Previous Year Questions
UPSC Prelims 2023 — GS Paper I
Consider the following statements:
1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake in Jammu and Kashmir. Kanwar Lake (Kabar Tal) in Bihar is an oxbow lake formed by meandering of the Gandak River. Kolleru Lake is fed by seasonal streams Budameru and Tammileru, not directly by the Krishna River.
Consider the following pairs: Port — Description
1. Kamarajar Port — First major port in India registered as a company
2. Mundra Port — Largest privately owned port in India
3. Visakhapatnam Port — Largest container port in India
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Kamarajar Port (Ennore) is the first major port in India registered as a company (correct). Mundra Port is the largest privately owned port in India (correct). However, Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Navi Mumbai) is the largest container port in India, not Visakhapatnam.
Consider the following trees:
1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
2. Mahua (Madhuca indica)
3. Teak (Tectona grandis)
How many of the above are deciduous trees?
Mahua and Teak are deciduous trees found in tropical moist and dry deciduous forests. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is an evergreen tree characteristic of tropical rainforests.
Consider the following statements:
1. India has more arable area than China.
2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India than in China.
3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only statement 1 is correct. India has approximately 156 million hectares of arable land compared to China which has about 119 million hectares. China has a higher proportion of irrigated area (about 54%) compared to India (about 37%). China also has significantly higher average productivity per hectare than India across most crops.
Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?
The Rann of Kutch is the best example of extensive marshland formed by repeated falls in sea level. It was once a part of the Arabian Sea but successive geological changes and sea level fluctuations created these vast marshy salt flats.
Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?
Ilmenite (FeO.TiO2) and rutile (TiO2) are the two chief minerals of titanium. They are abundantly found in the coastal sands of Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Odisha.
About three-fourths of world cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by
The Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) produces over 70% of the global cobalt supply. The DRC dominates cobalt mining due to its rich copper-cobalt belt in the Katanga province.
Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?
The Congo Basin spans across six countries: Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon. Nigeria, South Sudan and Uganda are not part of the Congo Basin.
Consider the following statements:
1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range.
3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
None of the statements are correct. Amarkantak is at the confluence of Vindhya, Satpura and Maikal ranges (not Sahyadri). Biligirirangan Hills are in south-eastern Karnataka at the junction of Eastern and Western Ghats (not part of Satpura). Seshachalam Hills are part of the Eastern Ghats in Andhra Pradesh (not Western Ghats).
Consider the following statements:
1. The East-West Corridor under the Golden Quadrilateral Superhighway Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
2. The Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
3. The Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi to Kunming.
How many of the above statements are correct?
None of the statements are correct. The East-West Corridor connects Silchar (Assam) to Porbandar (Gujarat), not Dibrugarh to Surat. The India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur to Mae Sot in Thailand, not Chiang Mai. The BCIM Economic Corridor connects Kolkata to Kunming, not Varanasi to Kunming.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.
Statement-II: Uranium enriched to at least 60% is required for the production of electricity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I is correct as coal provides about 47% of India electricity generation capacity while nuclear contributes only about 2%. Statement II is incorrect because nuclear power reactors typically use uranium enriched to only 3-5% U-235, not 60%.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I is correct as marsupials are native to Australasia and the Americas, not found naturally in India. Statement II is incorrect because marsupials thrive in diverse ecosystems including tropical forests in South America and dry scrublands in Australia, not exclusively in montane grasslands.
Invasive Species Specialist Group (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?
The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is part of the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). It maintains the Global Invasive Species Database (GISD).
Consider the following fauna:
1. Lion-tailed Macaque
2. Malabar Civet
3. Sambar Deer
How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
Only the Malabar Civet is nocturnal. Lion-tailed Macaques are diurnal primates active during daytime. Sambar Deer are primarily crepuscular (active during dawn and dusk) though they may show some nocturnal activity.
Which one of the following organisms performs waggle dance for others of its colony to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of its food?
Honey Bees perform the waggle dance to communicate the direction and distance of food sources to other members of their colony. This was first decoded by Austrian ethologist Karl von Frisch.
Consider the following statements about the mushrooms:
1. Mushrooms have somemedicinal properties.
2. Mushrooms have psycho-active properties.
3. Mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
4. Mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All four statements are correct. Many mushrooms like Reishi and Turkey Tail have medicinal properties. Psilocybin mushrooms have psychoactive properties. Certain fungi like Beauveria bassiana have insecticidal properties. Several species like Mycena chlorophos exhibit bioluminescence.
Consider the following statements about Indian squirrels:
1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
2. They store their food material in the ground.
3. They are omnivores.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Indian squirrels store food in shallow pits in the ground and are omnivores eating nuts, seeds, fruits, insects and eggs. However, statement 1 is incorrect as Indian squirrels build nests (dreys) in treetops using grass and branches, not burrows in the ground.
Consider the following statements:
1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below
3.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three statements are correct. Thermophilic and hyperthermophilic archaea can survive above 100 degrees Celsius (some above 121 degrees Celsius). Psychrophilic organisms can grow below 0 degrees Celsius. Acidophilic organisms like Acidithiobacillus thrive at pH below 3.
Which one of the following animals uses a tool for scraping insects from tree holes?
Orangutans are well known for their ability to use tools. They use sticks to extract insects from tree holes and to obtain honey and seeds. They are considered among the most intelligent primates after humans.
Consider the following:
1. Aerosols
2. Foam agents
3. Fire retardants
4. Lubricants
In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are used in aerosols as propellants, in foam agents as blowing agents, and in fire retardants/extinguishers. However, HFCs are not used as lubricants. Lubricants are primarily based on petroleum hydrocarbon distillates.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Interest income from Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act,
2002.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I is incorrect as the tax treatment of InvIT distributions varies and is not as simply stated. Statement II is correct as InvITs were classified as borrowers under Section 2(f) of the SARFAESI Act, 2002.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In the post- pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
Statement-II: Central Banks assume that they can counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy measures.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Both statements are correct. Post-pandemic, many central banks raised interest rates aggressively to combat inflation (e.g., RBI raised rates by 250 basis points between May 2022 and February 2023). Statement II explains why they did so — central banks use tight monetary policy to counteract rising consumer prices.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.
Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I is correct as carbon markets are increasingly seen as key tools against climate change, covering about 21% of global emissions by 2021. Statement II is incorrect as carbon markets do not simply transfer resources from private sector to the State; they are market-based mechanisms where entities trade emission permits among themselves.
Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of sterilization?
Sterilization refers to the process by which the RBI neutralizes the effect of foreign exchange interventions on domestic money supply. Open Market Operations (OMOs), involving buying or selling of government securities, is the primary instrument used for sterilization.
Consider the following markets:
1. Government Bond Market
2. Call Money Market
3. Treasury Bill Market
4. Stock Market
How many of the above are included in capital markets?
Only Government Bond Market and Stock Market are part of capital markets, which deal in medium to long-term funds. Call Money Market and Treasury Bill Market are money market instruments dealing in short-term funds (up to one year).
The concept of Small Farmer Large Field best describes which of the following?
The Small Farmer Large Field concept involves marginal and small farmers organizing into groups to synchronize all agricultural operations such as land preparation, sowing, irrigation, and harvesting. This gives them higher bargaining power and economies of scale.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Government provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
3. Some tribal people use niger seed oil for cooking.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three statements are correct. Niger seeds (ramtil) are among the 22 mandated crops for which the government provides MSP. It is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Niger seed oil is traditionally used for cooking by tribal communities in states like Jharkhand, Odisha and Madhya Pradesh.
Consider the following:
1. Brand recognition
2. Inventory
3. Intellectual property
4. Mailing list of clients
How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
Brand recognition, intellectual property and mailing list of clients are intangible investments (assets that lack physical substance). Inventory consists of tangible physical goods and is not an intangible investment.
Consider the following statements: The Fifteenth Finance Commission used the following criteria ( in addition to population, area and income distance) for the horizontal tax devolution:
1. Demographic performance
2. Forest and ecology
3. Governance reforms
4. Stable government
5. Tax and fiscal efforts
How many of the above were actually used?
The Fifteenth Finance Commission used six criteria for horizontal devolution: Population (15%), Area (15%), Forest and ecology (10%), Income distance (45%), Tax and fiscal efforts (2.5%) and Demographic performance (12.5%). Governance reforms and Stable government were not among the criteria used.
Consider the following statements: The UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focuses on:
1. Affordable housing
2. Mass rapid transport
3. Health care
4. Renewable energy
How many of the above sectors are the focus of the initiative?
The UNOPS S3i initiative focuses on three sectors: affordable housing, renewable energy, and health infrastructure. Mass rapid transport is not among the focus areas of S3i.
With reference to Due Process of Law, consider the following statement: In essence, what does Due Process of Law mean?
Due Process of Law, in essence, means the principle of natural justice. As held by the Supreme Court in Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) and Kartar Singh v. State of Punjab, the procedure established by law must be right, just and fair, and must conform to the principles of natural justice.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Both statements are correct and Statement II explains Statement I. Prisons are a State subject under the State List (List II) of the Seventh Schedule. The Prisons Act, 1894 placed prisons under Provincial Government control, which is why States manage their own prisons today.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the chief purpose of the Constitution of a country?
The chief purpose of a Constitution is to define and limit the powers of government. Constitutionalism fundamentally means limited government and the rule of law, preventing arbitrary exercise of power. While other options describe functions of a Constitution, defining and limiting governmental powers is its primary purpose.
In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
The 1st Constitutional Amendment (1951) was enacted to overcome judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights, particularly addressing issues arising from Articles 19 and 31. It introduced Article 31A and 31B and the Ninth Schedule to protect land reform laws from judicial review. Note: UPSC dropped this question during evaluation.
Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
Only the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is a constitutional body, established under Article 338B of the Constitution. NHRC is a statutory body under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. The Law Commission is a non-statutory body reconstituted by executive order. NCDRC is a statutory body under the Consumer Protection Act.
Consider the following statements:
1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
None of the statements are correct. Under Article 71(2), acts done by the President remain valid even if the election is declared void. There is no provision for postponing Presidential election due to dissolved assemblies. The Constitution does not prescribe any time limit for Presidential assent under Article 111.
Consider the following statements:
1. When the Lok Sabha passes a Finance Bill and transmits it to the Rajya Sabha, the Rajya Sabha can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha passes a Money Bill and transmits it to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no provision for joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 need careful analysis. Statement 2 is correct — Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on Money Bills within 14 days. Statement 1 is partially misleading as Finance Bills certified as Money Bills follow Money Bill procedure. There is no joint sitting for Money Bills. The answer considers two statements to be correct.
Once an area is declared as a Community Reserve, consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of the reserve.
2. Hunting is not allowed in the reserve.
3. People of the area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce.
4. People of the area are allowed traditional agricultural practices.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Hunting is prohibited in Community Reserves under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Collection of non-timber forest produce is allowed for community use. However, the governing authority is the Community Reserve Management Committee (not the Chief Wildlife Warden), and traditional agricultural practices are restricted.
With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Under the Fifth Schedule, the President notifies Scheduled Areas through an Order. The Scheduled Area can be a district, a block or a cluster of villages. Statement 3 is incorrect because under the Fifth Schedule, the Governor (not Chief Minister) submits annual reports to the President (not Union Home Ministry) on the administration of Scheduled Areas.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term efficiency of administration.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I is correct — the Supreme Court has held that reservation policies under Article 16(4) are subject to Article 335 which requires maintaining efficiency of administration. Statement II is incorrect — Article 335 does not define the term efficiency of administration; it merely states that claims of SC/ST shall be considered consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration.
In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which is mentioned as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?
Dhanyakataka (ancient Amaravati) was located in the Andhra region, in present-day Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh, on the right bank of the Krishna River. It was an important centre of Mahasanghika Buddhism and also served as a capital of the Satavahana dynasty.
Consider the following statements:
1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Stupas served as repositories of relics of the Buddha and other revered monks, and were built as votive and commemorative structures. However, Statement 1 is incorrect because the concept of stupa predates Buddhism — it was adapted from pre-Buddhist burial mound traditions.
In the history of ancient India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as
Korkai, Poompuhar (Kaveripattinam) and Muchiri (Muziris) were famous ports of the Sangam Age kingdoms. Korkai was a Pandya port, Poompuhar was a Chola port and Muchiri was a Chera port. They are mentioned extensively in Sangam literature and classical Greco-Roman texts.
Which one of the following best describes the term Vattakirutal that is mentioned in Sangam poems?
Vattakirutal was a Tamil practice mentioned in Sangam literature where a defeated king would commit ritual suicide by starving himself to death. It was considered an honourable death, and close associates of the king would also join in this ritual fasting unto death.
Consider the following dynasties:
1. Hoysala
2. Gahadavala
3. Kakatiya
4. Yadava
How many of the above established kingdoms in early eighth century AD?
None of these dynasties established kingdoms in the early eighth century AD. The Hoysala dynasty emerged around the 10th-11th century. The Gahadavala dynasty rose to power in the 11th century. The Kakatiya dynasty was established in the 12th century. The Yadava (Seuna) dynasty also emerged around the 12th century.
Consider the following pairs: Literary Work — Author
1. Devichandragupta — Bilhana
2. Hammira-Mahakavya — Nayachandra Suri
3. Milinda-panha — Nagarjuna
4. Nitivakyamrita — Somadeva Suri
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Only pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched. Hammira-Mahakavya was written by Nayachandra Suri and Nitivakyamrita was written by Somadeva Suri. Devichandragupta was authored by Vishakhadatta (not Bilhana). Milinda-panha records dialogues between Menander I and Nagasena (not authored by Nagarjuna).
The statement that souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects closely reflects which one of the following?
This statement closely reflects the Jain philosophy of soul (jiva). Jainism believes that all living and non-living things, including rocks and water, possess souls. This concept is central to the Jain doctrine of non-violence (ahimsa) towards all forms of life.
Which one of the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a dam across the Tungabhadra River and a canal-aqueduct to the capital city?
Devaraya I (1406-1422) of the Sangama dynasty constructed a dam across the Tungabhadra River and built a canal-aqueduct to bring water to the capital city of Vijayanagara (Hampi). This was a significant feat of hydraulic engineering in medieval India.
Which one of the following rulers of the medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to the Portuguese?
Bahadur Shah, the last powerful ruler of the Gujarat Sultanate, was forced to cede Diu to the Portuguese in 1535. Facing threats from the Mughal Emperor Humayun, Bahadur Shah sought Portuguese help and signed the Treaty of Bassein, giving them control of Diu.
By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?
The Charter Act of 1833 designated the Governor General of Bengal as the Governor General of India. Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor General of India under this Act. The Act centralized the legislative power in the Governor General-in-Council.
Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana:
1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. JSY aims to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality and promote institutional delivery by providing cash incentives. Statement 1 is incorrect — JSY is a 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the National Health Mission, not a State intervention. Statement 4 is incorrect — providing facilities for sick infants up to one year is a feature of Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK), not JSY.
Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:
1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth.
3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect — the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy provides prophylactic iron and folic acid supplementation, not calcium supplementation. The strategy includes delayed cord clamping, periodic deworming, and addressing non-nutritional causes of anaemia.
Consider the following statements:
1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components of automobiles and aircrafts.
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Only Statement 1 is correct. Carbon fibres are widely used in automobile and aircraft components due to their high strength-to-weight ratio. Statement 2 is incorrect because carbon fibres can be recycled through processes like pyrolysis and chemical treatments, though recycling is complex and not yet widely scaled.
Consider the following:
1. Detect the impact of a car crash and trigger the release of airbags.
2. Detect a free fall of a laptop and turn off the hard drive to prevent data loss.
3. Detect the tilt of a smartphone and adjust the display accordingly.
In how many of the above is an accelerometer used?
An accelerometer is used in all three applications. In cars, it detects sudden deceleration during a crash to trigger airbag deployment. In laptops, it detects free fall and parks the hard drive head to prevent damage. In smartphones, it detects orientation changes to rotate the display.
Consider the following statements in the context of biofilters used in aquaculture:
1. Biofilters remove uneaten fish feed from the water.
2. Biofilters convert ammonia to nitrate.
3. Biofilters increase the phosphorus as nutrient for fish.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Biofilters in aquaculture help remove solid waste including uneaten feed and convert toxic ammonia to less harmful nitrate through nitrification by beneficial bacteria. Statement 3 is incorrect — biofilters do not increase phosphorus as a nutrient; excess phosphorus is actually a pollutant in aquaculture systems.
Consider the following pairs: Space Objects — Description
1. Cepheids — Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
2. Nebulae — Stars which brighten and dim periodically
3. Pulsars — Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Only pair 3 is correctly matched. Pulsars are indeed rapidly rotating neutron stars formed when massive stars collapse. Pair 1 is wrong — Cepheids are variable stars that brighten and dim periodically (this is the description given for Nebulae in pair 2). Pair 2 is wrong — Nebulae are giant clouds of dust and gas (this is the description given for Cepheids in pair 1). The descriptions in pairs 1 and 2 are swapped.
Which one of the following countries has its own satellite navigation system?
Japan operates the Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS), its own regional satellite navigation system. Australia, Canada and Israel do not have their own satellite navigation systems. Other countries with satellite navigation systems include the USA (GPS), Russia (GLONASS), EU (Galileo), China (BeiDou) and India (NavIC).
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds, whereas cruise missiles are initially rocket-propelled and then follow a ballistic trajectory.
Statement-II: Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, whereas BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Both statements are incorrect. Statement I has the definitions reversed — ballistic missiles are rocket-propelled and follow a ballistic trajectory, while cruise missiles are jet-propelled and fly at subsonic or supersonic speeds. Statement II is also incorrect — Agni-V is an intercontinental ballistic missile (not cruise missile) and BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile (not a ballistic missile).
Consider the following statements about mercury pollution:
1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Artisanal and small-scale gold mining is the largest source of mercury emissions globally. Coal-fired power plants are the second largest source. Statement 3 is incorrect — the WHO has established tolerable intake levels for mercury, meaning safe exposure thresholds have been defined.
Consider the following statements about the application of green hydrogen:
1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
3. It can be used in the production of fuel cells for electric vehicles.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three statements are correct. Green hydrogen can be directly combusted in internal combustion engines. It can be blended with natural gas for heating and power generation. It is used in hydrogen fuel cells to power electric vehicles.
Consider the following countries:
1. Bulgaria
2. Czech Republic
3. Hungary
4. Latvia
5. Lithuania
6. Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?
Only two countries from the list share a land border with Ukraine: Hungary and Romania. Ukraine shares land borders with Poland, Slovakia, Hungary, Romania, Moldova, Russia and Belarus. Bulgaria, Czech Republic, Latvia and Lithuania do not share borders with Ukraine.
Consider the following statements:
1. The equator receives approximately 10 times insolation compared to the poles.
2. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
3. Infrared waves are absorbed by water vapour that is present in the lower atmosphere.
4. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves. Which one of the above statements is not correct?
Statement 4 is not correct. Infrared waves are NOT part of the visible spectrum — they lie beyond the red end of the visible spectrum and are invisible to the human eye. The visible spectrum ranges from approximately 380 nm (violet) to 700 nm (red), while infrared waves have wavelengths greater than 700 nm.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
Statement-II: The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I is incorrect — the temperature contrast between continents and oceans is actually greater in winter, not summer. In winter, land cools faster while oceans retain heat, creating a larger temperature differential. Statement II is correct — water has a higher specific heat capacity than land surfaces.
Consider the following statements:
1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both statements are correct. P waves (Primary waves) travel faster than S waves (Secondary waves) and are recorded first on seismographs. In P waves, particles vibrate parallel to the direction of wave propagation (longitudinal). In S waves, particles vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation (transverse).
Consider the following statements about coal-based thermal power plants in India:
1. None of them uses seawater.
2. None of them is located in water-stressed districts.
3. None of them is privately owned.
How many of the above statements are correct?
None of the statements are correct. The Mundra Thermal Power Station in Gujarat uses seawater for cooling. About 40% of thermal power plants in India are located in water-stressed districts. India has 131 coal-based thermal power plants owned by the private sector.
With reference to Wolbachia method, it is used in the context of
The Wolbachia method is used for controlling viral diseases spread by mosquitoes. Wolbachia bacteria are introduced into Aedes aegypti mosquitoes, which blocks the replication of dengue, chikungunya and Zika viruses within the mosquitoes, reducing disease transmission to humans.
Consider the following activities:
1. Spreading crushed basalt over vast tracts of farmland
2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
3. Pumping carbon dioxide into abandoned underground coal mines in the form of carbonated water
How many of the above are considered activities for carbon capture and sequestration?
All three are recognized methods of carbon capture and sequestration. Spreading crushed basalt on farmland accelerates weathering to capture CO2. Adding lime to oceans increases alkalinity and enhances CO2 absorption. Pumping carbonated water into abandoned coal mines stores carbon dioxide underground.
The term Aerial Metagenomics is best described as
Aerial metagenomics involves collecting DNA samples directly from the air in a habitat. This technique extracts environmental DNA (eDNA) from the atmosphere, allowing scientists to monitor biodiversity by analyzing genetic material shed by organisms in the air.
Microsatellite DNA ( STR ) is used in the context of
Microsatellite DNA, also known as Short Tandem Repeats (STRs), is used to study evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna. These highly polymorphic markers are valuable for analyzing genetic diversity, population genetics, paternity testing and forensics.
Consider the following statements:
1. According to the MSMED Act, 2006, the investment in plant and machinery for a medium enterprise is between Rs 15 crore and Rs 25 crore.
2. All bank loans to MSMEs qualify under the priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Only Statement 2 is correct. All bank loans to MSMEs qualify under the priority sector lending guidelines of RBI. Statement 1 is incorrect — under the revised MSME classification (2020), medium enterprises have investment up to Rs 50 crore (not Rs 15-25 crore) and turnover up to Rs 250 crore.
Consider the following statements:
1. Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) can make it possible for one country to pay another country directly without involving the US dollar or the SWIFT system.
2. A digital currency can be programmed to be spent only within a specified time frame.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both statements are correct. CBDCs enable direct cross-border payments between countries without relying on the US dollar or SWIFT system, promoting financial sovereignty. CBDCs can also incorporate programmability features such as setting expiration dates or predefined spending rules for the digital currency.
In the context of finance, the term Beta refers to
In finance, Beta is a numeric value that measures the fluctuation (volatility) of a specific stock relative to changes in the overall stock market. A Beta of 1 indicates the stock moves in line with the market. A Beta greater than 1 indicates higher volatility than the market.
Consider the following statements about Self-Help Group (SHG) programme:
1. It was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the underserved.
2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
3. The Regional Rural Banks and scheduled commercial banks support SHGs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. In an SHG, all members take collective responsibility for loans through mutual guarantee. RRBs and scheduled commercial banks support SHGs through SHG-Bank Linkage Programme. Statement 1 is incorrect — the SHG-Bank Linkage Programme was initiated by NABARD in 1992, not by the State Bank of India.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India accounts for 3.2% of global exports of goods.
Statement-II: Many local and foreign companies have leveraged the Production-linked Incentive scheme.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I is incorrect — India accounts for approximately 1.8% of global goods exports, not 3.2%. Statement II is correct — the Production-linked Incentive (PLI) scheme encourages both domestic and foreign companies with financial incentives to boost manufacturing in India.
Consider the following statements: The Stability and Growth Pact of the European Union is a treaty that:
1. Limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union.
2. Makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities.
3. Enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only Statement 1 is correct. The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is a rule-based framework that limits the fiscal deficits and public debt of EU member states. It requires countries to keep budget deficits below 3% of GDP and public debt below 60% of GDP. It does not deal with infrastructure sharing or technology sharing.
Consider the following statements:
1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations adopted the first-ever Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration.
2. The Global Compact aims to create binding commitments on governments.
3. The Global Compact addresses internal migration and internal displacement.
How many of the above statements are correct?
None of the statements are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect — the GCM was adopted by 164 countries, not all UN members (the USA, Hungary, and several others did not join). Statement 2 is incorrect — the GCM is non-legally binding. Statement 3 is incorrect — the GCM focuses on international migration only, not internal migration or displacement.
With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Home Guards serve as an auxiliary to police in maintaining internal security. Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in border states. Statement 1 is incorrect — Home Guards are raised under State Home Guards Acts, not a Central Government Act. There is no Central Home Guards Act.
Consider the following pairs: Action — Governing Act
1. Wearing an unauthorized uniform/Official Secrets Act, 1923
2. Interfering with the officers investigating under the direction of the Court/Indian Evidence Act, 1872
3. Celebratory gunfire which endangers the personal safety of others/Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched. Section 6A of the Official Secrets Act deals with unauthorized use of uniforms. The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 specifically addresses celebratory gunfire. Pair 2 is incorrect — interference with officers investigating under court direction is not governed by the Indian Evidence Act but by the Code of Criminal Procedure.
Consider the following pairs: Area of conflict — Country where it is located
1. Donbas — Syria
2. Kachin — Ethiopia
3. Tigray — North Yemen
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
None of the pairs are correctly matched. Donbas is located in eastern Ukraine (not Syria). Kachin is a conflict region in Myanmar (not Ethiopia). Tigray is a region in northern Ethiopia (not North Yemen).
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.
Statement-II: The Arab Peace Initiative mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and the Arab League.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I is correct — Israel has established diplomatic relations with several Arab states including Egypt (1979), Jordan (1994), UAE, Bahrain, Morocco and Sudan (2020 Abraham Accords). Statement II is incorrect — the Arab Peace Initiative proposed by Saudi Arabia was endorsed by the Arab League in 2002 but was never signed by Israel.
Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards:
1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award — For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over a period of last four years
2. Arjuna Award — For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson
3. Dronacharya Award — To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams
4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar — To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched. The Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is for outstanding performance over the last four years. The Dronacharya Award honours eminent coaches. Pair 2 is incorrect — the Arjuna Award is for consistent outstanding performance, not lifetime achievement (lifetime achievement is the Dhyan Chand Award). Pair 4 is incorrect — Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar is given to corporate entities, NGOs and sports bodies for promoting sports, not to retired sportspersons.
Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022:
1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
2. The official mascot was named Thambi.
3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
4. The trophy for the winning team in the women section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The 44th Chess Olympiad held in Chennai was the first Chess Olympiad hosted by India. The official mascot was Thambi (meaning younger brother in Tamil). Statements 3 and 4 have the trophies swapped — the Hamilton-Russell Cup is for the open section and the Vera Menchik Cup is for the women section.
In recent years, Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?
All four countries — Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan — experienced successful military coups in recent years. Mali had coups in 2020 and 2021, Guinea in 2021, Sudan in 2021, and Chad had a military takeover in 2021 following the death of President Idriss Deby.
Consider the following statements about green hydrogen: Green hydrogen can play a significant role in decarbonizing which of the following?
1. Fertilizer plants
2. Oil refineries
3. Steel plants
How many of the above are correct?
All three are correct. Green hydrogen can play a significant role in decarbonizing fertilizer plants (replacing grey hydrogen used in ammonia production), oil refineries (used in hydrocracking and desulphurization), and steel plants (replacing coal in the direct reduced iron process).
Consider the following statements:
1. The G 20 was established as a platform of the Finance Ministers and the Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic issues.
2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India G-20 priorities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both statements are correct. The G-20 was established in 1999 as a forum for Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors of major economies to discuss international economic and financial issues. During India G-20 Presidency in 2023, Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) was one of the key priorities.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The tropical rainforest soil is rich in nutrients.
Statement-II: The high temperature and moisture of the tropical rainforest cause rapid decomposition of organic matter.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I is incorrect — tropical rainforest soils are actually nutrient-poor because heavy rainfall leaches nutrients away rapidly. Statement II is correct — high temperature and moisture in tropical rainforests do cause rapid decomposition of organic matter, but this does not make the soil rich as nutrients are quickly washed away.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India extracts more than one-quarter of the world groundwater extracted annually.
Statement-II: India needs to extract more than one-third of the annual groundwater to meet the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18 percent of global population.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I is correct — according to the UN World Water Development Report 2022, India extracts approximately 26% of the global groundwater extracted annually. Statement II is incorrect — while India has about 18% of the global population, the claim about needing to extract more than one-third of global groundwater specifically for drinking water and sanitation needs lacks evidentiary support.
Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Under Article 355, the Central Government has a duty to protect every State against internal disturbance. Under Article 22(3)(b), persons detained under preventive detention laws are not entitled to legal counsel as a fundamental right. Statement 3 is incorrect — Section 32 of POTA specifically allowed confessions before police officers (of rank SP and above) to be used as evidence.
Which one of the following is a country that has been facing decades of civil strife and food shortages and has recently experienced a severe famine?
Somalia has faced decades of civil strife since 1991 when the central government collapsed. The country has experienced recurring food crises and severe famines, with the most recent famine conditions declared in parts of Somalia in 2022 due to prolonged drought, conflict and displacement.
Consider the following statements about Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs):
1. They are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
2. They have the power to levy charges on the person or organization for accessing or collecting any biological resource for commercial purposes from areas falling within their jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both statements are correct. BMCs established under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 play a key role in realizing the access and benefit-sharing objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. BMCs have the power to levy collection fees on persons or organizations accessing biological resources for commercial purposes within their jurisdictional areas.
Consider the following statements about the Presidential election in India:
1. The nominated members of either House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies do not participate.
2. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
3. The total value of votes of all elected members of the Lower House of Parliament is always more than the total value of the votes of all elected members of all the State Legislative Assemblies.
4. The value of the vote of each MP of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of each MLA of any State.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only statement 2 is correct. The value of each MLA vote varies from State to State based on the population and number of elected seats in the Legislative Assembly. Statement 1 is partially incorrect — nominated members of Legislative Assemblies do not vote, but nominated members of Parliament also do not participate. Statement 3 is incorrect — the total vote value of elected MPs equals the total vote value of all elected MLAs. Statement 4 is incorrect — MP vote value may be less than that of MLAs from some larger states.
Alexander Rea, A.H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot, who are known in the field of Indian history, are associated with
All five personalities are associated with archaeological excavations and research in India. Alexander Rea was a noted archaeologist who excavated sites in South India. A.H. Longhurst was Director of the Archaeological Survey of Madras. Robert Sewell wrote about the Vijayanagara Empire. James Burgess was Director General of the Archaeological Survey of India. Walter Elliot was an archaeologist who worked extensively in South India.
Consider the following pairs: Site — Cave shrine/ temple
1. Besnagar — Shaivite cave shrine
2. Bhaja — Buddhist cave shrine
3. Sittanavasal — Jain cave shrine
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched. Bhaja Caves in Maharashtra are ancient Buddhist cave shrines dating to the 2nd century BCE. Sittanavasal in Tamil Nadu is a famous Jain cave shrine with remarkable paintings. Pair 1 is incorrect — Besnagar in Madhya Pradesh is associated with the Heliodorus Pillar (a Vaishnavite monument), not a Shaivite cave shrine.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.
Statement-II: It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Both statements are correct and Statement II explains Statement I. The Government of India declared 7th August as National Handloom Day in 2015 to commemorate the Swadeshi Movement launched on 7th August 1905 in Calcutta, which promoted indigenous industries including handloom weaving.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The standard size of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.
Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the width (height) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I is incorrect — the Indian Flag has nine standard sizes specified by the Bureau of Indian Standards, and 600mm x 400mm is not among them. Statement II is correct — the Flag Code of India mandates that the ratio of length to height (width) of the National Flag shall be 3:2.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II: On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I is correct — Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) is celebrated on 26th November to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution. Statement II is incorrect — the Drafting Committee was set up on 29th August 1947, not on 26th November 1949. On 26th November 1949, the Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
Statement-II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I is correct — Switzerland is the world biggest gold refining and transit hub with gold exports exceeding $107 billion annually, making it one of the largest gold exporters by value. Statement II is incorrect — the countries with the largest gold reserves are USA, Germany, Italy and France. Switzerland is not second.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The United States of America and the European Union have launched the Trade and Technology Council (TTC).
Statement-II: India has joined the TTC as a founding member.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I is correct — the US and EU launched the Trade and Technology Council (TTC) in June 2021 to coordinate approaches to key global trade, economic and technology issues. Statement II is incorrect — India is not a member of the TTC; it is a bilateral initiative between the US and EU only.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India accounts for 3.2% of global exports of goods.
Statement-II: Many local and foreign companies have leveraged the Production-linked Incentive scheme.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement I is incorrect — India share in global goods exports was approximately 1.8% in 2023, not 3.2%. Statement II is correct — the PLI scheme has attracted both domestic and foreign companies across 14 sectors with financial incentives to boost manufacturing in India.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India health system places its primary focus on curative care.
Statement-II: India States are primarily responsible for the organization and delivery of health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Both statements are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I. India health system has historically focused more on curative care than preventive or primary healthcare. Health is a State subject, and States are primarily responsible for organizing and delivering health services. However, the States being responsible for health delivery does not explain why the focus is on curative care.
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