Previous Year Questions
UPSC Prelims 2019 — GS Paper I
Consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
All three statements are correct. Agricultural soils contribute over 70% of N2O emissions in India. Cattle account for 80% of ammonia production. The poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds through excretion.
What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?
Aliyar (Tamil Nadu), Isapur (Maharashtra) and Kangsabati (West Bengal) are all famous water reservoirs (dams) in India.
Consider the following statements about Hydrogen-enriched Compressed Natural Gas (H-CNG):
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. H-CNG reduces CO2 and hydrocarbon emissions and hydrogen can be blended up to 18-20% by volume. It does not eliminate CO emissions entirely (statement 1 wrong) and blending hydrogen increases cost (statement 4 wrong).
Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
On cloudy nights, clouds reflect back the Earth radiation (long-wave radiation), keeping the surface warmer. Dew forms when the surface cools below the dew point, which does not happen easily on cloudy nights because the reflected radiation keeps temperatures higher.
Consider the following statements:
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect — it was the 39th Amendment (not 44th) that placed the election of PM beyond judicial review. Statement 2 is correct — the Supreme Court struck down the 99th Amendment (National Judicial Appointments Commission Act) in 2015 as violative of judicial independence.
Consider the following statements:
1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes incapacity and proved misbehaviour of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statement 3 is correct as the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 lays down the procedure for impeachment. Statement 4 is correct as removal requires a special majority in each House. Statement 1 is wrong — the Speaker can reject the motion. Statement 2 is wrong — the Constitution does not define incapacity and proved misbehaviour.
The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
The Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951, during the prime ministership of Jawaharlal Nehru. It was introduced to protect land reform laws from judicial review.
Consider the following statements:
1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Only statement 1 is correct. Coal mines were nationalized in 1971-73 under Indira Gandhi. Coal blocks are now allocated through auction (not lottery). India still imports coal and is not self-sufficient.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of Office of Profit.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term Office of Profit is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Act exempts certain offices from disqualification and has been amended five times. Statement 3 is wrong — the term Office of Profit is not defined in the Constitution; it has been interpreted through judicial pronouncements.
Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. Under its provisions, the Governor can prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of Scheduled Tribes, and any such transfer can be declared null and void.
Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) is a sustainable source of textile fibre. The fibre extracted from it is similar to linen and has been traditionally used by Himalayan communities for making cloth, ropes, and sacks.
For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?
1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
All three can be measured/estimated using satellite images and remote sensing data. Chlorophyll content is measured using vegetation indices (like NDVI), greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies can be estimated using satellite data, and land surface temperatures are routinely measured by thermal infrared sensors on satellites.
Consider the following States:
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
In terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
The correct ascending order of forest cover as percentage of total area is Maharashtra (3) < Madhya Pradesh (2) < Odisha (4) < Chhattisgarh (1). Chhattisgarh has the highest percentage of forest cover among these states.
Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of methane hydrate?
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of methane hydrate are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
All three statements are correct. Global warming can destabilize methane hydrates. Large deposits exist in Arctic permafrost and under ocean floors. Methane oxidizes to CO2 in the atmosphere over about 12 years.
Which of the following are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
All four are released during crop/biomass burning. Carbon monoxide and methane are direct combustion products. Ozone is formed as a secondary pollutant from precursors released during burning. Sulphur dioxide is released from the sulphur content in biomass.
Consider the following pairs:
1. Adriatic Sea : Albania
2. Black Sea : Croatia
3. Caspian Sea : Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea : Morocco
5. Red Sea : Syria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Albania borders the Adriatic Sea (correct). Croatia borders the Adriatic Sea, not the Black Sea (incorrect). Kazakhstan borders the Caspian Sea (correct). Morocco borders the Mediterranean Sea (correct). Syria does not border the Red Sea (incorrect).
Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
India has been the largest exporter of rice in the world. India exports both basmati and non-basmati rice and has consistently held the top position in global rice exports.
Consider the following pairs:
1. Bandarpunch : Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri : Chenab
3. Milam : Mandakini
4. Siachen : Nubra
5. Zemu : Manas
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Bandarpunch glacier is the source of Yamuna (correct). Bara Shigri glacier feeds the Chenab river (correct). Milam glacier is the source of Gori Ganga, not Mandakini (incorrect). Siachen glacier feeds the Nubra river (correct). Zemu glacier feeds the Teesta, not Manas (incorrect).
In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
Carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate, and triazophos are all organophosphate or carbamate pesticides used in agriculture. Their use is viewed with concern due to their high toxicity to humans, animals, and the environment.
Consider the following statements:
1. Under the Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Only statement 3 is correct. The Ramsar Convention does not make it mandatory to protect all wetlands — only designated Ramsar sites (statement 1 wrong). The 2010 Rules were not based on Ramsar recommendations but on domestic environmental policy (statement 2 wrong). The Rules do encompass catchment regions (statement 3 correct).
Building Kalyaana Mandapas was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of
Kalyaana Mandapas (marriage halls) were a distinctive feature of temple architecture in the Vijayanagara kingdom. The Vijayanagara rulers built elaborate temple complexes with pillared halls, gopurams, and kalyaana mandapas.
Consider the following statements:
1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as Amil.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of Mir Bakshi came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Only statement 1 is correct. The Amil was responsible for revenue collection in the Delhi Sultanate. The Iqta system was not indigenous — it was borrowed from the Abbasid Caliphate (statement 2 wrong). The office of Mir Bakshi was a Mughal institution, not from the Khalji period (statement 3 wrong).
Consider the following statements:
1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Neither statement is correct. Saint Nimbarka lived in the 13th century, long before Akbar (16th century). Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi (1564-1624) was a contemporary of Akbar and Jahangir, while Kabir lived in the 15th century — so Kabir could not have been influenced by Sirhindi.
Consider the following statements:
1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of indentured labour.
2. In Lord Chelmsford War Conference, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Gandhi played a key role in ending the indentured labour system. After the Salt Satyagraha (1930), the colonial government declared INC illegal. Statement 2 is wrong — Gandhi actually supported the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War I at the 1918 War Conference.
Consider the following pairs:
1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru : President, All India Liberal Federation
2. K.C. Neogy : Member, the Constituent Assembly
3. P.C. Joshi : General Secretary, Communist Party of India
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
All three pairs are correctly matched. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru was President of the All India Liberal Federation. K.C. Neogy was a member of the Constituent Assembly. P.C. Joshi served as General Secretary of the Communist Party of India.
With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?
The statement that Tansen was a title given by Emperor Akbar is not correct. The title Tansen was given to him by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior (or according to some sources, by Raja Man Singh Tomar). His real name was Ramtanu Pandey. He was one of the Navaratnas in Akbar court.
Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?
Jahangir shifted the emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to individual portraits and album paintings. He was a great patron of art and took special interest in naturalistic portraiture and studies of birds and flowers.
Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
Valley of Flowers National Park in Uttarakhand lies completely in the temperate alpine zone at an altitude of 3,352 to 3,658 metres. Manas is in tropical zone, Namdapha spans multiple zones from tropical to alpine, and Neora Valley is in subtropical to temperate zone.
Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) was set up under NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship in India. It manages programs like Atal Tinkering Labs and Atal Incubation Centres.
On 21st June, the Sun
On June 21 (summer solstice), the Sun does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle (66.5 degrees N). This is the longest day in the Northern Hemisphere. The Sun shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Cancer (not Equator or Capricorn).
With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?
1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Neither statement is correct. Jagirdars received land assignments in lieu of salary for military and administrative services, not just judicial and police duties. Zamindars also had military obligations beyond revenue collection. Jagir assignments were non-hereditary and frequently transferred, while Zamindar rights were generally hereditary.
With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
The major aim of land reforms in India was to provide agricultural land to the landless and reduce inequalities in land ownership. Ceiling laws initially targeted individual holdings (not family). Many exemptions were permitted, and cash crops did not become predominant due to land reforms.
The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
The Global Competitiveness Report is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF). It ranks countries based on their competitiveness using various indicators like institutions, infrastructure, macroeconomic environment, health, and education.
Consider the following statements about the Charter Act of 1813:
1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Charter Act of 1813 ended the East India Company trade monopoly except for tea and China trade. It also asserted British Crown sovereignty over Indian territories. Statement 3 is incorrect — revenues were not directly controlled by Parliament.
With reference to the Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:
1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Both statements are correct. The Swadeshi Movement (1905-1908) revived indigenous industries and artisan crafts by boycotting British goods. The National Council of Education was established in 1906 as part of the Swadeshi Movement to promote national education.
Consider the following pairs:
1. All India Anti-Untouchability League : Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha : Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self-Respect Movement : E.V. Ramaswami Naicker
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
All three pairs are correct. Mahatma Gandhi founded the All India Anti-Untouchability League in 1932. Swami Sahajanand Saraswati founded the All India Kisan Sabha in 1936. E.V. Ramaswami Naicker (Periyar) started the Self-Respect Movement in 1925.
Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
Sohgaura is not a Harappan site. It is a Mauryan-era site in Uttar Pradesh known for the Sohgaura copper plate inscription. Chanhudaro (Sindh), Kot Diji (Sindh), and Desalpur (Gujarat) are all Harappan sites.
In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is Ranyo Ashoka (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
The Kanganahalli inscriptions in Karnataka mention Ranyo Ashoka (King Ashoka) along with a stone portrait of Ashoka. This is one of the rare sculptural depictions of Emperor Ashoka found at the Kanganahalli Buddhist site.
Which of the following is/are the feature/features of Mahayana Buddhism?
1. Deification of the Buddha
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
3. Image worship and rituals
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
All three are features of Mahayana Buddhism. Mahayana Buddhism deified the Buddha, emphasized the Bodhisattva path (seeking enlightenment for the benefit of all beings), and introduced image worship and elaborate rituals — unlike Hinayana which focused on individual salvation.
With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?
During the Gupta period, Vishti (forced labour) was considered a source of income for the State and a form of tax paid by the people. It was mentioned in Gupta inscriptions as a form of taxation along with other taxes.
Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the New World and introduced into the Old World?
Tobacco, cocoa, and rubber were all domesticated in the New World (Americas) and later introduced to the Old World. Cotton originated in both the Old and New World. Coffee originated in Ethiopia (Old World). Wheat originated in the Fertile Crescent (Old World).
Consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Only statement 1 is correct. The Asiatic lion is naturally found only in India (Gir forest, Gujarat). Double-humped (Bactrian) camels are also found in Mongolia and Central Asia (statement 2 wrong). One-horned rhinoceros is found in India and Nepal (statement 3 wrong).
Consider the following pairs:
1. Pandharpur : Chandrabhaga
2. Tiruchirappalli : Cauvery
3. Hampi : Malaprabha
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Pandharpur is on the banks of Chandrabhaga (Bhima) river in Maharashtra (correct). Tiruchirappalli is on the banks of Cauvery river in Tamil Nadu (correct). Hampi is on the banks of Tungabhadra river, not Malaprabha (incorrect).
In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because
Official poverty lines are higher in some States because price levels vary from State to State. The poverty line is calculated based on the cost of a minimum consumption basket, which varies across states due to different price levels.
In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?
Cirrus cloud thinning and stratospheric sulphate aerosol injection are geoengineering techniques proposed to reduce global warming. Thinning cirrus clouds allows more long-wave radiation to escape, while sulphate aerosols reflect incoming solar radiation.
In the context of which one of the following are the terms pyrolysis and plasma gasification mentioned?
Pyrolysis and plasma gasification are waste-to-energy technologies. Pyrolysis involves thermal decomposition of materials at elevated temperatures in an inert atmosphere. Plasma gasification uses electrically charged gas (plasma) to convert waste into synthetic gas.
Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve, located at the southern tip of the Western Ghats spanning Kerala and Tamil Nadu, includes Neyyar, Peppara, and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.
Consider the following statements:
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
All four statements are correct. Green sea turtles are herbivores. Many fish species (like parrotfish and surgeonfish) are herbivores. Manatees and dugongs are herbivorous marine mammals. Some snakes like boa constrictors and sea snakes are viviparous (give live birth).
Consider the following pairs:
1. Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Blue-finned Mahseer (Tor khudree) is found in the Cauvery River (correct). Irrawaddy Dolphin is found in Chilika Lake and parts of the Ganges, not in Chambal River — Chambal has Gangetic dolphins (incorrect). Rusty-spotted Cat is found in the Eastern Ghats and other parts of India and Sri Lanka (correct).
Why is there a great concern about the microbeads that are released into environment?
Microbeads are tiny plastic particles (less than 5mm) used in cosmetics, toothpaste, and cleaning products. They are a major concern because they are harmful to marine ecosystems — they enter waterways, are ingested by marine organisms, and accumulate in the food chain.
Consider the following statements:
1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected into real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statements 3 and 4 are correct. Statements 1 and 2 have swapped definitions. AR overlays digital content on the real world (not shut out), while VR creates a fully simulated environment (shuts out the real world). Statement 3 correctly describes AR and statement 4 correctly describes VR.
The word Denisovan is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to
Denisovans are an extinct species or subspecies of archaic humans. They were discovered through DNA evidence from bones found in the Denisova Cave in Siberia, Russia. They are closely related to Neanderthals and interbred with both Neanderthals and modern humans.
With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?
The statement about creating functional chromosomes by joining DNA segments from different species is not correct in the way stated. While synthetic biology has advanced, creating fully functional chromosomes from different species DNA is not achieved. Options B, C, and D describe well-established scientific capabilities.
Consider the following statements:
A digital signature is
1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it.
2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet.
3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Only statement 3 is correct. A digital signature is an electronic method of signing a document and ensuring its integrity (that the content is unchanged). Statement 1 describes a digital certificate, not a digital signature. Statement 2 describes authentication/digital identity, not a digital signature.
In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?
1. Location identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3. Assisting the hearing impaired person
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
All three tasks are accomplished by wearable devices. GPS-enabled wearables identify location, fitness trackers and smartwatches monitor sleep patterns, and hearing aids are wearable devices that assist hearing impaired persons.
Consider the following statements:
RNA interference (RNAi) technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?
1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. RNAi is used for gene silencing therapies, cancer treatment (by silencing oncogenes), and developing virus-resistant crops. RNAi is not used for hormone replacement therapies (statement 3 wrong) — hormone replacement involves administering hormones directly.
Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant blackholes billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
The merger of giant black holes led to the detection of gravitational waves, first directly observed by LIGO in 2015. This confirmed a major prediction of Einstein general theory of relativity and opened a new era of gravitational wave astronomy.
Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
1. Genetic predisposition of some people
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Statements 2 and 3 are the reasons for multi-drug resistance. Incorrect antibiotic dosage and use of antibiotics in livestock farming contribute to antimicrobial resistance. Genetic predisposition of people (statement 1) and chronic diseases (statement 4) are not causes of drug resistance in microbial pathogens.
What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?
Cas9 is a protein that acts as molecular scissors in the CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing system. It can cut DNA at specific locations guided by RNA sequences, enabling precise gene editing for research, medicine, and agriculture.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Statement B is incorrect. Hepatitis B does have a vaccine — it has been available since 1982 and is highly effective. It is Hepatitis C that does not yet have a vaccine. All other statements are correct.
Consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Neither statement is correct. High Courts can examine the constitutional validity of central laws under Articles 226 and 227. The Supreme Court can also examine constitutional amendments under the basic structure doctrine established in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
Consider the following statements:
1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Only statement 1 is correct. PPP exchange rates are indeed calculated by comparing prices of the same basket of goods and services across countries. Statement 2 is wrong — in terms of PPP, India is the third largest economy in the world (after China and the USA), not sixth. India is sixth in nominal GDP terms.
With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Rice has the highest area under Kharif cultivation. Cotton cultivation area is more than sugarcane. Jowar area is less than oilseeds (statement 2 wrong). Sugarcane area has not steadily decreased (statement 4 wrong).
Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?
Vegetable oils (especially palm oil and soybean oil) account for the highest value among agricultural imports in India. India is one of the largest importers of edible oils in the world.
In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
The most appropriate definition of liberty in the context of polity is the opportunity to develop oneself fully. This is the positive concept of liberty, which goes beyond mere absence of restraint to include the conditions necessary for individual self-realization and development.
Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
Following an expansionary monetary policy is NOT a measure to stop the slide of the rupee. Expansionary monetary policy (increasing money supply, lowering interest rates) would actually weaken the rupee further. The other three measures would help strengthen the rupee.
Consider the following statements:
The Reserve Bank of India recent directives relating to Storage of Payment System Data, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that
1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India.
2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises.
3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Only statement 1 is correct. RBI directive requires payment system data to be stored only in India (data localization). There is no requirement for systems to be owned by PSEs (statement 2 wrong) or for audit reports to be submitted to CAG (statement 3 wrong).
Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as General Data Protection Regulation in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) was adopted by the European Union in April 2016 and came into effect on May 25, 2018. It is one of the most comprehensive data protection and privacy regulations in the world.
Recently, India signed a deal known as Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field with which of the following countries?
India signed the Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field with Russia. India and Russia have a long-standing cooperation in the nuclear energy sector, including the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant.
The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
The money multiplier increases with an increase in the banking habit of the population. When more people use banks, the currency-deposit ratio falls, which increases the money multiplier. Increasing CRR or SLR would decrease the multiplier.
The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
The Service Area Approach was introduced in 1989 as a modification of the Lead Bank Scheme. Under this approach, each bank branch in rural and semi-urban areas was designated to serve a specific area for planned and orderly development.
With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:
1. Sand is a minor mineral according to the prevailing law in the country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Sand is classified as a minor mineral under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act. State Governments can frame rules to prevent illegal mining. Statement 2 is wrong — States have the power to both grant mining leases and frame rules for minor minerals.
Consider the following statements:
1. Most of India external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2. All of India external debt is denominated in US dollars.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Neither statement is correct. Most of India external debt is owed by non-governmental (private) entities, not governmental ones. India external debt is denominated in multiple currencies including US dollars, SDR, Japanese yen, and euros — not just US dollars.
Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
Deposits are not assets of a commercial bank — they are liabilities. When customers deposit money, the bank owes that money back, making it a liability. Advances, investments, and money at call and short notice are all assets of a commercial bank.
In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?
1. The foreign currency earnings of India IT sector
2. Increasing the government expenditure
3. Remittances from Indians abroad
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Foreign currency earnings from the IT sector and remittances from Indians abroad bring in foreign exchange, reducing currency crisis risk. Increasing government expenditure (statement 2) would increase fiscal deficit and could worsen a currency crisis.
Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
The Sarkaria Commission (1983) recommended that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State, a detached figure without intense political links, and should not have taken part in politics in the recent past.
Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
Participatory Notes (P-Notes) are issued by registered Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to overseas investors who wish to invest in Indian stock markets without registering directly with SEBI. They are offshore derivative instruments with Indian shares as underlying assets.
Consider the following statements:
1. As per the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA), the authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Only statement 1 is correct. Under the CAMPA Act, 2016, the authority exists at both the National level (National CAMPA) and State level (State CAMPA). Statement 2 is wrong — there is no mandatory provision for people participation in compensatory afforestation under the Act.
In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Ad Hoc Committees set up by Parliament and Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees review independent regulators. The Finance Commission deals with fiscal federalism, not regulator review. FSLRC was a one-time body. NITI Aayog does not formally review independent regulators.
With reference to India Five-Year Plans, consider the following statements:
1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Second Five-Year Plan (Mahalanobis Model) emphasized heavy industries and import substitution. The Fourth Plan aimed to correct the concentration of wealth and economic power. Statement 3 is wrong — the financial sector was not specifically included as an integral part of the Fifth Plan in the way described.
Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. PVTGs reside in 18 States and 1 UT (Andaman and Nicobar Islands). A stagnant or declining population is a key criterion for PVTG status. Irular and Konda Reddi are PVTGs. Statement 3 is wrong — there are 75 PVTGs, not 95.
With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass any decree or order necessary for doing complete justice. The statement means that the Supreme Court, in exercising its power under Article 142, is not constrained by ordinary laws made by Parliament.
With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Governor makes a customary address to members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Both statements are correct. Under Article 176, the Governor addresses the State Legislature at the commencement of the first session each year. When a State Legislature lacks rules on a matter, it follows the rules of the Lok Sabha as per convention and practice.
Consider the following statements:
1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air.
2. The UNCAC is the first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statements 2 and 4 are correct. UNCAC is the first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. UNODC assists in implementing both UNCAC and UNTOC. Statement 1 is wrong — the Protocol against Smuggling of Migrants is under UNTOC, not UNCAC. Statement 3 is wrong — asset recovery chapter is in UNCAC, not UNTOC.
Consider the following statements:
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, bamboo is classified as a minor forest produce, and forest dwellers have ownership rights over minor forest produce. Statement 1 is wrong — the 2018 amendment to the Indian Forest Act removed bamboo grown in non-forest areas from the definition of tree, but bamboo in forest areas remains regulated.
Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one right to marry the person of one choice?
Article 21, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to include the right to marry a person of one choice. This was affirmed in several judgments including Lata Singh vs State of UP and Shafin Jahan vs Asokan K.M.
Consider the following statements:
According to the Indian Patents Act,
1. a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Only statement 3 is correct. Plant varieties are not eligible for patent in India under the Patents Act. Statement 1 is wrong — biological processes for creating seeds are not patentable. Statement 2 was debatable at the time — the IPAB existed when the exam was held (it was abolished later in 2021).
Consider the following statements:
The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to
1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought.
2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Only statement 2 is correct. The EPA, 1986 empowers the government to lay down standards for emission or discharge of pollutants. Statement 1 is not a specific power granted under the EPA — public participation requirements come from EIA notifications, not directly from the Act itself.
As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 provide elaborate criteria for identification of landfill and waste processing facility sites. Waste is segregated into three categories, not five (option A wrong). The Rules apply to all areas including rural (option B wrong). There is no such restriction on inter-district movement (option D wrong).
Consider the following statements:
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018:
1. If rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers.
2. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Both statements are correct. The 2018 amendment introduced fixed-term employment provisions which make it easier for companies to lay off workers as employment ends automatically at the term end. The rules also state that no notice of termination is necessary for temporary workmen.
With reference to the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements:
1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Only statement 1 is correct. AIIB has more than 80 member nations. China (not India) is the largest shareholder with about 26.6% voting share (statement 2 wrong). AIIB has many non-Asian members including UK, Germany, France, and Brazil (statement 3 wrong).
What was the purpose of the Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?
The Inter-Creditor Agreement was signed to enable faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more under consortium lending. It was part of the Project Sashakt framework for NPA resolution, requiring lenders to agree on a resolution plan within a specified timeframe.
The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the
The Banks Board Bureau (BBB) selects and recommends candidates for the positions of Chairmen and Managing Directors of public sector banks. BBB was set up in 2016 based on the recommendations of the P.J. Nayak Committee.
Consider the following statements:
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. PNGRB ensures competitive markets for gas. Appeals against PNGRB decisions go to APTEL (Appellate Tribunal for Electricity). Statement 1 is wrong — PNGRB (established 2006) is not the first regulatory body; SEBI and TRAI were established earlier.
With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?
1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Neither statement is correct. LTE is commonly marketed as 4G (not 3G), and VoLTE is not marketed as advanced 3G. LTE is primarily a data technology, but VoLTE is not voice-only — VoLTE enables voice calls over the LTE data network along with simultaneous data usage.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Only statement 3 is correct. Women with two or more children get reduced maternity leave of 12 weeks (compared to 26 weeks for the first two children). Statement 1 is wrong — the leave is 26 weeks total, not three months pre and post-delivery each. Statement 2 is wrong — the Act allows four creche visits daily, not six.
Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank Ease of Doing Business Index?
Maintenance of law and order is not a sub-index of the Ease of Doing Business Index. The 10 sub-indices include: Starting a business, Dealing with construction permits, Getting electricity, Registering property, Getting credit, Protecting minority investors, Paying taxes, Trading across borders, Enforcing contracts, and Resolving insolvency.
In India, extended producer responsibility was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) was introduced as a key feature in the e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011. EPR makes producers responsible for the environmentally sound management of their products after end-of-life.
The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
The economic cost of food grains to FCI includes MSP + bonus paid to farmers + procurement incidentals (mandi charges, labour, transport to godowns, etc.) + distribution cost (freight, handling, transit losses, etc.). It is not limited to only transportation or interest costs.
In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?
Social capital refers to the networks of relationships among people who live and work in a particular society, including the level of mutual trust and harmony. Literacy is human capital, buildings and infrastructure are physical capital, and working-age population is a demographic indicator.
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