Previous Year Questions
UPSC Prelims 2022 — GS Paper I
"Rapid Financing Instrument" and "Rapid Credit Facility" are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?
The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) and Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) are emergency lending tools of the IMF. RFI provides rapid financial assistance to all member countries facing urgent balance of payments needs. RCF provides concessional financial support to low-income countries.
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. An increase in NEER indicates rupee appreciation. An increase in REER actually indicates a loss of trade competitiveness (exports become more expensive), so Statement 2 is incorrect. Higher domestic inflation relative to trading partners causes NEER and REER to diverge.
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were
to fall, that
is
likely
to induce RBI to buy dollars.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. RBI sells dollars to arrest rapid rupee depreciation. When US/EU interest rates fall, capital flows into emerging markets, and RBI buys dollars to prevent excessive rupee appreciation. Statement 1 is incorrect: during high inflation, RBI sells government securities (not buys) to reduce money supply.
With reference to the "G20 Common Framework", consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is designed to facilitate the restructuring of debt owed by the Low-Income Countries that are eligible for the World Bank DSSI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both statements are correct. The G20 Common Framework for Debt Treatments beyond the DSSI was endorsed by the G20 along with the Paris Club in November 2020. It is designed to help Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt through coordinated debt restructuring.
With reference to "Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)", consider the following statements:
1. The Government of India first issued IIBs in 2013.
2. IIBs protect investors from inflation uncertainty.
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Government of India first issued Inflation-Indexed Bonds in June 2013. IIBs protect investors from inflation by adjusting returns for inflation. Statement 3 is incorrect: interest income and capital gains on IIBs are taxable under the Income Tax Act.
With reference to foreign-invested e-commerce firms operating in India, consider the following statements:
1. They can sell goods directly to the Indian consumers in addition to offering their e-commerce platforms as marketplaces.
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both statements are incorrect. Under Indian FDI policy, 100% FDI is permitted only in the marketplace model of e-commerce. Foreign-invested e-commerce firms cannot engage in inventory-based selling (cannot sell goods directly). There are also restrictions on equity participation by the e-commerce entity in seller companies on its platform.
Consider the following:
1. Farmers harvesting their crops
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabric
3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee-denominated bonds overseas
Which of the above constitute real sector activities?
Only 1 and 2 are real sector activities. The real sector involves the production and distribution of goods and services. Farming and textile manufacturing are real sector activities. Bank lending and bond issuance are financial sector activities.
Which one of the following best describes the term "Indirect Transfers" in the context of Indian taxation?
Indirect transfer refers to transfer of shares of a foreign entity that derives its value substantially from assets located in India. This was clarified through the amendment to Section 9(1)(i) of the Income Tax Act, famously brought into focus by the Vodafone tax case.
With reference to an organization expenditure, consider the following statements:
1. Acquiring new technology is a capital expenditure.
2. Acquiring a patent is a revenue expenditure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Only Statement 1 is correct. Acquiring new technology qualifies as capital expenditure as it provides benefits over multiple accounting periods. Statement 2 is incorrect: acquiring a patent is also capital expenditure, as a patent is an intangible asset with long-term benefits.
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. A part of the household financial savings directly goes toward government borrowings.
2. Dated government securities at market-related rates form a large component of internal debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both statements are correct. A significant part of household financial savings in India is channelled into government borrowings through instruments like small savings, provident funds, and government securities. Market-linked dated government securities form a major component of internal debt.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed on the recommendations of the H.N. Sanyal Committee.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to make laws for contempt of courts.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. The Contempt of Courts Act 1971 was based on the H.N. Sanyal Committee. Articles 129 and 215 empower the Supreme Court and High Courts to punish for contempt. Parliament can make laws on contempt. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Constitution does not define Civil and Criminal Contempt; the Act of 1971 does.
Consider the following statements:
1. In India, advocates are regulated by the Bar Council of India. Only Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates; corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded.
2. The Bar Council of India lays down rules for legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 2 is correct: The Bar Council of India lays down standards of professional conduct, etiquette, rules regarding legal education, and recognition of universities/law colleges. Statement 1 is incorrect in its characterization of the legal profession in India.
Consider the following statements:
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President to give assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill requires a special majority both in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha and there is no provision for a joint sitting.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Once passed by both Houses with the required majority, the President must give assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill under Article 368. There is no provision for a joint sitting. Statement 1 is incorrect: a Constitution Amendment Bill does not require the President prior recommendation.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies Union Ministers into four ranks — Cabinet Ministers, Ministers with Independent Charge, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers.
2. The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 2 is correct: The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 limits the total number of Ministers including the PM to 15% of total Lok Sabha members. Statement 1 is incorrect: the Constitution mentions only Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers. Ministers with Independent Charge is not a separate constitutional category.
Consider the following:
1. Ratification of the declaration of Emergency
2. Passing a motion of No-Confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. Impeachment of the President
Which of the above is/are exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha?
Only a No-Confidence Motion is an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha. Emergency proclamation must be approved by both Houses. Impeachment also requires both Houses — charges can be preferred by either House.
Consider the following statements in respect of the anti-defection law:
1. A nominated member of a House shall be disqualified for being a member of the House if he/she joins any political party within six months of taking the oath.
2. The decision of the Presiding Officer on the question of disqualification is not subject to any timeframe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 2 is correct: The Tenth Schedule does not prescribe any specific time limit for the Presiding Officer to decide a disqualification petition. Statement 1 is incorrect: a nominated member can join a political party within six months of taking the oath without disqualification; they are disqualified only if they join after six months.
Consider the following statements:
1. Only the Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India can participate in the proceedings of Parliament.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both statements are incorrect. Statement 1: Only the Attorney General has the constitutional right to participate in Parliament proceedings (Article 76); the Solicitor General does not have this right. Statement 2: The Constitution does not require the AG to resign with the government; he holds office during the pleasure of the President.
Consider the following statements regarding the writs issued by courts in India:
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public-minded person can be a petitioner to move the court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
All three statements are correct. Mandamus requires a public duty for private organizations. Mandamus does not lie against government companies in their private/commercial capacity. Any public-minded person (not necessarily aggrieved) can petition for Quo Warranto.
Consider the following statements regarding the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission:
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims for universal health coverage, all citizens of the country eventually will come under it.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Only Statement 3 is correct: Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission enables seamless portability of health records across the country. Statement 1 is incorrect: adoption by hospitals is voluntary, not mandatory. Statement 2 is incorrect: the mission creates a digital health ecosystem but does not automatically cover all citizens.
Consider the following statements regarding the election of the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha:
1. The date of the election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.
2. It is mandatory that the Deputy Speaker be elected from either the opposition or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same powers as the Speaker when presiding over a sitting, and no appeal lies against the rulings.
4. It is an established practice that the Speaker moves the motion and the Prime Minister seconds it.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The date of election of Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker. When the Deputy Speaker presides, he has the same powers as the Speaker and decisions cannot be appealed. Statement 2 is incorrect: there is no mandatory requirement regarding party affiliation. Statement 4 is incorrect: this is not an established constitutional practice.
Which one of the following is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?
Rice cultivation (paddy fields) is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide. Flooded rice paddies produce methane through anaerobic decomposition of organic matter, and nitrogenous fertilizers used in rice fields release nitrous oxide.
Consider the following statements about the System of Rice Intensification (SRI) with alternate wetting and drying of irrigation:
1. Less seed is required.
2. Less methane is produced.
3. Less electricity is consumed.
Which of the above statements are correct?
All three are correct. SRI requires fewer seeds (single seedlings planted widely), produces less methane (alternate wetting-drying reduces anaerobic conditions), and consumes less electricity (less water needs pumping).
In recent years, there has been a concern over the decline of a high-altitude lake in West Africa that has turned almost into a desert. Which one of the following lakes is being referred to?
Lake Faguibine in northern Mali was once one of the largest lakes in West Africa. Due to climate change, reduced water flow from the Niger River, and desertification, it has virtually dried up and turned into a desert landscape.
Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which of the following rivers?
Gandikota canyon in Andhra Pradesh was carved by the Pennar River. Located in Kadapa district, it is often called the Grand Canyon of India due to its spectacular gorge formed by the erosion of Erramala Hills.
Consider the following pairs:
Peak — Mountain Range
1. Namcha Barwa — Garhwal Himalaya
2. Nanda Devi — Kumaon Himalaya
3. Nokrek — Sikkim Himalaya
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Only pair 2 is correct. Nanda Devi (7,816 m) is in the Kumaon Himalaya in Uttarakhand. Namcha Barwa is in the Eastern Himalaya (Tibet/Arunachal Pradesh), not Garhwal. Nokrek is in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya, not Sikkim.
The term "Levant" often heard in the news roughly corresponds to:
The Levant refers to the region along the eastern Mediterranean shores, encompassing modern-day Syria, Lebanon, Jordan, Israel, Palestine, and parts of Turkey. The term derives from the French word lever (to rise), referring to the direction of the rising sun.
Consider the following countries:
1. Azerbaijan
2. Kyrgyzstan
3. Tajikistan
4. Turkmenistan
5. Uzbekistan
Which of the above are bordering countries of Afghanistan?
Afghanistan shares borders with Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan to the north. Azerbaijan and Kyrgyzstan do not border Afghanistan. Other bordering countries include Pakistan, Iran, and China.
Consider the following statements regarding India monazite deposits:
1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
2. Monazite contains thorium.
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands.
4. Only the Government of India and the bodies created by it can process or export monazite.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Monazite is a key source of rare earths and contains thorium. Under the Atomic Energy Act, monazite is a prescribed substance and only government bodies like IREL can process or export it. Statement 3 is incorrect: monazite is found mainly along the Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Odisha coasts, not the entire Indian coastline.
In the Northern Hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in:
The longest day in the Northern Hemisphere (Summer Solstice) normally occurs on June 21, which falls in the second half of June. On this day the Sun is directly overhead the Tropic of Cancer.
Consider the following pairs:
Wetland/Lake — Location
1. Hokera Wetland — Punjab
2. Renuka Wetland — Himachal Pradesh
3. Rudrasagar Lake — Tripura
4. Sasthamkotta Lake — Tamil Nadu
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Two pairs are correctly matched. Renuka Wetland is in Himachal Pradesh (correct) and Rudrasagar Lake is in Tripura (correct). Hokera Wetland is in Jammu and Kashmir (not Punjab) and Sasthamkotta Lake is in Kerala (not Tamil Nadu).
Consider the following:
1. Aarogya Setu
2. CoWIN
3. DigiLocker
4. DIKSHA
Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?
All four platforms are built on open-source digital technology. DIKSHA is built on the open-source Sunbird platform, DigiLocker uses open-source technologies, and both Aarogya Setu and CoWIN were developed as open-source projects.
With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements:
1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.
2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain-based social networks.
3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than by a corporation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
All three are correct. Web 3.0 emphasizes decentralization, enabling user data ownership. Blockchain-based social networks are a key Web 3.0 feature. Decentralized applications run collectively via consensus mechanisms rather than corporate control.
With reference to "Software as a Service (SaaS)", consider the following statements:
1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields.
2. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.
3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.
Which of the above statements are correct?
All three are correct. SaaS platforms allow customization of UI and data fields. SaaS applications are accessible via web browsers on mobile devices. Email services like Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo Mail are classic SaaS examples.
With reference to "Fractional Orbital Bombardment System (FOBS)", which of the following statements best describes it?
FOBS is a warhead delivery system that uses a low-Earth orbit for part of its flight trajectory. The missile achieves a partial orbit around the Earth and then de-orbits to strike its target, making it harder to detect and defend against than traditional ballistic missiles.
The term "Qubit" is mentioned in the context of which of the following?
A qubit (quantum bit) is the basic unit of quantum information in quantum computing. Unlike classical bits (0 or 1), qubits can exist in a superposition of both states simultaneously, enabling exponentially faster computation for certain problems.
Consider the following communication technologies:
1. Closed-circuit Television
2. Radio Frequency Identification
3. Wireless Local Area Network
Which of the above are considered short-range devices/systems?
All three are short-range communication technologies. CCTV systems operate over short distances. RFID uses electromagnetic fields for short-range identification and tracking. WLAN (Wi-Fi) provides wireless connectivity over a limited range.
Consider the following statements about biofilms:
1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.
Which of the above statements are correct?
All three are correct. Biofilms are structured microbial communities that form on medical implants (causing infections), on food processing surfaces (causing contamination), and exhibit significantly enhanced antibiotic resistance compared to free-floating bacteria.
Consider the following statements about probiotic organisms:
1. They are made of both bacteria and yeast.
2. They are found in foods only and not naturally in the human gut.
3. They aid in the digestion of milk sugars.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Probiotics include both beneficial bacteria (Lactobacillus, Bifidobacterium) and yeasts (Saccharomyces boulardii). They help digest lactose (milk sugar). Statement 2 is incorrect: probiotics occur naturally in the human gut and are also found in fermented foods.
Consider the following statements regarding various COVID-19 vaccines:
1. The Covishield vaccine uses mRNA platform.
2. The Sputnik V vaccine uses a vector-based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Sputnik V uses human adenovirus vector-based platform (Ad26 and Ad5). COVAXIN by Bharat Biotech uses an inactivated SARS-CoV-2 virus platform. Statement 1 is incorrect: Covishield (Oxford-AstraZeneca) uses a chimpanzee adenovirus vector platform, not mRNA.
Consider the following effects of a major solar storm on Earth:
1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.
Which of the above are possible effects of a solar storm?
Statements 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 are correct. Solar storms can disrupt GPS, damage power grids through geomagnetically induced currents, cause intense auroras, disturb satellite orbits, and interrupt polar radio communications. Tsunamis (2) and forest fires (5) are not caused by solar storms.
"Climate Action Tracker" which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a/an:
The Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an independent scientific analysis tool produced by two research organisations: Climate Analytics and the NewClimate Institute. It is not affiliated with IPCC, UNFCCC, UNEP or the World Bank.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action through building large networks and running them.
2. The International Energy Agency (IEA) in partnership with the Climate Group launched a programme called "EP100".
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving energy efficiency and emission reductions.
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the secretariat to the "Under2 Coalition".
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. The Climate Group is an international non-profit driving climate action. EP100 brings together companies committed to energy efficiency. Indian companies like Mahindra and Dalmia Cement are members. Statement 2 is incorrect: EP100 was launched by The Climate Group (not IEA). Statement 5 is incorrect: The Climate Group (not IEA) is the secretariat of the Under2 Coalition.
Wetlands are described as "kidneys of the landscape" because they:
Wetlands are called kidneys of the landscape because, like human kidneys that filter blood, wetlands filter and purify water by absorbing heavy metals, excess nutrients and toxic chemicals through their vegetation and soil systems.
Consider the following statements with reference to WHO Air Quality Guidelines:
1. The 2021 revised guidelines prescribe that the PM2.5 24-hour mean is 15 microgram/m3 and annual mean is 5 microgram/m3.
2. Highest ozone pollution occurs during the periods of inclement weather.
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1 and 4 are correct. WHO 2021 guidelines set PM2.5 24-hour mean at 15 microgram/m3 and annual mean at 5 microgram/m3. Excessive ground-level ozone triggers asthma. Statement 2 is incorrect: highest ozone pollution occurs during warm sunny weather. Statement 3 is incorrect: PM2.5 (not PM10) penetrates the lung barrier.
Consider the following statements about "Gucchi":
1. It is a fungus.
2. It grows in the Himalayan forest areas.
3. It is commercially cultivated in the north-eastern foothills of the Himalayas.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Gucchi (Morchella esculenta) is a prized edible fungus (morel mushroom) that grows naturally in Himalayan forests of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Jammu and Kashmir. Statement 3 is incorrect: Gucchi cannot be commercially cultivated and is only wild-harvested.
Consider the following statements about polyethylene terephthalate (PET):
1. PET fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
2. PET containers can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
3. PET bottles can be recycled into other products.
4. PET bottles when incinerated do not release greenhouse gases.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. PET fibres (polyester) are commonly blended with wool and cotton for improved properties. PET bottles are widely recyclable. Statement 2 is incorrect: PET is not suitable for all alcoholic beverages. Statement 4 is incorrect: PET incineration releases CO2.
Which of the following is not a bird?
Golden Mahseer is a large freshwater fish found in Himalayan rivers and streams. Indian Nightjar is a nocturnal bird, Spoonbill is a wading bird, and White Ibis is a wading bird.
Consider the following:
1. Alfalfa
2. Amaranth
3. Chickpea
4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
6. Spinach
Which of the above are nitrogen-fixing plants?
Only Alfalfa (1), Chickpea (3) and Clover (4) are nitrogen-fixing plants. These are leguminous plants with symbiotic Rhizobium bacteria in root nodules that fix atmospheric nitrogen. Amaranth, Purslane and Spinach are non-leguminous.
"Biorock technology" is talked about in which of the following contexts?
Biorock technology (mineral accretion technology) is used for damaged coral reef restoration. It passes low-voltage electrical current through submerged metal structures, causing dissolved minerals to crystallize and create substrate for faster coral growth.
"Miyawaki method" is well known for the development of:
The Miyawaki method, developed by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki, creates dense urban mini forests by planting native species very closely together (2-4 saplings per square meter). They grow ten times faster and become 30 times denser than conventional plantations.
In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved" and "Transferred" subjects. Which of the following were treated as "Reserved" subjects?
1. Administration of Justice
2. Local Self-Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Reserved subjects under the Governor included Administration of Justice, Land Revenue, Police, Irrigation, Finance, and Famine Relief. Transferred subjects under Indian Ministers included Local Self-Government, Education, Public Health, Agriculture and Cooperative Societies.
In medieval India, the term "Fanam" referred to:
Fanam was a type of small gold coin used in medieval South India, particularly in the Vijayanagara Empire and Kerala. These tiny coins weighed as little as 0.3 grams with a diameter of less than a centimetre.
Consider the following freedom fighters:
1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3. Rash Behari Bose
Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?
Only Rash Behari Bose was actively associated with the Ghadar Party and the planned armed revolt of 1915. Barindra Kumar Ghosh was associated with the Anushilan Samiti and the Alipore Bomb Case. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee was associated with the Hindustan Republican Association and the Kakori Conspiracy.
With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:
1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
2. Any Province which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 2 is correct: The Cripps Mission proposed that any province unwilling to accept the new constitution could retain its constitutional position with the right to enter a separate agreement with Britain. Statement 1 is partially incorrect: members from British India would be elected (not nominated) by Provincial Assemblies, though Princely States would nominate their representatives.
Consider the following:
1. Nettipakarana
2. Parishishtaparvan
3. Avadanashataka
4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana
Which of the above are Jaina texts?
Only Parishishtaparvan (2) and Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana (4) are Jaina texts. Parishishtaparvan by Hemachandra is a biography of Jain Tirthankars. Nettipakarana is a Buddhist Pali text, and Avadanashataka is a Buddhist Sanskrit text.
Consider the following pairs:
Historical person — Known as
1. Aryadeva — Jaina scholar
2. Dignaga — Buddhist scholar
3. Nathamuni — Vaishnava scholar
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Two pairs are correctly matched. Dignaga was a famous Buddhist scholar and logician. Nathamuni was a Vaishnava saint who compiled the Nalayira Divya Prabandham. Aryadeva was actually a Buddhist scholar (disciple of Nagarjuna), not a Jaina scholar.
Consider the following statements regarding the Mongol invasions of India:
1. The first Mongol invasion of India took place during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol invasion reached up to Delhi and besieged the city.
3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to the Mongols.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Only Statement 2 is correct. During Ala-ud-din Khalji reign, the Mongols under Qutlugh Khwaja invaded in 1299 and reached Delhi outskirts. Statement 1 is incorrect: the first Mongol invasion occurred during Iltutmish reign (1221). Statement 3 is incorrect: Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq did not lose territory to Mongols.
With reference to the history of the Delhi Sultanate, the term "Kulah-Daran" referred to:
Kulah-Daran (cap-wearers) referred to the Sayyids, descendants of Prophet Muhammad who enjoyed high social status in the Delhi Sultanate. They wore distinctive caps as a mark of their lineage.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Dutch established their factories/settlements on the east coast of India from the Gajapati rulers.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a site granted by the representatives of the Vijayanagara empire.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Albuquerque captured Goa from Bijapur Sultan Yusuf Adil Shah in 1510. The English got permission from Nayaka rulers (Vijayanagara representatives) to establish a factory at Madras in 1639. Statement 1 is incorrect: the Dutch dealt primarily with Nayaka rulers, not Gajapati rulers.
According to Kautilya Arthashastra, which of the following are correct?
1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.
2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master son.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct per the official UPSC answer. If a female slave bore her master a son, both mother and child were recognized as free. The son fathered by the master was entitled to the legal status of the master son.
Consider the following statements:
1. Tight monetary policy of the US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight from emerging economies.
2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
This question was cancelled (marked X) in the official UPSC answer key. Statements 1 and 2 are generally considered correct. Tight US monetary policy raises US interest rates attracting capital away from emerging markets. Capital flight weakens domestic currency increasing ECB servicing costs. Statement 3 is incorrect: devaluation increases (not decreases) currency risk of ECBs.
Consider the following:
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Tripura
How many of the above States produce tea?
All four states produce tea. Kerala (Munnar and Wayanad), Himachal Pradesh (Kangra tea), Tripura, and Andhra Pradesh (Araku Valley in the Eastern Ghats) are all tea-producing states.
Consider the following statements:
1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.
2. The rating agency ICRA is a public limited company.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. ICRA Limited is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency registered with SEBI. Statement 1 is incorrect: credit rating agencies in India are regulated by SEBI, not the RBI.
Consider the following statements about Banks Board Bureau (BBB):
1. The Reserve Bank of India Governor is the Chairman of BBB.
2. BBB recommends for selection of heads of public sector banks.
3. BBB helps public sector banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. BBB (now replaced by FSIB) recommends appointments of heads of public sector banks and financial institutions. It also advises on strategies and capital raising. Statement 1 is incorrect: the BBB Chairman was an eminent person appointed by the Government, not the RBI Governor.
With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements:
1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both statements are correct. Convertible bonds carry lower coupon rates because the conversion option has intrinsic value. The conversion option provides indirect inflation protection since rising prices may increase company revenues and share prices.
India is a member of which of the following?
1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
2. Missile Technology Control Regime
3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
India is a member of all three. India is a founding member of AIIB (2016). India joined MTCR in June 2016. India became a full member of SCO in 2017.
Consider the following statements about Vietnam:
1. It is one of the fastest growing economies in recent times.
2. It is led by a multi-party political system.
3. Its growth has been linked to its integration with global supply chains and exports.
4. Low labour costs, stable exchange rates and attractive investment conditions attracted manufacturers.
5. It has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Vietnam has had consistently strong GDP growth. Its growth is driven by global supply chain integration and export-oriented manufacturing. Low labour costs attracted foreign manufacturers. Statement 2 is incorrect: Vietnam is a one-party state (Communist Party). Statement 5 is incorrect.
In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?
The RBI is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation. Under the amended RBI Act (2016), the Government set an inflation target of 4% (+/- 2%) for the RBI. The Monetary Policy Committee formulates policy to achieve this target.
Consider the following statements regarding Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs):
1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. NFTs can digitally represent physical assets and each is a unique cryptographic token on a blockchain. Statement 3 is incorrect: NFTs are non-fungible, meaning they cannot be exchanged at equivalency. Each NFT has a unique value.
Consider the following pairs:
Reservoir — State
1. Ghataprabha — Telangana
2. Gandhi Sagar — Madhya Pradesh
3. Indira Sagar — Andhra Pradesh
4. Maithon — Chhattisgarh
How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?
Three pairs are incorrectly matched. Only Gandhi Sagar is correctly in Madhya Pradesh. Ghataprabha reservoir is in Karnataka (not Telangana). Indira Sagar is in Madhya Pradesh (not Andhra Pradesh). Maithon Dam is in Jharkhand (not Chhattisgarh).
In India, the compilation of data on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs is done by:
The Labour Bureau, under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, compiles and publishes data on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs. It publishes the Indian Labour Journal and Indian Labour Statistics.
Consider the following statements about the role of the Coal Controller Organization (CCO):
1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in the Government of India.
2. It monitors the progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
3. It hears any objection to the acquisition of land for coal bearing areas.
4. It ensures timely delivery of coal to end users.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. CCO is a major source of coal statistics, monitors captive coal/lignite block development, and hears objections under the Coal Bearing Areas Act 1957. Statement 4 is incorrect: ensuring timely coal delivery is not a specific CCO function.
If a particular area is designated as a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence?
The Fifth Schedule provides for administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. The Governor can make regulations prohibiting or restricting land transfer by or among Scheduled Tribe members, effectively preventing land transfer from tribal to non-tribal people.
Consider the following statements:
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs providing innovative solutions to urban challenges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 2 is correct: NIUA is an apex body under MoHUA providing research-based solutions to urban challenges. Statement 1 is incorrect: the India Sanitation Coalition is a FICCI initiative, not funded by GOI and WHO.
Which one of the following bodies/authorities has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for regulation and control of ground water development and management.
With reference to the United Nations Credentials Committee, consider the following statements:
1. It is a committee set up by and functioning under the UN Security Council.
2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
3. It assesses the credentials of representatives of UN member states before the General Assembly approves them.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Only Statement 3 is correct. The Credentials Committee examines credentials of representatives and reports to the General Assembly. Statement 1 is incorrect: it is appointed by the General Assembly (not Security Council). Statement 2 is incorrect: it does not have fixed March/June/September meetings.
The term "Polar Code" best describes:
The Polar Code was adopted by the IMO and became mandatory on January 1, 2017. It covers design, construction, equipment, operational, training, search and rescue, and environmental protection matters for ships operating in Arctic and Antarctic waters.
With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements:
1. The General Assembly can grant observer status to non-member states.
2. Inter-governmental organisations also seek observer status at the General Assembly.
3. Permanent Observers can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.
Which of the above statements are correct?
All three are correct. UNGA can grant observer status to non-member states (e.g., Palestine, Holy See). Inter-governmental organisations like the African Union have observer status. Permanent Observers can maintain missions at the UN headquarters in New York.
Consider the following statements about the Tea Board of India:
1. It is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. Its headquarters is in Bengaluru.
4. It has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1 and 4 are correct. Tea Board is a statutory body under the Tea Act 1953. It has overseas offices in Dubai, Moscow and other locations. Statement 2 is incorrect: it is under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Statement 3 is incorrect: headquarters is in Kolkata, not Bengaluru.
The term "Greenwashing" best describes:
Greenwashing is the practice of making misleading claims about the environmental benefits of a product, service, or company practice, conveying a false impression of environmental responsibility.
Consider the following statements:
1. High-altitude clouds mainly reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
2. Low clouds have a warming effect because they absorb the infrared radiation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both statements are incorrect. High-altitude cirrus clouds have a net warming effect because they are thin, allowing solar radiation through while trapping outgoing infrared radiation. Low stratus clouds have a net cooling effect because they are thick and reflective, reflecting solar radiation back to space.
Consider the following statements regarding refugee settlements:
1. "Bidibidi" is one of the largest refugee settlements in north-western Kenya.
2. South Sudanese civil war refugees have sought refuge at Bidibidi.
3. Somali civil war refugees have sought refuge at Dadaab, Kenya.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Bidibidi hosts South Sudanese refugees who fled civil war. Dadaab in Kenya hosts primarily Somali civil war refugees. Statement 1 is incorrect: Bidibidi is in northern Uganda, not north-western Kenya.
Consider the following:
1. Armenia
2. Azerbaijan
3. Croatia
4. Romania
5. Uzbekistan
Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?
Azerbaijan and Uzbekistan are members of the Organization of Turkic States. Other members include Turkey, Kazakhstan and Kyrgyzstan. Armenia, Croatia and Romania are not members. Hungary and Turkmenistan are observer states.
Consider the following:
1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.
2. Kerala has a fully solar-powered international airport.
3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Only Statement 2 is correct. Cochin International Airport in Kerala became the world first fully solar-powered airport in 2015. Statement 1 is incorrect: the Bhadla Solar Park in Rajasthan (not Gujarat) is the largest. Statement 3 is incorrect: the largest floating solar project is not in Goa.
With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, consider the following statements:
1. A coastal State has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles.
2. Ships of all States, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baselines.
Which of the above statements are correct?
All three are correct under UNCLOS. Territorial sea extends up to 12 nautical miles (Article 3). All ships enjoy innocent passage through the territorial sea (Article 17). The EEZ cannot extend beyond 200 nautical miles from baselines (Article 57).
The dispute over Senkaku Islands is best described as:
The Senkaku Islands dispute is a territorial dispute between China and Japan in the East China Sea. Japan administers the islands, while China and Taiwan also claim sovereignty.
Consider the following pairs:
Country — Reason for being in news
1. Chad — Setting up of a military base by China
2. Guinea — Suspension of Constitution by the military
3. Lebanon — Severe economic depression
4. Tunisia — President suspending the Parliament
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Three pairs are correct. Guinea had a military coup in September 2021 suspending the constitution. Lebanon suffered a severe economic depression. Tunisia President Kais Saied suspended Parliament in July 2021. Statement 1 about Chad is incorrect: Chad was in news for President Idriss Deby death in combat (April 2021), not a Chinese military base.
Consider the following pairs:
Region — Country
1. Anatolia — Turkey
2. Amhara — Ethiopia
3. Cabo Delgado — Spain
4. Catalonia — Italy
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Two pairs are correct. Anatolia is the Asian part of Turkey (correct). Amhara is a region in Ethiopia (correct). Cabo Delgado is a province in Mozambique (not Spain). Catalonia is in Spain (not Italy).
With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Only Statement 2 is correct. Under the Wildlife Protection Act 1972, protected animals receive equal protection both inside and outside protected areas. Statement 1 is incorrect: the Act does not classify wild animals as sole government property. Statement 3 is incorrect: mere apprehension of danger is not sufficient; specific conditions and Chief Wildlife Warden permission are required.
Some species of which one of the following organisms are known to be cultivators of fungi?
Leaf-cutter ants (Atta and Acromyrmex genera) are well-known fungus cultivators. They cut leaves and use them as substrate to cultivate specific fungal species (Leucoagaricus gongylophorus) that they feed on — one of the most sophisticated examples of agriculture in the animal kingdom.
Consider the following pairs:
Rock edict location — State
1. Dhauli — Odisha
2. Erragudi — Andhra Pradesh
3. Jaugada — Madhya Pradesh
4. Kalsi — Karnataka
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Two pairs are correct. Dhauli is in Odisha (correct). Erragudi is in Andhra Pradesh (correct). Jaugada is in Odisha (not Madhya Pradesh). Kalsi is in Uttarakhand (not Karnataka).
Consider the following pairs:
King — Dynasty
1. Nannuka — Chandela
2. Jayashakti — Paramara
3. Nagabhata II — Gurjara-Pratihara
4. Bhoja — Rashtrakuta
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Two pairs are correct. Nannuka was the founder of the Chandela dynasty (correct). Nagabhata II was a Gurjara-Pratihara ruler (correct). Jayashakti was a Chandela ruler (not Paramara). Bhoja was a Paramara ruler (not Rashtrakuta).
Which one of the following statements regarding Sangam literature is correct?
The Sangam poets were aware of the Varna system. Sangam literature contains references to Brahmins and social stratification. The other statements are incorrect: Sangam literature has rich references to material culture, warrior ethics (Puram poems), and supernatural elements.
The "Yogavasistha" was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:
The Yogavasistha, a Hindu philosophical text attributed to Valmiki, was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of Akbar, as part of his policy of Sulh-i-Kul and cultural synthesis.
The teachings of Ramanuja regarding salvation are best reflected in:
Ramanuja (1017-1137 CE) was the chief proponent of Vishishtadvaita (qualified non-dualism). His teachings emphasized Bhakti (devotion) as the best path to salvation. He taught that surrender to God (Prapatti) and loving devotion are the means to moksha.
Consider the following statements about the Somnath Temple:
1. It is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
2. A description of the temple was given by Al-Biruni.
3. The temple was reconstructed and its Pran Pratishtha was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Somnath in Gujarat is one of the twelve Jyotirlinga shrines. Al-Biruni described the temple in Kitab-ul-Hind. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Pran Pratishtha of the reconstructed temple was performed by President Rajendra Prasad in 1951, not S. Radhakrishnan.
What is the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?
B cells and T cells are lymphocytes forming the core of the adaptive immune system. B cells produce antibodies that neutralize pathogens. T cells include helper T cells that coordinate immune responses and cytotoxic T cells that kill infected cells.
Consider the following statements about nanoparticles:
1. Nanoparticles of matter do not exist in nature; they are only human-made.
2. Nanoparticles of metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.
3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products that enter the environment are unsafe for humans.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Metallic oxide nanoparticles like titanium dioxide and zinc oxide are used in sunscreens and cosmetics. Some commercial nanoparticles are hazardous when entering the environment. Statement 1 is incorrect: nanoparticles exist naturally in volcanic ash, ocean spray, dust and biological matter.
"DNA Barcoding" can be a tool to:
1. Assess the age of a plant or animal.
2. Distinguish among look-alike species.
3. Identify undesirable plant or animal materials in processed foods.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. DNA barcoding uses a short genetic marker to identify species. It distinguishes look-alike species and detects undesirable biological materials in processed foods. Statement 1 is incorrect: DNA barcoding identifies species, not organism age.
Acid rain is caused by excess of which of the following in the atmosphere?
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxides
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Nitrogen oxides (NOx) and sulphur dioxide (SO2) are the primary causes of acid rain. SO2 forms sulphuric acid and NOx forms nitric acid when reacting with water vapour. Carbon monoxide does not directly cause acid rain. Ozone is a pollutant but not a primary contributor to acid rain.
Ready to test yourself?
Take a timed mock exam with this paper — 100 questions, 120 minutes, real exam conditions
Start Mock Exam