tangible assets used in production — tools and machines, and raw materials ready for use. Buildings are part of physical capital in some classifications but 'money and other financial assets' are financial capital, not physical capital. The question tests the distinction between physical and financial capital.
What is the term commonly used to describe 3D virtual worlds where users can interact using avatars?
Correct Answer:C) Metaverse
The Metaverse refers to 3D virtual worlds where users can interact with each other and digital environments using avatars. The concept gained prominence after Facebook rebranded to Meta in 2021.
About RBI rules for foreign banks: 1. Foreign banks must convert their Indian branches to wholly-owned subsidiaries. 2. Foreign banks cannot open more than 20 branches per year.
Correct Answer:D) Neither 1 nor 2
Neither statement is correct. RBI encourages but does not mandate foreign banks to convert to wholly-owned subsidiaries — it remains voluntary. There is no specific cap of 20 branches per year — RBI considers branch expansion requests on a case-by-case basis.
About CSR rules in India: 1. CSR is applicable to companies with net worth Rs. 500 crore or more. 2. CSR spending should be at least 5% of average net profits of last three financial years.
Correct Answer:D) Neither 1 nor 2
Neither statement is fully correct. Under Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, CSR is applicable to companies with net worth of Rs. 500 crore OR turnover of Rs. 1000 crore OR net profit of Rs. 5 crore or more (not just net worth alone). The CSR spending requirement is at least 2% of average net profits (not 5%).
About radioisotope thermoelectric generators: 1. They convert nuclear energy directly to electrical energy through nuclear fission. 2. They use the heat released by the decay of radioactive isotopes. 3. Plutonium-238 is commonly used in these generators.
Correct Answer:B) 2 and 3 only
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. RTGs use the heat from natural radioactive decay (not nuclear fission) of isotopes, and Plutonium-238 is the most commonly used fuel. Statement 1 is incorrect — RTGs use thermoelectric effect (Seebeck effect) to convert heat from radioactive decay into electricity, not nuclear fission.
Statement-I: Giant stars are hotter and brighter than dwarf stars. Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have much higher masses.
Correct Answer:A) Both correct, II explains I
Both statements are correct and Statement II explains Statement I. Giant stars have much higher masses than dwarf stars, which leads to higher core temperatures and greater luminosity, making them hotter and brighter.
Which synthesized molecule dilates blood vessels and is used in treatment of heart disease?
Correct Answer:A) Nitric oxide
Nitric oxide (NO) is a molecule that dilates blood vessels (vasodilation) and is used in the treatment of heart disease. The discovery of nitric oxide's role as a signalling molecule in the cardiovascular system won the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1998.
Applications of radar: 1. Measuring speed of approaching vehicle 2. Tracking weather patterns 3. Detecting composition of minerals in soil 4. Guiding aircraft to land in poor visibility How many are radar applications?
Correct Answer:C) Only three
Three are radar applications: measuring speed of vehicles (speed guns use Doppler radar), tracking weather patterns (weather radar/Doppler radar), and guiding aircraft to land in poor visibility (ILS uses radar). Detecting composition of minerals in soil is not a standard radar application — it typically requires spectroscopy or geochemical analysis.
About genome sequencing: 1. It helps in understanding genetic makeup of organisms. 2. It can be used to detect genetic disorders. 3. It can be useful in developing personalized medicine.
Correct Answer:D) 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct. Genome sequencing determines the complete DNA sequence of an organism, helping understand its genetic makeup. It can detect genetic disorders by identifying mutations and variations. It is also fundamental to personalized/precision medicine, enabling treatments tailored to individual genetic profiles.
About dark matter: 1. It does not emit or absorb light. 2. It interacts with ordinary matter through gravity. 3. It constitutes less than 5 percent of the universe.
Correct Answer:B) 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Dark matter does not emit or absorb electromagnetic radiation (light) and interacts with ordinary matter primarily through gravity. Statement 3 is incorrect — dark matter constitutes approximately 27% of the universe (ordinary matter is about 5%, and dark energy is about 68%).
Which of the following is/are correctly matched? 1. Kyoto Protocol — Carbon dioxide emission reduction 2. Montreal Protocol — Ozone depleting substances 3. Nagoya Protocol — Access and benefit sharing of genetic resources
Correct Answer:D) 1, 2 and 3
All three are correctly matched. The Kyoto Protocol (1997) deals with greenhouse gas emission reduction including CO2. The Montreal Protocol (1987) addresses ozone-depleting substances. The Nagoya Protocol (2010) governs access to genetic resources and fair sharing of benefits arising from their utilization.
About microplastics: 1. They are plastic particles less than 5mm in size. 2. They have been found in human blood and organs. 3. They can enter the food chain through marine organisms.
Correct Answer:D) 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct. Microplastics are defined as plastic particles less than 5mm. Studies have detected microplastics in human blood, lungs, and other organs. They enter the food chain when marine organisms ingest them, and these are consumed by larger predators including humans.
About Chandrayaan-3: 1. It made India the first country to land on the south pole of the Moon. 2. The mission included an orbiter, lander and rover. 3. The rover was named Pragyan.
Correct Answer:B) 1 and 3 only
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Chandrayaan-3 made India the first country to successfully land near the lunar south pole on August 23, 2023, and the rover was named Pragyan. Statement 2 is incorrect — Chandrayaan-3 consisted of a lander (Vikram), rover (Pragyan), and a propulsion module (not an orbiter). Chandrayaan-2 had the orbiter.
About AI (Artificial Intelligence): 1. Machine learning is a subset of AI. 2. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning. 3. AI systems can only work with structured data.
Correct Answer:A) 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Machine learning is indeed a subset of AI, and deep learning is a subset of machine learning. Statement 3 is incorrect — modern AI systems, particularly deep learning models, can work with both structured data (databases, spreadsheets) and unstructured data (images, text, audio, video).
Paper Analysis
The UPSC CSE Prelims 2024 GS Paper I was conducted on June 16, 2024. The paper covered a wide range of topics across Indian Polity, History, Geography, Economy, Environment, Science & Technology, International Relations, and Current Affairs.
Subject Distribution
Polity & Governance: ~20 questions
Geography: ~15 questions
Environment & Ecology: ~14 questions
Economy: ~12 questions
History & Culture: ~10 questions
Science & Technology: ~10 questions
International Relations: ~6 questions
Security & Defence: ~4 questions
Social Issues: ~4 questions
Current Affairs: ~5 questions
Difficulty Level
The paper was considered moderately difficult with several questions testing conceptual understanding rather than rote memorization. Statement-based questions and assertion-reason type questions featured prominently.
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