Previous Year Questions
UPSC Prelims 2021 — GS Paper I
With reference to the history of ancient India, Bhavabhutti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshwara were famous
Bhavabhutti (8th century), Hastimalla (13th century) and Kshemeshwara (10th-11th century) were all famous Sanskrit playwrights in ancient and medieval India.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all women above the age of 21.
2. The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in the legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
The Government of India Act of 1935 provided reserved seats for women in the legislature. The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 did not recommend granting voting rights to all women above 21; it provided limited franchise based on property qualifications.
With reference to 8th August 1942 in Indian History, which one of the following statements is correct?
On 8th August 1942, the All India Congress Committee (AICC) passed the Quit India Resolution at the Bombay session, launching the Quit India Movement under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
Which among the following is associated with Songs from Prison, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English?
Songs from Prison is a collection of translations of ancient Indian religious lyrics into English by Mahatma Gandhi, written during his time in prison.
With reference to medieval India, which one of the following is the correct sequence in ascending order in terms of size?
In the Mughal administrative system, the ascending order of territorial units by size was Paragana (smallest) < Sarkar (district) < Suba (province, the largest). A Suba comprised several Sarkars, and each Sarkar comprised several Paraganas.
Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School?
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was associated as Secretary with the Hindu Female School (later known as Bethune Female School), established in Calcutta in 1849 by John Elliot Drinkwater Bethune. Vidyasagar played a key role in promoting women education.
In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon are remembered as
Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon were officers of the Indian National Army (INA) led by Subhas Chandra Bose. They were tried at the famous INA trials (Red Fort Trials) in 1945.
With reference to Indian History, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad State.
2. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of Vijayanagara Empire.
3. Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani.
Only statement 2 is correct. The Mysore Kingdom under the Wodeyar dynasty emerged from the Vijayanagara Empire after its decline following the Battle of Talikota (1565). The Nizamat of Arcot emerged from the Mughal Empire (not Hyderabad). Rohilkhand was established by Afghan Rohilla chiefs who migrated from the mountains of Afghanistan, not from territories of Ahmad Shah Durrani.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
The Ajanta Caves are located in a horseshoe-shaped gorge along the Waghora River in the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra. Sanchi Stupa is located on a hilltop in Raisen district, not in any gorge.
Consider the following statements:
1. 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF.
2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statement 2 is correct. The demand for Bangla to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Statement 1 is incorrect because International Mother Language Day (21st February) was proclaimed by UNESCO (not UNICEF) in 1999.
With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements:
1. It is a circular temple built during the reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty.
2. It is the only circular temple built in India.
3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region.
4. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statements 1 and 4 are correct. The Chausath Yogini Temple near Morena was built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata dynasty (around 11th century). Its circular design has given rise to a popular belief that it inspired the design of the Indian Parliament building. It is not the only circular temple in India (there are other Yogini temples), and it was dedicated to Yogini worship, not the Vaishnava cult.
Which one of the following ancient towns is well-known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelizing water into connected reservoirs?
Dholavira, a Harappan site in Gujarat, is well-known for its elaborate water harvesting and management system. The site had a series of reservoirs connected through channels to collect rainwater, making it one of the most sophisticated water conservation systems of the ancient world.
In the first quarter of the seventeenth century, in which of the following was/were the factory/factories of the English East India Company located?
1. Broach
2. Chicacole
3. Trichinopoly
In the first quarter of the 17th century (1600-1625), the English East India Company had established its factory at Broach (Bharuch in Gujarat) by 1616. Chicacole and Trichinopoly factories were established much later.
From the decline of Guptas until the rise of Harshavardhana in the early seventh century, which of the following kingdoms were holding power in Northern India?
1. The Guptas of Magadha
2. The Paramaras of Malwa
3. The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar
4. The Maukharis of Kanauj
5. The Yadavas of Devagiri
6. The Maitrakas of Valabhi
The Later Guptas of Magadha, the Pushyabhutis of Thanesar, the Maukharis of Kanauj and the Maitrakas of Valabhi were the kingdoms holding power in Northern India between the decline of the Guptas and the rise of Harshavardhana (6th-7th century). The Paramaras of Malwa (9th-14th century) and the Yadavas of Devagiri (12th-14th century) came much later.
According to Portuguese writer Nuniz, the women in Vijayanagar Empire were experts in which of the following areas?
1. Wrestling
2. Astrology
3. Accounting
4. Soothsaying
According to the Portuguese writer Fernao Nuniz, women in the Vijayanagar Empire were skilled in wrestling, astrology, accounting and soothsaying. Nuniz described women as being accomplished in various fields, reflecting the progressive status of women in the Vijayanagar Empire.
With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct?
Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem (Jana Gana Mana) from Bengali to English at Madanapalle in Andhra Pradesh in 1919 during his visit to the Besant Theosophical College there. The English version is titled The Morning Song of India.
Consider the following pairs:
Historical place — Well-known for
1. Burzahom — Rock-cut shrines
2. Chandraketugrah — Terracotta art
3. Ganeshwar — Copper artefacts
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched. Chandraketugrah (West Bengal) is famous for its terracotta art. Ganeshwar (Rajasthan) is famous for copper artefacts. Burzahom (Kashmir) is known for its Neolithic pit dwellings, not rock-cut shrines.
Consider the following statements:
1. It was during the reign of Iltutmish that Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in pursuit of the fugitive Khwarezm prince.
2. It was during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq that Timur occupied Multan and crossed the Indus.
3. It was during the reign of Deva Raya II of Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama reached the coast of Kerala.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Only statement 1 is correct. Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in 1221 during the reign of Iltutmish (1211-1236) while pursuing Jalal-ud-din Mangbarni, the Khwarezm prince. Timur invaded India in 1398 during the reign of Nasir-ud-din Mahmud Shah Tughlaq (not Muhammad bin Tughlaq). Vasco da Gama reached Kerala in 1498 during the reign of Immadi Narasimha (not Deva Raya II).
Consider the following statements:
1. St. Francis Xavier was one of the founding members of the Jesuit Order.
2. St. Francis Xavier died in Goa and a church is dedicated to him there.
3. The Feast of St. Francis Xavier is celebrated in Goa each year.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. St. Francis Xavier was one of the seven founding members of the Society of Jesus (Jesuit Order) along with Ignatius of Loyola. The Feast of St. Francis Xavier is celebrated annually in Goa on 3rd December. However, statement 2 is incorrect because St. Francis Xavier died on Shangchuan Island (near China) in 1552, not in Goa. His remains were later brought to Goa and are kept in the Basilica of Bom Jesus.
With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Mitakshara was the civil law for upper castes and Dayabhaga was the civil law for lower castes.
2. In the Mitakshara system, the sons can claim the right to the property during the lifetime of the father, whereas in the Dayabhaga system, it is only after the death of the father that the sons can claim the right to the property.
3. The Mitakshara system deals with the matters related to the property held by male members only of a family, whereas the Dayabhaga system deals with the matters related to the property held by both male and female members of a family.
Only statement 2 is correct. Under Mitakshara (prevalent in most of India), sons acquire a right to ancestral property by birth itself, whereas under Dayabhaga (prevalent in Bengal and Assam), sons inherit property only after the death of the father. Statement 1 is incorrect as the distinction is regional, not caste-based. Statement 3 is also incorrect.
The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
The money multiplier increases when the banking habit of the people increases. When more people use the banking system (lower currency-deposit ratio), a larger proportion of money stays in the banking system, allowing more rounds of credit creation and thus a higher money multiplier. An increase in CRR or SLR would decrease the money multiplier.
With reference to Indian economy, demand-pull inflation can be caused/increased by which of the following?
1. Expansionary policies
2. Fiscal stimulus
3. Inflation-indexing wages
4. Higher purchasing power
5. Rising interest rates
Demand-pull inflation is caused by an increase in aggregate demand. Expansionary policies (1), fiscal stimulus (2) and higher purchasing power (4) all increase aggregate demand, causing demand-pull inflation. Inflation-indexing wages (3) is more related to cost-push inflation. Rising interest rates (5) reduce demand, not increase it.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Retail investors through demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in primary market.
2. The Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.
3. The Central Depository Services Ltd. is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Retail investors can invest in Treasury Bills and Government Securities through the RBI Retail Direct scheme using demat accounts. The NDS-OM is indeed a government securities trading platform operated by the RBI. Statement 3 is incorrect because CDSL was promoted by the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) along with leading banks, not by the RBI.
With reference to Water Credit, consider the following statements:
1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector.
2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank.
3. It aims to enable the poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. WaterCredit was pioneered by Water.org (co-founded by Matt Damon and Gary White) and puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector. It aims to enable poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies by providing small, affordable loans. Statement 2 is incorrect as it is not a WHO-World Bank initiative.
In India, the central bank function as the lender of last resort usually refers to which of the following?
1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources
2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis
3. Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits
The lender of last resort function of the central bank (RBI) refers to providing liquidity to commercial banks that are facing a temporary crisis and are unable to borrow from other sources. It does not include lending to trade and industry bodies or financing government budget deficits.
R2 Code of Practices constitute a tool available for promoting the adoption of
The R2 (Responsible Recycling) Code of Practices is a standard for electronics recyclers. It promotes environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry, ensuring proper handling of hazardous materials and data security.
Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?
1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment.
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into the environment.
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Copper smelting plants are a concern because copper slag can leach heavy metals like arsenic, lead and cadmium into the environment, and they release sulphur dioxide (SO2) as a major pollutant. Statement 1 is incorrect as carbon monoxide is not a major concern specific to copper smelting.
With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements:
1. It is a product of oil refineries.
2. Some industries use it to generate power.
3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into the environment.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
All three statements are correct. Furnace oil is a residual product from oil refineries (statement 1). It is used by many industries for power generation in boilers and furnaces (statement 2). Being a heavy petroleum product, its combustion releases sulphur dioxide into the environment (statement 3).
What is blue carbon?
Blue carbon refers to the carbon captured and stored by the oceans and coastal ecosystems such as mangroves, seagrasses, tidal marshes and salt marshes. These ecosystems sequester and store more carbon per unit area than terrestrial forests.
In nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil?
1. Fern
2. Lichen
3. Moss
4. Mushroom
Lichens and mosses can survive on surfaces without soil. Lichens are pioneer organisms that can grow on bare rocks. Mosses can also grow on rocks and other surfaces without soil. Ferns generally require soil, and mushrooms need organic matter or soil to grow.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Governor of the RBI is appointed by the Central Government under Section 8(1)(a) of the RBI Act, 1934. The Governor draws powers from the RBI Act. Statement 2 is incorrect because the right to issue directions to the RBI comes from Section 7 of the RBI Act, 1934 — not from any constitutional provision.
With reference to the casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements:
1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage.
2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment.
3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Under labour laws, workers are entitled to regular working hours and overtime payment. The Payment of Wages Act allows the government to notify that wages must be paid through bank accounts. Statement 1 is incorrect because not all casual workers are covered under the Employees Provident Fund; it applies to establishments with 20 or more employees.
Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?
During an economic recession, the government typically increases expenditure on public projects as a fiscal stimulus to boost aggregate demand, create employment and revive economic activity. This is consistent with Keynesian counter-cyclical fiscal policy.
Consider the following statements:
Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if
1. Price of its substitute increases
2. Price of its complement increases
3. The good is an inferior good and income of the consumers increases
4. Its price falls
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statements 1 and 4 are correct. When the price of a substitute good increases, consumers shift to the original good, increasing its demand. When the price of a good itself falls, quantity demanded increases (law of demand). Statement 2 is incorrect because when complement price increases, demand for both goods decreases. Statement 3 is incorrect because for inferior goods, demand decreases when income increases.
With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks in India, consider the following statements:
1. They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments.
2. They can issue equity shares and preference shares.
3. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1966.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Following the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act 2020, Urban Cooperative Banks can issue equity shares and preference shares. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act through the 1966 amendment. Statement 1 is incorrect as they are regulated by the RBI (for banking functions) and the Registrar of Cooperative Societies (for administrative matters), not by local boards set up by state governments.
Indian Government Bond yields are influenced by which of the following?
1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve
2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India
3. Inflation and short-term interest rates
All three factors influence Indian Government Bond yields. US Federal Reserve actions affect global capital flows and Indian bond markets. RBI actions (repo rate, OMOs) directly influence yields. Inflation expectations and short-term interest rates are fundamental determinants of bond yields.
Consider the following:
1. Foreign currency convertible bonds
2. Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions
3. Global depository receipts
4. Non-resident external deposits
Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?
Foreign currency convertible bonds (FCCBs), foreign institutional investment with certain conditions (when FII holds 10% or more equity), and Global Depository Receipts (GDRs) can be included in FDI. Non-resident external deposits are categorized under other capital flows, not FDI.
Consider the following statements:
The effect of devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily
1. Improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets
2. Increases the foreign value of domestic currency
3. Improves the trade balance
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Only statement 1 is necessarily correct. Devaluation makes domestic goods cheaper in foreign markets, thus improving export competitiveness. Statement 2 is incorrect as devaluation decreases (not increases) the foreign value of domestic currency. Statement 3 is not necessarily correct because trade balance improvement depends on the Marshall-Lerner condition and the J-curve effect.
Which one of the following effects of creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?
The primary concern of the Government of India regarding black money is the loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion. This reduces the government ability to fund public services and development programs. Various anti-black money measures like demonetisation, Benami Property Act, and black money disclosure schemes have been aimed primarily at recovering lost tax revenue.
Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects?
Creation of new money (printing money/monetization of deficit) to finance a budget deficit is the most inflationary. It directly increases the money supply without a corresponding increase in goods and services. Borrowing from the public or banks merely transfers existing money and is less inflationary.
Which one of the following is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent?
Lemon grass (Cymbopogon citratus) contains citronella oil which is widely used as a natural mosquito repellent. Citronella is one of the most effective natural insect repellents and is registered with the US Environmental Protection Agency.
Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1. Copepods
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Diatoms
4. Foraminifera
Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?
Cyanobacteria and diatoms are primary producers (autotrophs) in ocean food chains. They perform photosynthesis and form the base of the marine food web. Copepods are zooplankton (consumers/heterotrophs), and foraminifera are protists that are mostly heterotrophic.
Consider the following animals:
1. Hedgehog
2. Marmot
3. Pangolin
To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up and protects its/their vulnerable parts?
Hedgehogs and pangolins roll up into a ball as a defensive mechanism against predators. Hedgehogs curl up, exposing their spines to deter predators. Pangolins curl into a tight ball, with their hard keratin scales providing protection. Marmots do not roll up; they typically flee to their burrows or use alarm calls.
With reference to the New York Declaration on Forests, which of the following statements are correct?
1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014.
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests.
3. It is a legally binding international declaration.
4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities.
5. India was one of the signatories at its inception.
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. The New York Declaration on Forests was first endorsed at the UN Climate Summit in September 2014. It endorses a global timeline to cut natural forest loss in half by 2020 and end it by 2030. It is endorsed by governments, multinational companies, and indigenous peoples organizations. Statement 3 is incorrect as it is a voluntary, non-legally binding declaration. Statement 5 is incorrect as India was not a signatory.
Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems, are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following?
1. Brakes of motor vehicles
2. Engines of motor vehicles
3. Microwave stoves within homes
4. Power plants
5. Telephone lines
Magnetite nanoparticles are generated from brakes of motor vehicles (friction), engines of motor vehicles (combustion), and power plants (coal combustion). These magnetite particles have been found in human brain tissue and are suspected to cause neurodegenerative diseases. Microwave stoves and telephone lines are not significant sources of magnetite pollution.
Which one of the following is a filter feeder?
Oysters are filter feeders. They draw in water through their gills and filter out phytoplankton and other tiny particles for nutrition. Catfish are bottom feeders, octopuses are active predators, and pelicans catch fish by diving or scooping.
In the case of which of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrients to enter the cycle?
In the phosphorus cycle, weathering of phosphate-containing rocks is the main source of phosphorus release into the environment. Unlike carbon and nitrogen, phosphorus does not have a significant gaseous phase. It enters the cycle primarily through the gradual weathering of rocks and is then taken up by plants from the soil.
Which of the following are detritivores?
1. Earthworms
2. Jellyfish
3. Seahorse
4. Woodlice
Earthworms and woodlice are detritivores — organisms that feed on dead and decomposing organic matter (detritus). Jellyfish are predatory carnivores that feed on plankton and small fish. Seahorses are also predators that feed on small crustaceans and zooplankton.
The Common Carbon Metric supported by UNEP has been developed for
The Common Carbon Metric, supported by UNEP-SBCI (Sustainable Buildings and Climate Initiative), was developed to measure and report greenhouse gas emissions from building operations. It provides a common methodology for assessing the carbon footprint of buildings worldwide.
Which of the following have species that can establish a symbiotic relationship with other organisms?
1. Cnidarians
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa
All three groups have species that establish symbiotic relationships. Cnidarians (e.g., corals with zooxanthellae algae), fungi (e.g., mycorrhizal associations with plant roots, lichens with algae) and protozoa (e.g., termite gut protozoa that help digest cellulose) all demonstrate symbiotic relationships.
Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates
Concentration of wealth violates the Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 38(2) directs the State to minimize inequalities in income and endeavour to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities. Article 39(c) directs that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.
What is the position of the Right to Property in India?
After the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, the Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights. It is now a legal right under Article 300A which states that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. It is available to any person (citizen or non-citizen), not just citizens.
What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?
On 26th January 1950, the Preamble described India as a Sovereign Democratic Republic. The words Socialist and Secular were added later by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
Constitutional government means
A constitutional government means a government that is limited by the terms of the Constitution. The Constitution defines the powers, functions and limitations of the government, ensuring that it operates within the prescribed legal framework.
With reference to India, the terms Halbi, Ho and Kui pertain to
Halbi, Ho and Kui are tribal languages spoken in India. Halbi is spoken in Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra, Ho is spoken in Jharkhand and Odisha (by the Ho tribe of the Munda group), and Kui is spoken in Odisha (by the Kandha tribe).
Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards:
1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.
Which of the above statements are not correct?
All three statements are incorrect. Statement 1: The Supreme Court in Balaji Raghavan vs Union of India (1996) held that these awards are not titles under Article 18(1). Statement 2: Padma Awards were suspended twice — during 1977-1979 (Janata Party government) and 1993-1997. Statement 3: There is no constitutional or statutory restriction limiting Bharat Ratna to five per year; the convention is to award a maximum of three per year.
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World.
Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Tree City of the World programme is a collaboration between the Arbor Day Foundation and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations, not the UNCDF. Statement 2 is correct — cities are recognized for their commitment to growing and maintaining urban forests.
Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000:
1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
2. The award was received mostly by Formula One players so far.
3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Tiger Woods was the first winner of the Laureus World Sportsman of the Year Award in 2000. Roger Federer has received this award the most number of times (six times). Statement 2 is incorrect as the award has been received by athletes from various sports, not mostly by Formula One drivers.
Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics:
1. The official motto for this Olympics is A New World.
2. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics.
Only statement 2 is correct. The 32nd Summer Olympics (Tokyo 2020, held in 2021) included five new sports: Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball/Softball. Statement 1 is incorrect as the official motto was United by Emotion, not A New World.
Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship:
1. The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won.
2. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.
Both statements are incorrect. The ICC World Test Championship finalists were decided by the percentage of points won (PCT), not the number of matches won. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because of a higher percentage of points won, not because of more match wins. The final was held between India and New Zealand at Southampton in June 2021, which New Zealand won.
Consider the following statements:
1. Right to the City is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard.
2. Right to the City gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city.
3. Right to the City means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorised colonies in the city.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Right to the City concept gives urban inhabitants the right to participate in city governance and reclaim public spaces. It also implies that the State should not deny basic public services to unauthorised colonies. Statement 1 is incorrect as Right to the City is not an agreed-upon human right; it is a concept and movement, not a formally recognized right monitored by UN-Habitat.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Only statement 2 is correct. During judicial custody, the police cannot interrogate the suspect without obtaining permission from the court. Statement 1 is incorrect because in judicial custody, the accused is sent to jail (not the police station). When in police custody, the accused is kept in the police station.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Only statement 2 is correct. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules, as prisons are a State subject under the State List (Entry 4, List II). Statement 1 is incorrect because parole is not a matter of right; it is a privilege granted at the discretion of the authorities based on the merits of each case.
At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal ministry for the implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (also known as the Forest Rights Act or FRA).
A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
Such legislation violates Article 14 which guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. The Supreme Court has held that any law conferring unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power on the executive is violative of Article 14 as it is arbitrary and discriminatory.
Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
The independence of the judiciary is an essential feature of a federal system. An independent judiciary acts as an arbiter between the Centre and States and interprets the Constitution. While the other options may exist in federal systems, the safeguarded independence of the judiciary is the essential federal feature among the given options.
Which one of the following best defines the term State?
The best definition of a State encompasses four essential elements: population, territory, government and sovereignty (independence from external control). Option (a) captures all four elements: community of persons (population), permanently occupying a definite territory (territory), independent of external control (sovereignty), and possessing an organized government (government).
With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
Only statement 1 is correct. Under Article 128 of the Constitution, the Chief Justice of India, with the previous consent of the President, may request any retired Supreme Court judge to sit and act as a judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is debatable but High Courts have limited review powers compared to the Supreme Court which has explicit review power under Article 137.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Only statement 1 is correct. India provides for single citizenship (unlike the USA which has dual citizenship — federal and state). Statement 2 is incorrect because the Indian Constitution does not require the President to be a citizen by birth; any citizen is eligible. Statement 3 is incorrect because citizenship can be terminated by renunciation, termination or deprivation under the Citizenship Act, 1955.
Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?
Separation of powers is considered the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy. It prevents concentration of power in any single branch of government by dividing power among the legislature, executive and judiciary, creating a system of checks and balances that protects individual liberties.
The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions. Which of the following are such conditions?
1. Burrowing animals and termites
2. Fire
3. Grazing herbivores
4. Seasonal rainfall
5. Soil properties
Fire, grazing herbivores and seasonal rainfall are the main factors that keep forest development in check in savannah ecosystems. Regular fires prevent tree seedlings from establishing. Grazing herbivores consume young tree shoots. Seasonal rainfall (with a distinct dry season) limits tree growth. Burrowing animals, termites and soil properties are less significant factors in limiting forest development.
With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements:
1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.
2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.
Only statement 2 is correct. Polar ice caps and glaciers hold about 68.7% of the freshwater on Earth, while groundwater accounts for about 30.1%. Rivers and lakes hold only about 0.3% of freshwater, which is far less than groundwater. So statement 1 is incorrect.
Consider the following statements:
1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree.
2. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia.
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce.
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa.
5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels.
Statements 3, 4 and 5 are correct. Most tamarind in India is collected as minor forest produce. India exports both tamarind and moringa seeds. Both moringa and tamarind seeds can be used in biofuel production. Statement 1 is incorrect as moringa belongs to the family Moringaceae, not Fabaceae (legumes). Statement 2 is incorrect as tamarind is native to tropical Africa, not endemic to South Asia.
The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of
Black cotton soil (regur soil or black soil) of India has been formed due to the weathering of fissure volcanic rock, specifically the Deccan basalt. These basaltic lava flows from the Deccan Traps have weathered over millions of years to form the black soil found primarily in Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and parts of Andhra Pradesh.
With reference to recent developments regarding Recombinant Vector Vaccines, consider the following statements:
1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines.
2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both statements are correct. Recombinant vector vaccines use genetic engineering to insert genes encoding antigens from the target pathogen into a harmless virus or bacterium (the vector). Both bacteria and viruses can serve as vectors. Examples include the Oxford-AstraZeneca COVID-19 vaccine which uses a chimpanzee adenovirus vector.
In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements:
1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of egg.
2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both statements are correct. Mitochondrial replacement therapy (MRT) can be performed either before IVF (maternal spindle transfer) or after IVF (pronuclear transfer) to prevent transmission of mitochondrial diseases. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited exclusively from the mother (maternal inheritance) because sperm mitochondria are typically eliminated after fertilization.
Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of
Bollgard I and Bollgard II are genetically modified (GM) cotton technologies developed by Monsanto (now Bayer). Bollgard I contains the Cry1Ac gene from Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) for resistance against bollworm. Bollgard II contains both Cry1Ac and Cry2Ab genes, providing broader protection against bollworms.
In a pressure cooker, the temperature at which the food is cooked depends mainly upon which of the following?
1. Area of the hole in the lid
2. Temperature of the flame
3. Weight of the lid
The cooking temperature in a pressure cooker depends on the area of the hole in the lid and the weight of the lid. These two factors determine the pressure at which steam escapes, which in turn determines the internal pressure and cooking temperature. The temperature of the flame affects how quickly the cooker reaches the desired pressure, but the maximum cooking temperature depends on the pressure, which is controlled by the hole size and lid weight.
Consider the following:
1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Virus
Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/synthetic medium?
Bacteria and fungi can be cultured in artificial or synthetic media. Bacteria grow on nutrient agar and other culture media. Fungi grow on media like Sabouraud dextrose agar. Viruses cannot be cultured in artificial media because they are obligate intracellular parasites and require living host cells to replicate.
Consider the following statements:
1. Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes.
2. Common cold is sometimes caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Only statement 2 is correct. Common cold can be caused by adenoviruses (among other viruses like rhinovirus), and AIDS is caused by HIV which is a retrovirus. Statement 1 is incorrect because adenoviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes (not single-stranded), and retroviruses have single-stranded RNA genomes (not double-stranded DNA).
How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming?
1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are predominant.
2. Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming.
3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so easily possible in such regions.
4. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming.
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Permaculture encourages polyculture and biodiversity (not monoculture). Conventional chemical farming with excessive irrigation and fertilizers can increase soil salinity. Mulching is a core practice in permaculture to conserve moisture and build soil. Statement 3 is incorrect because permaculture is actually well-suited to semi-arid regions with its water-conservation techniques.
With reference to palm oil, consider the following statements:
1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
2. The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes.
3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Palm oil is used as a raw material in the cosmetics industry for products like lipstick and perfumes. It can also be used to produce biodiesel. Statement 1 is incorrect as the oil palm tree (Elaeis guineensis) is native to West Africa, not Southeast Asia, though it is now widely cultivated in Southeast Asia (Indonesia and Malaysia).
With reference to the Indus river system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of them which joins the Indus direct. Among the following, which one is such river that joins the Indus direct?
The Sutlej joins the Indus directly (at Mithankot in Pakistan). The Jhelum flows into the Chenab, and the Ravi also flows into the Chenab. The Chenab then joins the Sutlej to form the Panjnad River, which joins the Indus. So three rivers (Jhelum, Ravi, Chenab) pour into the Sutlej system, and the Sutlej joins the Indus directly.
With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are the names of
Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are saline lakes located in the Thar Desert region of Rajasthan, India. These inland saline lakes are important sources of salt and have ecological significance.
Consider the following rivers:
1. Brahmani
2. Nagavali
3. Subarnarekha
4. Vamsadhara
Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats?
The Nagavali and Vamsadhara rivers rise from the Eastern Ghats. The Brahmani river is formed by the confluence of the South Koel and Sankh rivers in the Chotanagpur Plateau region. The Subarnarekha river originates near Ranchi in Jharkhand (Chotanagpur Plateau). Both originate from the Chotanagpur Plateau, not the Eastern Ghats.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.
2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
3. Rare earth minerals are present on the seafloor in international waters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. India has received exploration licences from the International Seabed Authority (ISA) for polymetallic nodules and polymetallic sulphides in international waters. Rare earth minerals are indeed found on the seafloor. Statement 1 is incorrect because it is the International Seabed Authority (ISA), not the Global Ocean Commission, that grants licences for seabed exploration and mining.
Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop?
Sugarcane is the least water-efficient crop among the given options. It requires approximately 1,500-2,000 mm of water and has a very high water footprint. Pearl millet and red gram are drought-resistant crops requiring relatively less water, while sunflower is moderately water-efficient.
Consider the following statements:
1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds.
2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both statements are correct. In the tropical zone, trade winds blow from east to west, pushing warm surface water westward, making the western sections of oceans warmer. In the temperate zone, prevailing westerlies blow from west to east, pushing warm surface water eastward, making the eastern sections of oceans warmer (e.g., Western Europe has milder climate due to this effect).
In the context of India preparation for climate-smart agriculture, consider the following statements:
1. The Climate-Smart Village approach in India is a part of a project led by the Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research programme.
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France.
3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR research centres.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
All three statements are correct. CCAFS is an international research programme that leads the Climate-Smart Village approach. CCAFS operates under CGIAR, which is headquartered in Montpellier, France. ICRISAT, headquartered in Hyderabad, India, is one of the CGIAR research centres.
Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result the soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees. This is the most likely description of
This describes a tropical rain forest. Key indicators include: fastest leaf litter decomposition (due to high temperature and humidity), bare soil surface (nutrients quickly recycled), abundant climbers (lianas) and epiphytes reaching for the canopy — all characteristic features of tropical rainforests.
Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because
Water is called the universal solvent because of its dipolar (polar) nature. The water molecule has a partial positive charge on the hydrogen atoms and a partial negative charge on the oxygen atom. This polarity allows water to form hydrogen bonds and interact with a wide variety of ionic and polar substances, dissolving them effectively.
With reference to street-lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps?
1. Sodium lamps produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps.
2. As street-lights, sodium lamps have longer life span than LED lamps.
3. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street-lighting.
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Sodium lamps emit light in 360 degrees (omnidirectional), while LED lamps emit light directionally (typically 180 degrees or less). Sodium lamps produce nearly monochromatic yellow-orange light, while LEDs can produce a wide spectrum of colours. Statement 2 is incorrect as LED lamps have a significantly longer lifespan (50,000-100,000 hours) than sodium lamps (12,000-24,000 hours).
The term ACE2 is talked about in the context of
ACE2 (Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme 2) is a receptor on human cells that the SARS-CoV-2 virus (which causes COVID-19) uses to enter and infect cells. ACE2 gained widespread attention in the context of the COVID-19 pandemic as understanding this receptor was crucial for developing treatments and vaccines.
Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics?
Bisphenol A (BPA) is a key component in the manufacture of polycarbonate plastics. Polycarbonate is used in water bottles, food containers, CDs/DVDs, and eyeglass lenses. BPA is an endocrine disruptor and has raised health concerns, leading to BPA-free alternatives.
Triclosan, considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following?
Triclosan is an antibacterial and antifungal agent commonly found in toiletries such as toothpaste, soaps, hand sanitizers, and deodorants. Long-term exposure to high levels of triclosan has been linked to health concerns including hormone disruption and antibiotic resistance.
Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years?
Astronomical distances are measured in light-years because the speed of light is a universal constant (approximately 3 x 10^8 m/s in vacuum). Since the speed of light is always the same regardless of the observer or source, it provides a reliable and consistent unit for measuring vast cosmic distances.
We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?
1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
Both statements are correct. The British Parliament is sovereign and can make or unmake any law, while the Indian Parliament powers are limited by the Constitution and subject to judicial review. In India, matters relating to constitutional validity of parliamentary acts/amendments are referred to the Constitution Bench (minimum 5 judges) of the Supreme Court under Article 145(3).
With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister charge.
Only statement 2 is correct. The Department of Personnel was constituted in 1970 on the recommendation of the First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) and was placed under the charge of the Prime Minister. Statement 1 is incorrect regarding the specific recommendation attributed to the N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar Committee.
Right to Privacy is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?
The Right to Privacy is protected under Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) of the Constitution. In the landmark K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) case, a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously declared that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right protected under Article 21.
Consider the following statements:
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
This question was officially dropped by UPSC. Statement 2 about Devi Lal contesting from three constituencies in the 1991 Lok Sabha Election is considered correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because Section 33(7) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 restricts a candidate to contest from a maximum of two constituencies (after 1996 amendment). Statement 3 is also debatable regarding the cost-bearing provisions.
Ready to test yourself?
Take a timed mock exam with this paper — 100 questions, 120 minutes, real exam conditions
Start Mock Exam