UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 8 November 2026
Test Your Knowledge
11 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 11
1 An 'other traditional forest dweller' must have primarily resided in, and depended on, the forest for at least three generations prior to 13 December 2005, a generation being a period of twenty-five years.
2 Under section 6 of the Act, the decision of the Gram Sabha on a claim is final and binding.
3. 'Minor forest produce' under the Act includes all non-timber forest produce of plant origin.
4 The Central Empowered Committee, first constituted on the direction of the Supreme Court, is now a permanent authority under a notification issued under section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 2(o) requires residence ‘for at least three generations prior to the 13th day of December, 2005’, and a generation means twenty-five years, so 75 years.
Statement 2Incorrect
The Gram Sabha initiates the process, a Sub-Divisional Level Committee examines it, and the decision of the District Level Committee is ‘final and binding’.
Statement 3Correct
Section 2(i) defines it as ‘all non-timber forest produce of plant origin’.
Statement 4Correct
The CEC was set up by a Supreme Court order of 9 May 2002 and made a permanent authority by a notification of 5 September 2023 under section 3(3).
Analysis
In its order of 6 November 2026 on Megamalai (2026 INSC 1204), the Supreme Court applied this residence test and asked the CEC for its opinion on silk cotton.
Concept note
The Act recognises two groups. Forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes are Scheduled Tribe members who ‘primarily reside in and who depend on the forests or forest lands for bona fide livelihood needs’ (section 2(c)); other traditional forest dwellers must meet the three-generation test of section 2(o).
In Megamalai, Tamil Nadu, the State’s own affidavit listed 4,594 persons in three categories: permanent residents, temporary residents and those living outside the forest boundary. The Court held that persons in the second and third categories ‘cannot, on the basis of such cultivation alone, qualify as FDST or OTFD’, and excluded them from consideration.
Its view that a planned commercial crop such as silk cotton cannot be a forest right is a prima facie view; the question of whether silk cotton is minor forest produce is now with the CEC. As the State’s counsel requested, the Court set up a Special Committee headed by Justice B.R. Gavai, former Chief Justice of India, to scrutinise orders under the Act and report in sealed cover.
The State has 30 days to form the remaining Gram Sabhas, and claims are to be decided within five months of their constitution.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 welfare of Scheduled Tribes and forest dwellers, the judiciary and statutory bodies; GS3 conservation and tiger reserves. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** residence test, three-tier adjudication, beneficial legislation, critical tiger habitat. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** treating the Gram Sabha as the final authority; it initiates, and the District Level Committee decides. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** section 2(c) is the Scheduled Tribe dweller, section 2(o) the other traditional dweller (75 years before 13 December 2005), section 6 the procedure. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** should a person who cultivates forest land but lives outside the forest have any claim under the Act? |
Question 2 of 11
1 The Srivilliputhur-Megamalai Tiger Reserve forms the upper catchment of the Vaigai River.
2 The Agasthyamalai Ecological Landscape lies wholly within Tamil Nadu.
3 The Reserved Forest holding the Megamalai silk cotton plantations was finally notified under the Tamil Nadu Forest Act, 1882.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The reserve ‘forms the upper catchment of the Vaigai River, a critical water source for five downstream districts’, as the CEC’s interim report records.
Statement 2Incorrect
The landscape covers 3,500.36 sq km across Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
Statement 3Correct
According to the State’s affidavit quoted in the Order, the Reserved Forest holding the silk cotton trees of Megamalai Village, over 24,600 hectares, was finally notified under section 16 of the Tamil Nadu Forest Act, 1882, by G.O. Ms. No. 118 of 9 September 2009.
Analysis
These places sit at the centre of the Supreme Court’s Megamalai order of 6 November 2026, which said the sanctity of the critical tiger habitat ‘has to be given primacy’ over any claim that would encroach on the forest.
Concept note
The Agasthyamalai Ecological Landscape lies in the southern Western Ghats. According to the CEC’s interim report of 10 July 2025, it covers Tirunelveli, Tenkasi, Kanyakumari, Theni and Dindigul in Tamil Nadu, and Thiruvananthapuram, Kollam, Pathanamthitta and Idukki in Kerala.
It includes the Periyar Tiger Reserve, the Srivilliputhur Grizzled Squirrel Wildlife Sanctuary, and the Meghamalai and Thirunelveli Wildlife Sanctuaries. Megamalai (also spelt Meghamalai) is in Theni district, the district named in the Court record, and the town of Srivilliputhur gives the tiger reserve the first half of its name.
The Vaigai matters because the reserve is its upper catchment, so the protection of the forest is also a question of water for the plains. On a map, place Megamalai west of Madurai, Periyar to its west, and the Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve to the south.
The Supreme Court’s first judgment in this case, of 29 May 2026 (2026 INSC 605), dealt with encroachment across the Agasthyamalai landscape; the November order is its second stage, on forest-rights claims in Megamalai.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 physical geography of the Western Ghats and river catchments; GS3 protected areas and conservation. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** upper catchment, landscape-level conservation, reserved forest, inter-State landscape. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** reading the Agasthyamalai landscape as a Tamil Nadu unit; it spans Tamil Nadu and Kerala. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** learn each protected area with its river, its district and its neighbours; Megamalai with Theni, the Vaigai and Periyar. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** should a river’s catchment count for more than a district boundary when a forest is managed? |
Question 3 of 11
1 The offence of money-laundering under section 3 includes projecting or claiming the proceeds of crime as untainted property.
2 Under section 44(1)(b), a Special Court may take cognizance of the offence of money-laundering upon a complaint made by an authority authorised in this behalf under the Act.
3 Under section 66(2), the Enforcement Directorate may itself take up the investigation of a contravention of any other law that it comes across.
4 Section 66(2) has been part of the Act since it was first enacted.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 3 covers ‘any process or activity connected with the proceeds of crime including its concealment, possession, acquisition or use and projecting or claiming it as untainted property’.
Statement 2Correct
This is the ED’s own route to prosecution for money-laundering.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Director ‘shall share the information with the concerned agency for necessary action’; the Act does not let the ED investigate the other offence itself.
Statement 4Incorrect
Section 66(2) was inserted in 2018.
Analysis
On 6 November 2026, a single judge of the Karnataka High Court (NC: 2026:KHC:61902) held that ‘Filing of a private complaint by the ED is not contemplated under the PMLA’.
Concept note
Money-laundering needs a predicate or scheduled offence, the crime that produces the ‘proceeds of crime’. The police or another agency investigates that offence, not the ED.
Justice M.I. Arun’s judgment made two holdings. First, ‘The power of the ED is derivative and not original’, so once the predicate offence ends, even on a technical ground such as want of sanction, PMLA proceedings cannot continue.
The Court relied on Vijay Madanlal Choudhary v Union of India, (2023) 12 SCC 1. Second, when the ED shares information under section 66(2) and the police do not act, the ED cannot file a private complaint under Section 200 Cr.P.C. or Section 223 of the BNSS: ‘The ED is not a super cop to investigate anything and everything which comes into its notice.’ The Court applied the rule that ‘where an act is to be done in a particular way, it must be done in that way and in no other way’.
It is a single-judge High Court ruling, not settled law across India.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 money-laundering and its prevention; GS2 statutory bodies, separation of powers and judicial review of agencies. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** predicate offence, derivative power, proceeds of crime, inter-agency referral. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** reading section 66(2) as a power to investigate; it is a duty to share information with the agency concerned. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** section 3 is the offence, section 44(1)(b) the ED’s complaint to a Special Court, section 66(2) the duty to share. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** if the police ignore the ED’s information on a serious offence, what remedy should exist, and who should hold it? |
Question 4 of 11
1 Association allows entities of an associated country to participate in programme actions on equal terms with entities of EU countries, and is covered in Article 16 of the Horizon Europe Regulation.
2 An associated country provides a financial contribution to the EU budget, based on an international agreement with the EU.
3 The European Innovation Council falls under Pillar I, Excellent Science.
4 Canada and the Republic of Korea are associated to Pillar II of the programme.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The European Commission calls association ‘the closest form of cooperation with non-EU countries’, on equal terms, under Article 16 of the Regulation.
Statement 2Correct
This is the price of association.
Statement 3Incorrect
The European Innovation Council and the EIT fall under Pillar III, Innovative Europe; Pillar I covers the European Research Council, Marie Sklodowska-Curie Actions and research infrastructures.
Statement 4Correct
Canada was associated to Pillar II on 3 July 2024 and Korea on 17 July 2025.
Analysis
PIB said on 7 November 2026 that India and the EU had completed negotiations. Concluded talks are not association: signature, ratification and entry into force are still to come.
Concept note
Horizon Europe is the EU’s research and innovation programme for 2021-2027, with an indicative budget of EUR 93.5 billion. Pillar II, Global Challenges and European Industrial Competitiveness, runs through thematic clusters such as Health; Digital, Industry and Space; and Climate, Energy and Mobility, and it is the scope of the EU’s negotiating mandate for India.
Today Indian participants are not automatically eligible for funding and bring their own; association would let Indian researchers receive funding directly and lead projects, in return for a contribution whose size has not been made public. The track ran from the EU-India Summit of 27 January 2026, through exploratory talks from 6 February and formal negotiations from 17 July, to concluded talks.
Japan shows the gap between the two steps: its talks concluded in December 2025 and it became associated on 30 July 2026. As reported by ANI, India’s association is envisaged to take effect in January 2027, once signed and ratified; that is a plan, not a fact.
The successor programme for 2028-2034, with EUR 175 billion, is only a Commission proposal.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 India-EU relations and agreements involving India; GS3 international research cooperation and funding of R&D. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** association, Pillar II, equal terms, financial contribution, talent mobility. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** writing that India has joined Horizon Europe; negotiations are concluded, and signature and ratification remain. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Pillar I Excellent Science (ERC, MSCA), Pillar II Global Challenges (clusters), Pillar III Innovative Europe (EIC, EIT); EUR 93.5 billion for 2021-2027. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** is paying into a foreign research programme a better use of money than raising India’s own research budget? |
Question 5 of 11
1 IS 17021 is the Bureau of Indian Standards specification for ethanol-blended motor gasoline.
2 The Motor Spirit and High Speed Diesel (Regulation of Supply, Distribution and Prevention of Malpractices) Order, 2005 was issued under the Petroleum Act, 1934.
3 Under IS 17021, the prescribed methods for determining ethanol content include Fourier Transform Infrared Spectroscopy, water extraction and gas chromatography.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas release carries the oil marketing companies’ clarification that E20 supplied by the three public sector oil marketing companies ‘conforms to IS 17021, the Bureau of Indian Standards specification for ethanol-blended motor gasoline’.
Statement 2Incorrect
The Order of 2005 was issued under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955, read with the Marketing Discipline Guidelines 2024.
Statement 3Correct
Under IS 17021:2018 (Amendment No. 3, August 2025), ethanol content is determined by FTIR (ASTM D5845), water extraction (Annex C) or gas chromatography (ASTM D4815/D6839).
Analysis
The Ministry’s release of 7 November 2026 answered a Karnataka department’s claim that petrol at certain outlets contained between 26% and 31% ethanol; the Centre and the oil companies dispute that claim.
Concept note
E20 is petrol blended with ethanol, and the Ministry puts the prescribed ethanol content range at 19-21%. The release reports 893 samples from IOCL (330), BPCL (280) and HPCL (283) depots and outlets across 27 States and Union Territories, all within that range; all 56 samples tested in Karnataka recorded 19% to 20%, with an average of 19.30%.
These are the oil companies’ own tests, in refinery and company laboratories. PIB says the certificates cited by Karnataka mention ‘Ethanol % by Gas Chromatography’ without the standard method, dilution procedure or reference material, so the figures ‘cannot be independently validated’ against the prescribed method.
That is not the same as saying they have been disproved. On cost, the Ministry says a blanket 10% mileage loss ‘does not constitute a scientifically established assessment’, and, citing its response of 12 August 2025, puts the loss at about 1 to 2% for vehicles calibrated for E20 and about 3 to 6% for certain others.
The oil companies have asked Karnataka for its sampling documents and for joint testing at an authorised laboratory. A dispute of this kind is settled by the prescribed method, not by competing press releases.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 energy, biofuels and standards; GS2 Centre-State relations and consumer protection. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** ethanol blending, fuel quality standard, prescribed test method, joint sampling. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** tying fuel supply regulation to the Petroleum Act; the 2005 Order rests on the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** BIS sets the standard (IS 17021); the supply Order rests on the Essential Commodities Act, 1955; E20 means 19-21% ethanol. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** when a State and the Centre publish contradictory fuel tests, how should a citizen know whom to believe? |
Question 6 of 11
1 Under Article 75(1), the other Ministers of the Union are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
2 Under Article 75(1A), the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent of the total number of members of the House of the People.
3 Under Article 164(1A), the number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a State shall not be less than twelve.
4 Ministers in a State hold office during the pleasure of the Chief Minister.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
This is the text of Article 75(1).
Statement 2Correct
This is Article 75(1A).
Statement 3Correct
The proviso to Article 164(1A) sets a floor of twelve, alongside the cap of fifteen per cent of the Legislative Assembly.
Statement 4Incorrect
Under Article 164(1), Ministers ‘shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor’.
Analysis
On 6 November 2026, the Supreme Court dismissed a PIL seeking guidelines to keep persons facing serious criminal charges out of ministerial posts, Bar & Bench reported. The petitioner said it sought no new disqualification under Articles 75 and 164.
Concept note
Articles 75 and 164 leave the choice of Ministers to the Prime Minister and the Chief Minister, with formal appointment by the President and the Governor. The cap of fifteen per cent, with a floor of twelve in the States, limits the size of the Council of Ministers but says nothing about the record of a person chosen.
In the PIL, as Bar & Bench reported the hearing, the petitioner asked that the discretion in selecting ministers and assigning portfolios be ‘guided by certain standards of prudence’. Justice Joymalya Bagchi remarked, 'What you are arguing is constitutional morality.
It is not binding,’ and observed that criminal law is often ‘weaponised’ against people in politics. These remarks were oral; no written order has been seen, and the Court laid down nothing on whether such persons can be Ministers.
Counsel cited an ADR analysis of 2025: of 4,092 MLAs analysed, 1,861 had declared criminal cases and 1,205 serious criminal cases. In an answer, separate what the Constitution provides (appointment on advice, a size limit) from what it leaves to political judgment (who is chosen).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 the Union and State executive, criminalisation of politics, judicial restraint; GS4 constitutional morality and public life. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** aid and advice, pleasure doctrine, constitutional morality, criminalisation of politics. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** assuming the fifteen per cent cap applies only to the Union; Article 164(1A) applies it to the States too, with a floor of twelve. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 75 is the Union, Article 164 the States; both appoint on advice and hold office during pleasure. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** should a court ever tell a Prime Minister whom not to appoint, or is that for voters alone? |
Question 7 of 11
1 Before declaring a site to be of national importance under section 4, the Central Government gives two months' notice of its intention by notification in the Official Gazette.
2 Section 4 applies only to monuments already deemed to be of national importance under section 3.
3 A notification under section 4(3) is, unless and until it is withdrawn, conclusive evidence that the site is of national importance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 4(1) requires ‘two months’ notice of its intention’, and a copy is affixed in a conspicuous place near the site.
Statement 2Incorrect
Section 4 applies to an ancient monument or archaeological site and remains ‘not included in section 3’.
Statement 3Correct
This is section 4(4).
Analysis
A Ministry of Culture gazette notification dated 4 November 2026 declared the Ranivas Mound at Kesariya, in East Champaran district of Bihar, to be of national importance under section 4(3), The Hindu (PTI) reported on 7 November.
Concept note
Section 4 sets out a fixed sequence. The Central Government first gives two months’ notice of its intention by notification in the Official Gazette (section 4(1)).
Any person interested may object within two months (section 4(2)). On the expiry of that period, the Centre may, after considering the objections, declare the site to be of national importance by a further notification (section 4(3)), which is conclusive evidence of that status until it is withdrawn (section 4(4)).
In the Kesariya case, as reported, the site is spread over 1.63 acres and is owned by the Bihar government; copies of the notice were made available to the public on 8 June 2026, and ‘no objection has been received’. The power to declare lies with the Central Government, not the State, even where the land belongs to the State.
A declared site then falls under the Act’s protection, which is why the notice and objection stage matters to owners and residents nearby.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 Indian heritage and its conservation; GS2 statutory procedure and Centre-State roles. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** national importance, notice and objection, conclusive evidence, archaeological site and remains. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** assuming a site is protected from the first notice; the final declaration comes only under section 4(3), after the two months. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** section 4(1) notice, 4(2) objections within two months, 4(3) declaration, 4(4) conclusive evidence. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** how should the protection of a mound be balanced with the needs of people who live and farm around it? |
Question 8 of 11
1 The Rajatarangini, a twelfth-century historical chronicle, was written by Kalhana.
2 The Arthashastra is attributed to Kautilya.
3 An inscription on UNESCO’s Memory of the World Asia-Pacific Regional Register is the same as an inscription on the international Memory of the World Register.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Kalhana’s Rajatarangini is a 12th-century historical chronicle.
Statement 2Correct
The Arthashastra is Kautilya’s.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Asia-Pacific Regional Register is a regional register, distinct from the international Memory of the World Register.
Analysis
PTI reported on 5 November 2026, citing the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts, that manuscripts of the Mahabharata, the Rajatarangini and the Arthashastra had been inscribed on the Asia-Pacific Regional Register.
Concept note
UNESCO’s Memory of the World programme lists documentary heritage, such as manuscripts and archives, rather than monuments or living traditions. Its registers work at more than one level, and the Asia-Pacific Regional Register is one of them; an aspirant should name the register exactly.
According to the PTI report, the decision was taken at the 11th Session of the Memory of the World Asia-Pacific Regional Register in Jakarta, Indonesia, and the three entries take India’s total in the Regional Register to six. PIB Culture posted on X that the three works ‘have been inscribed in @UNESCO’s Memory of the World Asia-Pacific Regional Register’, PTI reported.
The three texts span different kinds of writing: an epic, a historical chronicle and a treatise on statecraft, which is why each is a favourite of questions on ancient Indian sources. The Rajatarangini is often cited as an early work of history writing in India, and the Arthashastra as a source on administration and economy.
Keep the inscription itself as reported until a UNESCO page confirms it, and keep the regional register apart from the international one.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 ancient Indian literature and historical sources; GS1 heritage and international recognition. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** documentary heritage, historical chronicle, manuscript conservation, regional register. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** calling a regional inscription a listing on the international Memory of the World Register. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** pair each text with its author and kind: Rajatarangini (Kalhana, chronicle), Arthashastra (Kautilya, statecraft). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** what does India gain from listing manuscripts on international registers, if the manuscripts themselves are not digitised and read? |
Question 9 of 11
1 If more than six months elapse from the date of the reception of a Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed by it, the President may notify an intention to summon a joint sitting.
2 The provision for a joint sitting does not apply to a Money Bill.
3 The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides over a joint sitting.
4 The Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002 was passed at a joint sitting after the Rajya Sabha had rejected it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
This is Article 108(1)(c); the other two grounds are rejection of the Bill and final disagreement on amendments.
Statement 2Correct
The proviso says ‘nothing in this clause shall apply to a Money Bill’.
Statement 3Incorrect
‘The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting’, under Article 118(4).
Statement 4Correct
The Lok Sabha’s record shows the Rajya Sabha rejected the motion to consider the Bill, and the third joint sitting, on 26 March 2002, passed it.
Analysis
An Indian Express column of 8 November 2026 recalls how the Vajpayee government dropped Clause 3(8) of the 2001 ordinance, which had punished failure to give information to the police, before the Bill went to that sitting.
Concept note
Under Article 108(4), a Bill at a joint sitting is passed ‘by a majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting’, which is why a government with a large Lok Sabha majority can overcome a hostile Rajya Sabha on an ordinary Bill. The Lok Sabha records joint sittings on only three occasions: on 6 and 9 May 1961, on the Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1959; on 16 May 1978, on the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1977; and on 26 March 2002, on the Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002.
The Prevention of Terrorism Ordinance was promulgated on 24 October 2001, and a Second Ordinance on 30 December 2001. In the Rajya Sabha on 21 March 2002, a resolution of disapproval was adopted by 113 votes to 98, and the joint sitting passed the Bill by 425 votes to 296, The Tribune reported.
The Act (Act 15 of 2002) received assent on 28 March 2002 and was repealed by Act No. 26 of 2004. Its Section 14 let the investigating officer, with prior written approval of an officer not below the rank of Superintendent of Police, require any officer, authority or individual to furnish information relating to the offence.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 Parliament, legislative procedure and bicameralism; GS3 internal security laws. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** deadlock between Houses, joint sitting, ordinary Bill, special security legislation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** thinking the Rajya Sabha Chairman presides because the Vice-President is involved; the Speaker presides under Article 118(4). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** three grounds under Article 108(1); no joint sitting for a Money Bill; passed by a majority of both Houses together, present and voting. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** does the joint sitting weaken the Rajya Sabha as a chamber of the States, or protect majority rule? |
Question 10 of 11
Statement-I: The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 substituted clause (j) of section 8(1) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, so that it now refers to 'information which relates to personal information'.
Statement-II: Under section 17 of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, certain of its provisions do not apply where personal data is processed in the interest of prevention, detection, investigation or prosecution of any offence.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Section 44(3) of the 2023 Act made this substitution in the RTI Act.
Statement IICorrectDoes not explain Statement I
Section 17 is the Act’s list of exemptions from its own duties, and it does not deal with the RTI Act at all. The two provisions answer different questions: what a public authority may refuse to disclose, and where the Act’s duties do not apply.
Analysis
The Indian Express column of 8 November 2026 links the 2001 POTO episode to a challenge to the DPDP Act by the Digital News Publishers Association, which says the Act has no written carve-out for journalists.
Concept note
The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 is Act No. 22 of 2023; it received assent on 11 August 2023. Section 17 lists situations in which parts of the Act do not apply, such as processing ‘in the interest of prevention, detection, investigation or prosecution of any offence’.
The list names no exemption for journalism, which is the narrower point the petitioners make. Section 44(3) changes the RTI Act, which matters for the press because it narrows what can be sought about persons.
The Constitution has no separate press-freedom clause: the press works under the freedom of speech and expression in Article 19(1)(a), subject to the reasonable restrictions of Article 19(2). A three-judge Bench presided over by the Chief Justice of India has issued notice, and the matter is listed for hearing on 17 November 2026; the column reports no stay.
The column’s parallel is that in 2001 the press won by a change in the text, when Clause 3(8) of the ordinance was dropped, and not by an assurance. The assurance the column says the Centre gave in an August 2026 meeting is the column’s account.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 fundamental rights, the RTI Act and the press; GS3 data protection and cyber governance. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** personal data, purpose-based exemption, right to information, chilling effect. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** assuming the DPDP Act exempts journalism; section 17 lists no such exemption. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** DPDP Act is Act 22 of 2023 (assent 11 August 2023); section 17 is exemptions, section 44(3) amends RTI section 8(1)(j). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** who should count as a journalist, if a data law were to exempt journalism? |
Question 11 of 11
1 Members of the House of Representatives are chosen every second year.
2 A presidential veto is overridden by a two-thirds vote of the members of both Houses of Congress sitting together.
3 The President makes treaties with the advice and consent of the Senate, provided two-thirds of the Senators present concur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article I, Section 2 provides for Members ‘chosen every second Year by the People of the several States’.
Statement 2Incorrect
Under Article I, Section 7, two-thirds of each House must agree separately; there is no joint vote.
Statement 3Correct
This is Article II, Section 2.
Analysis
Democrats won control of both chambers in the midterm elections of 3 November 2026, AP reported, but on the counts of 6 November they lack two-thirds in either House, so the veto still stands as a check on Congress.
Concept note
A midterm falls halfway through the President’s four-year term (Article II, Section 1). It elects the whole House of Representatives but only one-third of the Senate, since Senators serve six years and one-third are chosen every second year (Article I, Section 3).
The veto override needs two-thirds of each House: 290 of 435 in the House and 67 of 100 in the Senate. The power of the purse is in Article I, Section 9: ‘No Money shall be drawn from the Treasury, but in Consequence of Appropriations made by Law.’ The House has the sole power of impeachment, and the Senate tries impeachments, convicting by two-thirds of the members present.
The Senate’s consent to appointments, such as Judges of the Supreme Court, carries no two-thirds bar in the text. Contrast India: a deadlock between the Houses on an ordinary Bill is resolved by a joint sitting under Article 108, and under Article 111 the President may assent, withhold assent or return a Bill (not a Money Bill) once for reconsideration; there is no two-thirds override.
In short, a Democratic Congress can block, delay and bargain, but it cannot write its own policy into law against the President.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 comparison of the Indian constitutional scheme with other countries; GS2 India-US relations. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** separation of powers, divided government, veto override, power of the purse. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** assuming the US Congress settles a veto in a joint vote, as India’s Parliament settles a deadlock at a joint sitting; each House votes separately. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** House every two years; Senate six years, one-third every two years; veto override two-thirds of each House; treaties two-thirds of Senators present. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** does divided government in Washington make the United States a more or less predictable partner for India? |
Performance
Question-wise Result