Previous Year Questions
UPSC Prelims 2020 — GS Paper I
Consider the following statements:
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
As per the Supreme Court judgment in the Aadhaar case (K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, 2018), the State cannot enter into contracts with private corporations for sharing Aadhaar data. Aadhaar is mandatory for benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Aadhaar metadata can be stored for more than three months (archived for 5 years), and Aadhaar is not mandatory for insurance products.
Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in amending the Constitution under Article 368. Both Houses must pass a Constitutional Amendment Bill by a special majority. Creating new All India Services (Article 312) also requires Rajya Sabha resolution, but the removal of government (no-confidence motion) and cut motions are exclusive to Lok Sabha.
With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
MPLADS funds must create durable assets (statement 1 correct). At least 15% must benefit SC areas and 7.5% for ST areas (statement 2 correct). The district authority must inspect at least 10% of works (statement 4 correct). However, unused MPLADS funds CAN be carried forward (statement 3 incorrect).
Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?
Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form. Article 17 falls under the Right to Equality (Articles 14-18), which is Part III of the Constitution.
In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by
Article 50 of the Constitution, which is a Directive Principle of State Policy (Part IV), states that the State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.
Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include the Macro-Economic Framework Statement. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by
The Macro-Economic Framework Statement is mandated by Section 3 of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003. It contains an assessment of the growth prospects of the economy.
A constitutional government by definition is a
A constitutional government is by definition a limited government. The constitution limits the powers of the government by defining the framework within which it must operate, ensuring rule of law and protection of fundamental rights.
Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
1. Preamble
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
The Preamble reflects UDHR principles like justice, liberty, equality and fraternity. The DPSPs reflect socio-economic rights from UDHR (right to work, education, health). The Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) also reflect UDHR principles like promoting harmony and spirit of common brotherhood.
In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs. 1,00,000
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs. 2,00,000
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000
4. All Senior Citizens
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 (as amended), persons with annual income below Rs. 1,00,000 are eligible for free legal services. Transgender persons with income below Rs. 2,00,000 were made eligible after the NALSA v. Union of India (2014) judgment. OBCs are not specifically listed as a category. Senior citizens are not automatically eligible without income criteria in all states.
Consider the following pairs:
International agreement/set-up — Subject
1. Alma-Ata Declaration — Healthcare of the people
2. Hague Convention — Biological and chemical weapons
3. Talanoa Dialogue — Global climate change
4. Under2 Coalition — Child rights
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Alma-Ata Declaration (1978) relates to primary healthcare — correctly matched. Talanoa Dialogue was launched at COP23 (2017) for global climate change — correctly matched. Hague Convention relates to international child abduction, not biological/chemical weapons. Under2 Coalition is about sub-national climate leadership, not child rights.
A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which
The defining feature of a Parliamentary System is that the executive (Council of Ministers) is responsible to the legislature (Parliament) and can be removed by it through a vote of no-confidence. This is the principle of collective responsibility under Article 75(3).
Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare State?
The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV, Articles 36-51) declare the ideal of a Welfare State. They direct the State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people, including provisions for adequate livelihood, equal pay, health, education, and living wage.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India defines its basic structure in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for judicial review to safeguard the citizens liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect — the Constitution does not define its basic structure anywhere. The basic structure doctrine was evolved by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). Statement 2 is correct — Article 13 and Articles 32/226 provide for judicial review to safeguard citizens liberties.
One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is
Both Gandhism and Marxism share the ultimate vision of a stateless society (Ram Rajya in Gandhian terms, and a communist society in Marxist terms). However, they differ fundamentally on means — Gandhi rejected class struggle and violence, while Marx saw them as necessary. Gandhi did not advocate complete abolition of private property.
In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?
The primary characteristic of bureaucracy in India is that it serves as an agency for the implementation of public policy. Bureaucracy is the permanent executive that implements decisions taken by the political executive. While it may contribute to stability and growth, its defining role is policy implementation.
The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
As per the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Preamble is a part of the Constitution. However, as held in Union Government v. LIC of India, it has no legal effect independently of other parts — it cannot override the specific provisions of the Constitution but can be used for interpretation.
Gold Tranche (Reserve Tranche) refers to
Gold Tranche or Reserve Tranche is a credit facility of the International Monetary Fund (IMF). It represents the portion of a member country quota that was originally paid in gold. A member can draw up to 25% of its quota from the IMF almost automatically without any conditions.
With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.
3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Part IV contains Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 37 explicitly states they shall not be enforceable by any court (statement 2 correct). However, the principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these in making laws (statement 3 correct). Statement 1 is the opposite of what Article 37 says.
Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct — under Article 164(4), a minister who is not a member of the State Legislature can hold office for six months without being a member. The only requirement is eligibility to be elected (which includes voting eligibility). Statement 2 is incorrect — the disqualification is not permanent; it lasts for 6 years after serving the sentence.
Consider the following statements:
1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct — Article 85(1) empowers the President to summon Parliament at such time and place as he thinks fit. Statement 2 is incorrect — the Constitution does not provide for three sessions; it only requires that six months should not intervene between sessions. Statement 3 is correct — there is no constitutional requirement for minimum number of sitting days.
With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:
1. Aurang — In-charge of treasury of the state
2. Banian — Indian agent of the East India Company
3. Mirasidar — Designated revenue payer to the state
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Aurang was a warehouse/place of manufacture, not in-charge of treasury (statement 1 is incorrect). Banian was an Indian agent or broker who worked for the East India Company (statement 2 is correct). Mirasidar was a hereditary revenue payer/landholder in South India (statement 3 is correct).
With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:
1. Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana Buddhism.
2. Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot of Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism.
3. The deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas fostered Mahayana Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect — Sthaviravadins (Theravadins) belong to Hinayana/Theravada Buddhism, not Mahayana. Statement 2 is correct — Lokottaravadins were an offshoot of the Mahasanghika sect. Statement 3 is correct — the Mahasanghikas started deifying Buddha which eventually led to the development of Mahayana Buddhism.
Which of the following statements correctly explains the impact of the Industrial Revolution on India during the first half of the nineteenth century?
The Industrial Revolution in Britain led to mass production of cheap machine-made goods which flooded Indian markets, destroying Indian handicraft industries (de-industrialisation). Railways came to India only after 1853. Machines were not introduced in Indian textile industry in large numbers during this period. Heavy duties were imposed on Indian exports to Britain, not on British imports to India.
Consider the following events in the history of India:
1. Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja
2. Establishment of Pallava power under Mahendravarman-I
3. Establishment of Chola power by Parantaka-I
4. Pala dynasty founded by Gopala
What is the correct chronological order of the above events, starting from the earliest time?
Chronological order: Mahendravarman-I of Pallava dynasty (c. 600-630 CE), Gopala founded Pala dynasty (c. 750 CE), King Bhoja of Pratiharas (c. 836-885 CE), Parantaka-I of Chola dynasty (c. 907-955 CE). So the order is 2-4-1-3.
Which of the following phrases defines the nature of the Hundi generally referred to in the sources of the post-Harsha period?
A Hundi was a financial instrument that functioned as a bill of exchange in medieval India. It was used by merchants and traders for transferring money and settling trade transactions across long distances, functioning much like a modern cheque or promissory note.
With reference to the book Desher Katha written by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar during the freedom struggle, consider the following statements:
1. It warned against the Colonial State hypnotic conquest of the mind.
2. It inspired the performance of swadeshi street plays and folk songs.
3. The use of desh by Deuskar was in the specific context of the region of Bengal.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Desher Katha (Story of the Country) by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar warned against the colonial conquest of minds (statement 1 correct) and inspired swadeshi cultural expressions (statement 2 correct). However, Deuskar used desh to refer to India as a whole, not specifically Bengal (statement 3 incorrect). Deuskar himself was a Marathi-speaking writer who wrote in Bengali.
The Gandhi-Irwin Pact included which of the following?
1. Invitation to Congress to participate in the Round Table Conference
2. Withdrawal of Ordinances promulgated in connection with the Civil Disobedience Movement
3. Acceptance of Gandhiji suggestion for enquiry into police excesses
4. Release of only those prisoners who were not charged with violence
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
NOTE: This question was DELETED by UPSC in the official answer key. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931) included: Congress participation in the Round Table Conference, withdrawal of ordinances, and release of prisoners not charged with violence. However, Gandhi enquiry into police excesses was NOT accepted by Irwin.
The Vital-Vidhwansak, the first monthly journal to have the untouchable people as its target audience was published by
Vital-Vidhwansak (Destroyer of Brahmanical or Priestly Religion) was the first monthly journal targeting the untouchable community, published by Gopal Baba Walangkar in 1888. Walangkar is considered one of the pioneers of the Dalit movement, even before Ambedkar.
With reference to the history of India, the terms kulyavapa and dronavapa denote
Kulyavapa and Dronavapa were units of land measurement used in ancient India, particularly during the Gupta period. Kulyavapa referred to an area of land that could be sown with one kulya of grain, and dronavapa referred to an area sown with one drona of grain.
Who among the following rulers advised his subjects through this inscription?
Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames other sects out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his own sect very severely.
This inscription is from Rock Edict XII of Emperor Ashoka, which advocates religious tolerance. Ashoka promoted the policy of Dhamma (righteousness) and urged his subjects to respect all religious sects rather than glorifying their own at the expense of others.
With reference to the cultural history of India, which one of the following is the correct description of the term paramitas?
Paramitas (perfections or transcendent virtues) are a central concept in Mahayana Buddhism. They are the qualities that a Bodhisattva must perfect to attain Buddhahood. The six paramitas are: Dana (generosity), Sila (morality), Kshanti (patience), Virya (energy), Dhyana (meditation), and Prajna (wisdom).
In the context of Indian history, the Rakhmabai case of 1884 revolved around
1. Women right to gain education
2. Age of consent
3. Restitution of conjugal rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
The Rakhmabai case (1884) was a landmark case involving restitution of conjugal rights and age of consent. Rakhmabai was married as a child and refused to go to her husband Dadaji Bhikaji. The case led to debates on age of consent and contributed to the Age of Consent Act, 1891. It was not primarily about women education.
Indigo cultivation in India declined by the beginning of the 20th century because of
Indigo cultivation declined primarily because of the invention of synthetic indigo by Adolf von Baeyer in Germany in 1897, which made natural indigo unprofitable in the world market. While peasant resistance (like the Indigo Revolt of 1859-60) did occur, the main reason for the final decline was the cheaper synthetic alternative.
Wellesley established the Fort William College at Calcutta because
Lord Wellesley established Fort William College in 1800 in Calcutta primarily to train young British civil servants (writers) in Indian languages, customs, and laws to make them efficient administrators. The college taught languages like Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian, Hindi, and Bengali, along with Indian history and law.
With reference to the history of India, Ulgulan or the Great Tumult is the description of which of the following events?
Ulgulan (meaning Great Tumult) was the name given to the revolt led by Birsa Munda in 1899-1900 in the Chotanagpur region (present-day Jharkhand). Birsa Munda led the Munda tribals against the British colonial government and zamindari system to reclaim their land and rights.
With reference to scholars/litterateurs of ancient India, consider the following statements:
1. Panini is associated with Pushyamitra Shunga.
2. Amarasimha is associated with Harshavardhana.
3. Kalidasa is associated with Chandra Gupta-II.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Only statement 3 is correct. Kalidasa was a renowned poet and dramatist in the court of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) of the Gupta dynasty. Panini, the great Sanskrit grammarian, lived around 4th century BCE — long before Pushyamitra Shunga (2nd century BCE). Amarasimha was one of the Navaratnas in the court of Chandragupta II, not Harshavardhana.
In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, Pronuclear Transfer is used for
Pronuclear Transfer is a mitochondrial replacement therapy (MRT) technique used to prevent the transmission of mitochondrial diseases from mother to child. It involves transferring the pronuclei from a fertilized egg with defective mitochondria to an enucleated donor egg with healthy mitochondria.
With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following?
1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units
2. Create meaningful short stories and songs
3. Disease diagnosis
4. Text-to-Speech Conversion
5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
AI can effectively: optimize electricity consumption in industries using smart grids and algorithms (1), diagnose diseases through pattern recognition in medical imaging (3), and perform text-to-speech conversion (4). Creating truly meaningful creative works (2) was not considered effective AI capability at the time of the exam (2020). Wireless transmission of electrical energy (5) is not an AI application.
With reference to Visible Light Communication (VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct?
1. VLC uses the electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780 nm.
2. VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communication.
3. VLC can transmit a large amount of data faster than Bluetooth.
4. VLC has no electromagnetic interference.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
VLC uses visible light spectrum wavelengths 375-780 nm (statement 1 correct). VLC can transmit large data volumes faster than Bluetooth (statement 3 correct). VLC causes no electromagnetic interference as it uses visible light (statement 4 correct). However, VLC is a short-range communication technology, not long-range (statement 2 incorrect).
With reference to Blockchain Technology, consider the following statements:
1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect but which no single user controls.
2. The structure and design of the blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only.
3. Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody permission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct — blockchain is a distributed public ledger that can be inspected by all participants but controlled by none. Statement 2 is incorrect — blockchain can store any type of data, not just cryptocurrency data (e.g., supply chain, healthcare records, smart contracts). Statement 3 is correct — blockchain is permissionless, allowing anyone to develop applications.
With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements:
1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.
2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body.
3. They can be used in biochemical sensors.
4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Carbon nanotubes can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body for targeted drug delivery (statement 1 correct). They can be made into artificial blood capillaries (statement 2 correct). While they can be used in biochemical sensors and some types are biodegradable, the official UPSC answer key indicates only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Consider the following activities:
1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field
2. Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes
3. Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis
At the present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully carried out by using drones?
All three activities can be carried out using drones. Agricultural drones are widely used for spraying pesticides (1). Drones are used to inspect dangerous volcanic craters without risking human lives (2). Researchers have used drones to collect whale blow (exhaled breath) for DNA analysis, as demonstrated by projects like the SnotBot (3).
The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft. The experiment in question refers to
Evolved LISA (eLISA/LISA - Laser Interferometer Space Antenna) is a planned space-based gravitational wave observatory by ESA. It will use three spacecraft in an equilateral triangle formation with sides of 2.5 million km (originally proposed as 1 million km), using laser interferometry to detect gravitational waves.
Consider the following statements:
1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent.
2. A person genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage.
3. Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
All three statements are correct. Germline editing can modify eggs/sperm cells (1). CRISPR-Cas9 technology allows genome editing at the embryonic stage (2), as demonstrated controversially by He Jiankui in 2018. Scientists have successfully injected human iPSCs into pig embryos to study organ development and potential xenotransplantation (3).
What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India?
1. These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis.
2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced.
3. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines (PCV) are effective against pneumonia, meningitis and sepsis caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae (statement 1 correct). By preventing infections, they reduce antibiotic dependence, helping combat antimicrobial resistance (statement 2 correct). Statement 3 is incorrect — no vaccine is completely free of side effects; PCV can cause mild reactions like fever and swelling.
In India, the term Public Key Infrastructure is used in the context of
Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a digital security framework that uses cryptographic public and private keys to secure electronic communications and transactions. In India, it is managed by the Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA) under the Information Technology Act, 2000, and is used for digital signatures, secure email, and e-governance.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference between plant and animal cells?
1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do not.
2. Plant cells do not have plasma membranes unlike animal cells which do.
3. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole whilst animal cell has many small vacuoles.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Statement 1 is correct — plant cells have rigid cellulose cell walls while animal cells lack cell walls. Statement 2 is incorrect — both plant and animal cells have plasma membranes; in plant cells, the plasma membrane is present inside the cell wall. Statement 3 is correct — mature plant cells typically have one large central vacuole, while animal cells have many small vacuoles.
Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution?
1. Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco smoke
3. Wood burning
4. Using varnished wooden furniture
5. Using products made of polyurethane
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
All five are sources of benzene exposure. Automobile exhaust contains benzene from incomplete fuel combustion (1). Tobacco smoke is a major source of benzene (2). Wood burning releases benzene (3). Varnishes on wooden furniture contain benzene-based solvents (4). Polyurethane products can release benzene during manufacturing and degradation (5).
If another global financial crisis happens in the near future, which of the following actions/policies are most likely to give some immunity to India?
1. Not depending on short-term foreign borrowings
2. Opening up to more foreign banks
3. Maintaining full capital account convertibility
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Not depending on short-term foreign borrowings would protect India from sudden capital outflows during a crisis (statement 1 correct). Opening up to more foreign banks (2) and maintaining full capital account convertibility (3) would actually increase vulnerability to global financial contagion, not provide immunity.
If you withdraw Rs. 1,00,000 in cash from your Demand Deposit Account at your bank, the immediate effect on aggregate money supply in the economy will be
Aggregate money supply (M1 = Currency with public + Demand Deposits + Other Deposits with RBI) remains unchanged when you withdraw cash from a demand deposit. The demand deposit component decreases by Rs. 1,00,000 but the currency with public increases by the same amount, leaving total M1 unchanged.
With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which one of the following is considered its major characteristic?
The major characteristic of FDI is that it is a largely non-debt creating capital flow. FDI represents equity investment by foreign entities in Indian companies, which does not create a debt obligation for the recipient country unlike external commercial borrowings. FPI (not FDI) involves investments in listed securities by institutional investors.
With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. India merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports.
2. India imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilizers and machinery have decreased in recent years.
3. India exports of services are more than its imports of services.
4. India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
NOTE: This question was DELETED by UPSC in the official answer key. India has a merchandise trade deficit as imports exceed exports (1 correct). India has a surplus in services trade (3 correct). India typically runs a current account deficit (4 correct). However, imports of iron/steel, chemicals, fertilizers and machinery have generally increased, not decreased (2 incorrect).
The term West Texas Intermediate, sometimes found in news, refers to a grade of
West Texas Intermediate (WTI) is a grade of crude oil used as a benchmark in oil pricing. It is a light, sweet crude oil sourced from the Permian Basin in West Texas, USA. Along with Brent crude, WTI is one of the two main global oil price benchmarks.
In the context of the Indian economy, non-financial debt includes which of the following?
1. Housing loans owed by households
2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards
3. Treasury bills
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Non-financial debt includes all borrowings by non-financial entities. Housing loans (1) and credit card outstanding amounts (2) are household non-financial debt. Treasury bills (3) are government debt instruments, which are also non-financial debt. All three constitute non-financial debt in the economy.
In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under IAEA Safeguards while others are not?
India agreed to place reactors using imported nuclear fuel under IAEA safeguards as part of the India-US Civil Nuclear Agreement (123 Agreement) of 2008. Reactors using domestically sourced uranium remain outside IAEA safeguards to protect India strategic nuclear programme. India has separated its civilian and military nuclear facilities.
With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMs), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Quantitative restriction on imports by foreign investors is prohibited.
2. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services.
3. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
TRIMs Agreement under WTO prohibits trade-related investment measures that are inconsistent with GATT, including quantitative restrictions (statement 1 correct). TRIMs apply only to trade in goods, not services — services are covered by GATS (statement 2 incorrect). TRIMs are not concerned with direct regulation of foreign investment itself, only with trade-distorting investment measures (statement 3 correct).
If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it not do?
1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate
3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
In an expansionist monetary policy, RBI would cut SLR to increase bank lending capacity (so cutting SLR IS something RBI would do). RBI would cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate to make borrowing cheaper (so this IS something RBI would do). However, increasing the MSF Rate would make borrowing more expensive, which is contractionary — this is what RBI would NOT do. Hence only statement 2 is what RBI would not do.
With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberalization, consider the following statements:
1. Worker productivity (per worker at 2004-05 prices) increased in urban areas while it decreased in rural areas.
2. The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce steadily increased.
3. In rural areas, the growth in non-farm economy increased.
4. The growth rate in rural employment decreased.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
After 1991 liberalization, rural non-farm economy grew significantly due to service sector expansion and rural diversification (statement 3 correct). The growth rate of rural employment declined as agriculture employment stagnated (statement 4 correct). Worker productivity increased in both rural and urban areas (statement 1 incorrect). The share of rural workforce decreased over time as urbanization increased (statement 2 incorrect).
Consider the following statements:
1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more credit in comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks.
2. One of the most important functions of DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect — Scheduled Commercial Banks deliver far more short-term credit to agriculture than DCCBs. Statement 2 is correct — DCCBs serve as the intermediary tier in the three-tier cooperative credit structure, channeling funds from State Cooperative Banks to Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) at the village level.
In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits?
1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one computer
2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant willfully damages it, if proved so
3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion
4. Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Cyber insurance typically covers: cost of restoring computer systems after malware attacks (1 correct), hiring consultants for cyber extortion incidents (3 correct), and legal defence costs for third-party suits (4 correct). Physical damage to hardware by a miscreant (2) is typically covered under property insurance, not cyber insurance.
In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture?
1. Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops
2. Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
3. Social Capital Development
4. Free electricity supply to farmers
5. Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system
6. Setting up of cold storage facilities by the governments
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Public investment in agriculture includes capital expenditure that creates productive assets. Computerization of PACS (2), Social Capital Development (3), and government cold storage facilities (6) are public investments. MSP fixation (1) is a price policy, not investment. Free electricity (4) is a subsidy. Loan waivers (5) are fiscal expenditure, not investment.
What is the importance of the term Interest Coverage Ratio of a firm in India?
1. It helps in understanding the present risk of a firm that a bank is going to give a loan to.
2. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a firm that a bank is going to give a loan to.
3. The higher a borrowing firm level of Interest Coverage Ratio, the worse is its ability to service its debt.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Interest Coverage Ratio (ICR) measures a firm ability to pay interest on its outstanding debt. It helps assess both present risk (1 correct) and emerging/future risk (2 correct) of the firm. Statement 3 is incorrect — a higher ICR means BETTER ability to service debt, not worse. A higher ratio indicates the firm earns more relative to its interest obligations.
Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past?
1. Minimum Support Price
2. Government trading
3. Government stockpiling
4. Consumer subsidies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
All four factors affect rice prices in India. MSP sets a floor price (1). The Food Corporation of India conducts government trading/procurement (2). Government maintains buffer stocks through stockpiling (3). Consumer subsidies through the Public Distribution System affect retail prices (4).
Consider the following statements:
1. The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has consistently increased in the last decade.
2. Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh.
3. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect — Indo-Sri Lanka trade has not consistently increased; it has fluctuated. Statement 2 is correct — textiles are a significant trade item between India and Bangladesh, with India exporting cotton and Bangladesh exporting ready-made garments. Statement 3 is incorrect — Bangladesh (not Nepal) has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia.
In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20?
Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey are all G20 members. In option (b), Malaysia and New Zealand are not G20 members. In option (c), Iran and Vietnam are not G20 members. In option (d), Singapore is not a G20 member.
Under the Kisan Credit Card Scheme, short-term credit support is given to farmers for which of the following purposes?
1. Working capital for maintenance of farm assets
2. Purchase of combine harvesters, tractors and mini trucks
3. Consumption requirements of farm households
4. Post-harvest expenses
5. Construction of family house and setting up of village cold storage facility
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
KCC provides short-term credit for: working capital for farm asset maintenance (1 correct), consumption needs of farm households (3 correct), and post-harvest expenses (4 correct). Purchase of heavy machinery like combine harvesters and tractors (2) requires long-term investment credit, not short-term. House construction and cold storage (5) are also not covered under short-term KCC credit.
Consider the following statements:
1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct — food has higher weightage in CPI (around 46%) compared to WPI (around 24%). Statement 2 is correct — WPI measures only goods prices while CPI includes services like housing, education, and healthcare. Statement 3 is incorrect — RBI adopted CPI (not WPI) as its key inflation measure from April 2014 under the inflation targeting framework.
Consider the following pairs:
River — Flows into
1. Mekong — Andaman Sea
2. Thames — Irish Sea
3. Volga — Caspian Sea
4. Zambezi — Indian Ocean
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Volga flows into the Caspian Sea (3 correct). Zambezi flows into the Indian Ocean via the Mozambique Channel (4 correct). Mekong flows into the South China Sea, not the Andaman Sea (1 incorrect). Thames flows into the North Sea, not the Irish Sea (2 incorrect).
Consider the following statements:
1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil-seeds, the procurement at Minimum Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any State/UT of India.
2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect — MSP procurement is not unlimited for all crops in all states. Effective procurement at MSP is largely limited to wheat and rice and concentrated in a few states like Punjab, Haryana, and Madhya Pradesh. Statement 2 is incorrect — MSP is a floor price, not a ceiling. Market prices can and do rise above MSP based on demand-supply dynamics.
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. Commercial Paper is a short-term unsecured promissory note.
2. Certificate of Deposit is a long-term instrument issued by the Reserve Bank of India to a corporation.
3. Call Money is short-term finance used for interbank transactions.
4. Zero-Coupon Bonds are the interest-bearing short-term bonds issued by the Scheduled Commercial Banks to corporations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct — Commercial Paper is a short-term unsecured promissory note issued by corporates for a maturity of 7 days to 1 year. Statement 3 is correct — Call Money is the short-term funds (overnight to 14 days) borrowed and lent in the interbank market. Statement 2 is incorrect — CDs are short-term (not long-term) instruments issued by banks (not RBI). Statement 4 is incorrect — Zero-Coupon Bonds do not bear periodic interest.
With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following pairs:
1. Parivrajaka — Renunciant and Wanderer
2. Shramana — Priest with a high status
3. Upasaka — Lay follower of Buddhism
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Parivrajaka means a renunciant wanderer or wandering ascetic (1 correct). Upasaka refers to a lay follower of Buddhism who has taken refuge in the Three Jewels (3 correct). Shramana means an ascetic or seeker, not a priest with high status (2 incorrect). Shramana refers to the non-Vedic ascetic traditions including Buddhism and Jainism.
With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements:
1. The leader of an elephant group is a female.
2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only.
4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct — elephant herds are matriarchal, led by the oldest female (matriarch). Statement 2 is correct — the gestation period of elephants is the longest of any land animal, typically 18-22 months. Statement 3 is incorrect — elephants can calve beyond 40 years, up to around 60 years. Statement 4 is incorrect — Karnataka has the highest elephant population in India, not Kerala.
Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin?
1. Nagarhole National Park
2. Papikonda National Park
3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Nagarhole National Park (Karnataka), Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu), and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) are all in the Cauvery river basin. Papikonda National Park is in Andhra Pradesh, located in the Godavari river basin, not the Cauvery basin.
With reference to India biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White-throated redstart are
All four species are birds. Ceylon frogmouth (Batrachostomus moniliger) is a nocturnal bird. Coppersmith Barbet (Psilopogon haemacephalus) is known for its metronomic call. Gray-chinned minivet (Pericrocotus solaris) is a passerine bird. White-throated redstart (Phoenicurus schisticeps) is found in the Himalayas.
Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?
Kanha National Park in Madhya Pradesh is famous for the conservation of the hard-ground Barasingha (Rucervus duvaucelii branderi). This sub-species is endemic to Kanha and is the only population of hard-ground swamp deer in the world. The Barasingha is the state animal of Madhya Pradesh. Kanha successfully brought it back from near-extinction through dedicated conservation.
Steel slag can be the material for which of the following?
1. Construction of base road
2. Improvement of agricultural soil
3. Production of cement
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Steel slag has multiple uses. It can be used as aggregate in road base construction (1 correct). It can improve agricultural soil by providing calcium, magnesium and other nutrients, and also helps in pH correction of acidic soils (2 correct). Steel slag can be used as a raw material in cement production as it contains lime and silica (3 correct).
Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat?
1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
2. Gangotri National Park
3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Manas National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Musk deer (Moschus leucogaster/chrysogaster) inhabits alpine scrub and high-altitude forests (3,000-5,000m) in the Himalayas. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary (Uttarakhand, Himalayan region) and Gangotri National Park (Uttarakhand, high Himalayas) are suitable habitats. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary (Uttar Pradesh, Terai region) and Manas National Park (Assam, foothills) are too low in altitude for musk deer.
In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint?
1. Copper slag
2. Cold mix asphalt technology
3. Geotextiles
4. Hot mix asphalt technology
5. Portland cement
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
For environmental sustainability in road construction: Copper slag (1) is an industrial waste product that can replace sand/aggregate, reducing mining. Cold mix asphalt (2) does not require heating, significantly reducing energy use and carbon emissions. Geotextiles (3) are eco-friendly materials that improve soil stability. Hot mix asphalt (4) requires high temperatures and more energy. Portland cement (5) production is carbon-intensive.
Consider the following statements:
1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.
3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
All three statements are correct. Coal ash (fly ash and bottom ash) contains toxic heavy metals including arsenic, lead and mercury (1). Coal-fired power plants are major sources of SO2 and NOx emissions (2). Indian coal, particularly from Gondwana coalfields, has high ash content ranging from 30-50%, much higher than imported coal (3).
What is the use of biochar in farming?
1. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming.
2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.
3. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it enables the growing medium to retain water for a longer time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
All three are correct. Biochar can be used in vertical farming growing media (1). Its porous structure creates habitat for nitrogen-fixing bacteria and mycorrhizal fungi (2). Biochar has excellent water retention capacity due to its porous nature, helping soil hold moisture longer (3).
If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication?
Schedule VI of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 lists specified plants. The cultivation, collection, extraction, and trade of these plants is regulated and requires a licence from the competent authority. It does not impose a total ban on cultivation but ensures regulated use to prevent overexploitation.
With reference to the period of Gupta dynasty in ancient India, the towns Ghantasala, Kadura and Chaul were well known as
During the Gupta period, Ghantasala (Andhra Pradesh), Kadura (Karnataka) and Chaul (Maharashtra) were important seaports that handled foreign trade. These ports facilitated maritime trade with Southeast Asia, the Roman Empire, and other regions, contributing to the commercial prosperity of the Gupta era.
What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?
1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of the previous crop.
2. Without the need for the nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible.
3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
All three are advantages of zero tillage. Wheat can be sown directly into rice stubble without burning residue (1 correct). Direct seeded rice (DSR) method allows planting paddy seeds directly without nursery transplanting (2 correct). Zero tillage helps in carbon sequestration by maintaining soil organic matter and reducing CO2 release (3 correct).
According to India National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels?
1. Cassava
2. Damaged wheat grains
3. Groundnut seeds
4. Horse gram
5. Rotten potatoes
6. Sugar beet
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
India National Policy on Biofuels, 2018 allows surplus food grains, damaged food grains, and non-food crops for biofuel production. Cassava (1), damaged wheat grains (2), rotten potatoes (5), and sugar beet (6) can be used. Groundnut seeds (3) are edible oil seeds, and horse gram (4) is a food grain — both are food crops not specifically designated as biofuel feedstock under the policy.
Which one of the following statements best describes the term Social Cost of Carbon?
It is a measure, in monetary value, of the
Social Cost of Carbon (SCC) is an estimate, in monetary terms, of the economic damages caused by emitting one additional tonne of CO2 into the atmosphere. It includes costs from climate change impacts such as reduced agricultural productivity, human health effects, property damage from floods, and ecosystem damage.
With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following statements:
1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crop.
2. Green gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production.
3. In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi pulses has decreased.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct — Black gram (urad) can be cultivated in both kharif and rabi seasons. Statement 2 is incorrect — Chickpea (gram/chana), not green gram, accounts for the largest share of pulse production. Statement 3 is incorrect — both kharif and rabi pulse production have shown fluctuating trends, and rabi pulses have not consistently decreased.
The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-free days and 50 to 100 centimetres of rainfall for its growth. A light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop. Which one of the following is that crop?
The description matches cotton. Cotton is subtropical, damaged by frost, requires 210 frost-free days, needs 50-100 cm rainfall, and grows best in well-drained light soils (black cotton soil/regur is ideal). Sugarcane requires tropical climate with more water. Jute needs high temperature and heavy rainfall (150-250 cm). Tea grows in hilly areas with more rainfall.
With reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements:
1. Solar power can be used for running surface pumps and not for submersible pumps.
2. Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and not the ones with a piston.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both statements are incorrect. Solar power can be used for running both surface pumps AND submersible pumps (statement 1 wrong). Solar power can run both centrifugal pumps AND piston/positive displacement pumps (statement 2 wrong). The PM-KUSUM scheme promotes solar pumps of all types in India.
With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following statements:
1. A substantial saving in seed material is made when bud chip settlings are raised in a nursery and transplanted in the main field.
2. When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with single-budded setts as compared to setts with many buds.
3. If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, single-budded setts have better survival as compared to large setts.
4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared from tissue culture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct — bud chip technology uses small chips with single buds, saving 60-70% seed material compared to conventional setts. Statement 4 is correct — tissue culture techniques are used for producing disease-free sugarcane settlings. Statement 2 is incorrect — multi-budded setts generally show better germination. Statement 3 is incorrect — larger setts with more buds have better survival under adverse conditions.
In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture?
1. Crop diversification
2. Legume intensification
3. Tensiometer use
4. Vertical farming
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
All four are eco-friendly agricultural practices. Crop diversification (1) reduces monoculture risks and improves soil health. Legume intensification (2) fixes atmospheric nitrogen, reducing fertilizer needs. Tensiometers (3) measure soil moisture tension, enabling precise irrigation and water conservation. Vertical farming (4) uses less land, water, and eliminates pesticide use.
What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture?
1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible.
2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.
4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Fertigation (applying fertilizers through irrigation) allows: controlling water alkalinity by adding acids (1 correct), increased nutrient availability as nutrients are dissolved and directly delivered to roots (3 correct), and reduced leaching as nutrients are applied in small doses precisely where needed (4 correct). Rock phosphate is not water-soluble and cannot be efficiently applied through fertigation systems (2 incorrect).
Consider the following minerals:
1. Bentonite
2. Chromite
3. Kyanite
4. Sillimanite
In India, which of the above are officially designated as major minerals?
Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, chromite (2), kyanite (3), and sillimanite (4) are classified as major minerals. Bentonite (1) is classified as a minor mineral. Major minerals are regulated by the central government while minor minerals are regulated by state governments.
With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26 degree C isotherm which is 129 meters in the south-western Indian Ocean during January-March.
2. OMT collected during January-March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Statement 2 is correct — Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) Pune developed OMT as a predictor for Indian monsoon rainfall. OMT data from January-March is used to predict monsoon performance. Statement 1 is incorrect — while OMT is measured up to the 26 degree C isotherm, the specific depth of 129 meters for the south-western Indian Ocean is not an accurate fixed value as it varies.
With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following statements:
1. At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government.
2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas.
3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect — the retail price of urea is controlled by the government under the New Urea Policy; other fertilizers like DAP and MOP are also subsidized. Statement 2 is correct — ammonia, the key input for urea production, is synthesized from natural gas through the Haber-Bosch process. Statement 3 is correct — sulphur recovered from oil refineries (desulphurization) is used to produce sulphuric acid and then phosphoric acid for fertilizers.
With reference to India Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct?
1. It is spread over two districts.
2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.
3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Statement 1 is correct — Desert National Park is spread over Jaisalmer and Barmer districts of Rajasthan. Statement 3 is correct — it is one of the last remaining natural habitats of the critically endangered Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps). Statement 2 is incorrect — there are human settlements and pastoral communities living inside and around the park.
Siachen Glacier is situated to the
Siachen Glacier is situated to the north of the Nubra Valley in the eastern Karakoram range of the Himalayas in Ladakh. It is the longest glacier in the Karakoram and the second-longest in the world non-polar areas at approximately 76 km. It is not east of Aksai Chin or Leh, and it is northeast (not directly north) of Gilgit.
With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:
Famous Place — Present State
1. Bhilsa — Madhya Pradesh
2. Dwarasamudra — Maharashtra
3. Girinagar — Gujarat
4. Sthanesvara — Uttar Pradesh
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Bhilsa (ancient Vidisha) is in Madhya Pradesh (1 correct). Girinagar (on Mount Girnar near Junagadh) is in Gujarat (3 correct). Dwarasamudra (modern Halebidu, capital of Hoysala Empire) is in Karnataka, not Maharashtra (2 incorrect). Sthanesvara (modern Thanesar, capital of Harsha) is in Haryana, not Uttar Pradesh (4 incorrect).
Consider the following statements:
1. 36% of India districts are classified as overexploited or critical by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect — the percentage varies and the classification uses assessment units, not districts, and the figure 36% is not accurate for district-level classification. Statement 2 is correct — CGWA was constituted under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Statement 3 is correct — India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation globally, using about 25% of the world total groundwater extraction.
Consider the following statements:
1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only.
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10 degrees C lesser than that of the surroundings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect — jet streams occur in both hemispheres, including the subtropical jet stream and polar jet stream in both the Northern and Southern hemispheres. Statement 2 is correct — only intense cyclones develop a well-defined eye; weaker tropical storms may not have a clear eye. Statement 3 is incorrect — the temperature inside the eye is WARMER than the surroundings due to descending dry air, not cooler.
Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under Critical Tiger Habitat?
Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana has the largest area under Critical Tiger Habitat (core area) among the given options. It spans approximately 3,296 sq km of core/critical tiger habitat, making it one of the largest tiger reserves in India.
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