UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 1 November 2026
Test Your Knowledge
11 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 11
1 Entry 53 of the State List empowers a State Legislature to levy taxes on the generation, consumption and sale of electricity.
2 Water, including water storage and water power, is a State List subject, but it is subject to the Union List entry on the regulation and development of inter-State rivers and river valleys.
3 Under Article 248, the residuary power of Parliament includes the power to impose a tax not mentioned in either the State List or the Concurrent List.
4 Article 287 permits a State to tax electricity consumed by the Government of India, provided the State Legislature passes a law for it.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
Entry 53 of List II reads ‘Taxes on the consumption or sale of electricity’; generation is not named, and the High Court of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh held that no State List entry allows a tax on generation.
Statement 2Correct
Entry 17 of List II covers ‘water storage and water power subject to the provisions of entry 56 of List I’.
Statement 3Correct
Article 248 read with Entry 97 of List I gives Parliament ‘any tax not mentioned in either of those Lists’.
Statement 4Incorrect
Article 287 bars, rather than permits, a State tax on electricity consumed by or sold to the Government of India, or consumed in running railways, ‘Save in so far as Parliament may by law otherwise provide’; a State law alone cannot lift the bar.
Analysis
the J&K and Ladakh High Court struck down water usage charges on hydropower projects as, in substance, a tax on generation. Entry 17 is a subject entry, not a taxing entry, so it could not save the levy.
Concept note
The Seventh Schedule separates two kinds of entry: subject entries, which let a legislature regulate a field, and taxing entries, which let it raise money. A State may legislate on water and water power (List II, Entry 17), but a tax needs its own taxing entry.
For electricity, the State’s taxing entry is Entry 53, which covers consumption or sale only. Anything not enumerated in Lists II or III, including any tax not mentioned in them, falls to Parliament under Article 248 and Entry 97 of List I, which is why the Union of India and the Ministry of Power argue that a tax on generation lies outside State competence.
Article 265 adds that no tax may be levied or collected except by authority of law, and Article 287 creates a further limit by exempting electricity consumed by or sold to the Government of India and electricity used in running railways. In October 2026 the J&K and Ladakh High Court applied these rules to the Jammu and Kashmir Water Resources (Regulation and Management) Act, 2010, holding that its adoption under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 did not cure a law that was beyond competence when it was made.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 federal structure and distribution of legislative powers; GS3 energy, hydropower and resource mobilisation by States. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** legislative competence, taxing entry versus subject entry, residuary power, pith and substance. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** reading Entry 17 (water power) as a power to tax hydropower; it is a subject entry, and Entry 53 taxes only consumption or sale of electricity. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** memorise Entry 53 word for word and pair it with Article 287 and Article 248 with Entry 97 of List I. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** should hill States that host hydro projects get a constitutional share in the value their water creates? |
Question 2 of 11
Statement-I: An increase in the surcharge on Union income tax enlarges the divisible pool of taxes shared with the States.
Statement-II: Under Article 271 of the Constitution, the whole proceeds of a surcharge levied for purposes of the Union form part of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement IIncorrect
The Sixteenth Finance Commission’s report describes the divisible pool as the Union’s tax revenues ‘excluding cesses, surcharges, taxes accruing to the Union Territories (UTs), and the cost of collection’, so a higher surcharge adds nothing to the States’ share.
Statement IICorrect
Article 271 lets Parliament increase taxes ‘by a surcharge for purposes of the Union and the whole proceeds of any such surcharge shall form part of the Consolidated Fund of India’.
Analysis
Statement-II is in fact the reason
Statement IIncorrect
This is why the size of the pool matters as much as the 41 per cent share; the Centre released an additional devolution instalment of Rs 1,09,019 crore on 31 October 2026.
Concept note
Article 270 governs the sharing of Union taxes: all taxes and duties in the Union List, except those under Articles 268, 269 and 269A, surcharges under Article 271 and cesses levied for specific purposes, are levied and collected by the Government of India and distributed between the Union and the States. The Finance Commission, constituted by the President under Article 280 every fifth year or earlier, with a Chairman and four other members, recommends the vertical split (the States’ share of the divisible pool) and the horizontal split (each State’s share).
The Sixteenth Finance Commission, chaired by Dr. Arvind Panagariya and covering 2026-27 to 2030-31, recommended that the States’ share be retained at 41 per cent, and the Government accepted it. Grants-in-aid under Article 275(1) are a separate channel: they are sums Parliament provides to States in need of assistance, not a share of taxes.
On 31 October 2026 the Union released an additional instalment of tax devolution of Rs 1,09,019 crore, the second additional instalment of 2026-27, in addition to the regular monthly devolution, ahead of the festive season and to speed up capital spending.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 Union-State financial relations and the Finance Commission; GS3 government budgeting and resource mobilisation. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** divisible pool, vertical devolution, cesses and surcharges, fiscal federalism. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** assuming that every rupee of Union tax is shareable; cesses and surcharges stay with the Union. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 270 (shared taxes), Article 271 (surcharge for the Union), Article 275(1) (grants), Article 280 (Finance Commission). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** should the Constitution cap the share of cesses and surcharges in the Union’s gross tax revenue? |
Question 3 of 11
1 Per capita GSDP distance (income distance) carries the highest weight among the criteria.
2 Population is measured by the 2011 Census.
3 Tax and fiscal effort is one of the criteria in the formula.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Table 8.8 of the Commission’s report gives per capita GSDP distance 42.5 per cent, the largest weight.
Statement 2Correct
The population criterion is Population (2011), weighted 17.5 per cent.
Statement 3Incorrect
Table 8.8 lists only six criteria (population, demographic performance, area, forest, per capita GSDP distance and contribution to GDP); tax and fiscal effort, which the Fifteenth Finance Commission weighted at 2.5 per cent, is not among them.
Analysis
the new contribution to GDP criterion, at 10 per cent, rewards States that add more to national output, while income distance still sends more money to poorer States. The equity-efficiency balance is the core of the horizontal debate.
Concept note
Devolution has two stages. The vertical stage fixes the States’ share of the divisible pool, retained at 41 per cent by the Sixteenth Finance Commission and accepted by the Government.
The horizontal stage divides that share among the States by a weighted formula. The Sixteenth Commission’s weights (Table 8.8) are: per capita GSDP distance 42.5, population (2011) 17.5, demographic performance 10, area 10, forest 10 and contribution to GDP 10, totalling 100.
Compared with the Fifteenth Commission, as summarised by PRS, income distance falls from 45 to 42.5, population rises from 15 to 17.5, demographic performance falls from 12.5 to 10, area falls from 15 to 10, forest stays at 10, tax and fiscal effort (2.5) is dropped, and contribution to GDP is added. The Commission was constituted by Notification S.O. 5533(E) of 31 December 2023 and submitted its report on 17 November 2025; its award covers 1 April 2026 to 31 March 2031.
Each State’s devolution equals its inter se share times the amount released, which is why Uttar Pradesh (17.619 per cent) received the largest amount in the 31 October 2026 instalment.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 Finance Commission and fiscal federalism; GS3 public finance and regional disparity. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** horizontal devolution, equity versus efficiency, demographic performance, contribution to GDP. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** carrying the Fifteenth Commission’s tax and fiscal effort criterion into the Sixteenth Commission’s formula. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** learn the six criteria and their weights as a set: 42.5, 17.5, 10, 10, 10, 10. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** does a contribution to GDP criterion reward richer States at the cost of poorer ones? |
Question 4 of 11
1 It came into existence through the Bangkok Declaration.
2 Its Permanent Secretariat is located in Kathmandu.
3 Myanmar and Thailand are its two members from South-East Asia.
4 The BIMSTEC Charter has been adopted but is yet to enter into force.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
MEA records that the organisation ‘came into existence on 6 June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration’, first as BIST-EC.
Statement 2Incorrect
The Permanent Secretariat was set up in Dhaka in 2014; Kathmandu hosted the 2018 Summit.
Statement 3Correct
Five members are from South Asia (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka) and two from South-East Asia (Myanmar, Thailand).
Statement 4Incorrect
The Charter, adopted at the Colombo Summit of March 2022, came into force on 20 May 2024.
Analysis
the inaugural BIMSTEC Maritime Security Exercise, being conducted from 30 October to 3 November 2026 (PIB), gives the India-led Security pillar a shared activity at sea.
Concept note
BIMSTEC is a grouping of seven countries lying in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal, linking South Asia with South-East Asia. It began on 6 June 1997 as BIST-EC (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand); Myanmar joined on 22 December 1997 and Bhutan and Nepal in 2004.
Decisions are taken by consensus. The Permanent Secretariat has worked in Dhaka since 2014, and the BIMSTEC Charter, which MEA calls a milestone in its transition from a grouping into a regional organisation, came into force on 20 May 2024.
Cooperation is organised in seven pillars, each led by one member; India leads the Security pillar, with counter-terrorism and transnational crime, disaster management and energy security as its sub-sectors. Six Summits have been held: Bangkok 2004, New Delhi 2008, Nay Pyi Taw 2014, Kathmandu 2018, Colombo 2022 and Bangkok 2025.
The sixth, on 4 April 2025, adopted the Bangkok Vision 2030 and saw the signing of the BIMSTEC Maritime Transport Agreement. The first maritime security exercise follows the Expert Group on Maritime Security Cooperation, which in November 2025 discussed the feasibility of maritime exercises.
Bhutan and Nepal, the two landlocked members, depend on the Bay for their EXIM trade.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 regional groupings and India’s neighbourhood; GS3 maritime security. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Act East and Neighbourhood First, Bay of Bengal community, consensus-based regionalism, maritime domain awareness. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** placing the Secretariat in Bangkok or Kathmandu; Bangkok gave the 1997 Declaration, Kathmandu hosted the 2018 Summit, the Secretariat is in Dhaka. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** members, Secretariat, Charter in force (2024) and India’s lead pillar (Security) are the four facts to fix. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** can BIMSTEC do for the Bay of Bengal what SAARC could not do for South Asia? |
Question 5 of 11
1 The Ten Degree Channel separates the Andaman group of islands from the Nicobar group.
2 The Andaman Sea lies to the west of the island arc and the Bay of Bengal to its east.
3 Indira Point, the southernmost point of India, lies on Great Nicobar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The islands are grouped into the Andaman Islands in the north and the Nicobar Islands in the south, separated by the Ten Degree Channel, about 150 km wide by the A&N Administration’s figure.
Statement 2Incorrect
The order is reversed; the islands lie between the Bay of Bengal to the west and the Andaman Sea to the east, and their arc marks the boundary between the two.
Statement 3Correct
Indira Point, on the southern tip of Great Nicobar, is the southernmost point of India.
Analysis
the inaugural BIMSTEC Maritime Security Exercise began at Sri Vijaya Puram (formerly Port Blair), as the host command’s statements are reported, and PIB says the exercise ‘highlights the strategic importance of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and the role of the Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC)’, whose location is ‘astride critical sea lanes of communication’.
Concept note
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands number 836 islands and islets over 8,249 sq km, of which only 31 are permanently inhabited, according to the A&N Administration. They extend from about 6 to 14 degrees North and 92 to 94 degrees East, forming an arc of about 1,000 km between Myanmar and Sumatra (Indonesia) that separates the Bay of Bengal from the Andaman Sea.
The Ten Degree Channel divides the Andaman group in the north from the Nicobar group in the south. Indira Point, at 6 degrees 45 minutes North on Great Nicobar, is India’s southernmost point.
The capital, Sri Vijaya Puram, was renamed from Port Blair in September 2024; it lies about 1,190 km from Chennai and 1,255 km from Kolkata. The Andaman and Nicobar Command, created on 8 October 2001, is described by PIB as India’s first integrated tri-service command; PIB adds that its location astride critical sea lanes of communication and its capabilities in maritime surveillance, disaster relief and search and rescue make it ‘an important pillar of maritime security in the Bay of Bengal’.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 physical geography of India’s islands; GS3 maritime security and the Andaman and Nicobar Command. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** sea lanes of communication, island territories, maritime domain awareness, strategic outposts. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** swapping the sides: the Bay of Bengal is to the west of the islands, the Andaman Sea to the east. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** locate the Ten Degree Channel, Indira Point and Sri Vijaya Puram on an outline map. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** how should India balance the strategic development of the islands with their fragile ecology and tribal communities? |
Question 6 of 11
Statement-I: Only Parliament can make a law on the conduct of the population census in India.
Statement-II: 'Census' is an entry in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Parliament has exclusive power to make laws on matters in List I, and the census is taken under a central law, the Census Act, 1948, with the Census Rules, 1990.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
Entry 69 of List I (Union List) reads simply ‘Census.’, so the subject belongs to Parliament alone, not to the Concurrent List.
Analysis
The Hindu’s explainer on Census 2027 Phase II shows why central control of the count matters: a caste question beyond SC and ST, an optional Aadhaar field and a large field force of enumerators trained through a four-tier cascade.
Concept note
The Census is a Union subject (List I, Entry 69). Under section 3 of the Census Act, 1948, the Central Government declares its intention to take a census by notification in the Official Gazette.
Section 8 binds a person asked a census question to answer to the best of his or her knowledge or belief, though its proviso spares anyone from stating the name of a female member of the household, and a woman from naming her husband. Section 15 keeps census records from inspection and makes them inadmissible as evidence in any civil proceeding, or in any criminal one other than a prosecution under the census law.
The count is run by the Registrar General of India and Census Commissioner under the Ministry of Home Affairs. Census 2027 runs in two phases: Houselisting (April to September 2026) and Population Enumeration, due in February 2027 with a reference date of 00:00 hours of 1 March 2027.
Ladakh and the snow-bound areas were counted first, and Goa, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and the non-snow-bound areas of Uttarakhand are to be counted from 1 December 2026. The Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs decided on 30 April 2025 to include caste enumeration, which the Government noted had been excluded from all census operations since Independence.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 population and social diversity; GS2 statutory framework of a Union subject and data governance. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** caste enumeration, confidentiality of census data, reference date, self-enumeration. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** placing the Census in the Concurrent List, or the Registrar General under MoSPI; it is Entry 69 of the Union List, and the office is under the Ministry of Home Affairs. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Census 2027 has three reference dates: 1 October 2026, 5 January 2027 and 1 March 2027. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** how would you persuade a hesitant household to answer sensitive census questions without overstating how the data will be used? |
Question 7 of 11
1 The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 bars any worker from being required or allowed to work more than eight hours in a day.
2 Under the same Code, overtime is paid at twice the ordinary rate of wages and is subject to the consent of the worker.
3 Welfare of labour, including conditions of work, is a subject in the Concurrent List.
4 The Right to Disconnect Bill, 2025, which seeks to let employees ignore work communication after hours, is a Government Bill introduced by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 25(1) of the OSH Code says no worker shall be required or allowed to work for more than eight hours in a day.
Statement 2Correct
Section 27 provides overtime at twice the rate of wages, subject to the consent of the worker.
Statement 3Correct
Entry 24 of List III reads ‘Welfare of labour including conditions of work, provident funds, employers’ liability, workmen’s compensation, invalidity and old age pensions and maternity benefits.’
Statement 4Incorrect
PRS lists the Right to Disconnect Bill, 2025 as a private member’s bill introduced by Supriya Sule on 5 December 2025, and it is pending.
Analysis
Amit Kumar’s column in The Indian Express argues that the limits in law reach few private offices and rest on a consent that is hard to withhold.
Concept note
The four Labour Codes (the Code on Wages, 2019, the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, the Code on Social Security, 2020 and the OSH Code, 2020) were made effective from 21 November 2025, rationalising 29 earlier labour laws; the OSH Code repealed the Factories Act, 1948 among 13 enactments. The Code fixes the day limit (eight hours, section 25), allows no more than six working days in a week (section 26) and makes overtime paid at double the rate and consensual (section 27).
The 48-hour weekly ceiling and the cap of 144 overtime hours a quarter come from the OSH (Central) Rules, 2026 (G.S.R. 345(E), 8 May 2026), which bind only establishments for which the Centre is the appropriate Government: railways, mines, oil fields, major ports, air transport, telecom, banks and insurers. Factories and most other establishments fall under State rules, because labour is a Concurrent subject (List III, Entries 22 and 24) on which both Parliament and the States legislate under Article 246(2).
The Industrial Relations Code’s definition of worker excludes those employed mainly in a managerial or administrative capacity and supervisors drawing over Rs 18,000 a month. India has no statutory right to disconnect; the 2025 Bill seeking one is a private member’s bill.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 employment and labour reforms; GS2 protection of vulnerable workers and private members' bills; GS4 consent under unequal power. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** appropriate Government, consent-based overtime, fixed-term employment, right to disconnect. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** locating the 48-hour week in the OSH Code itself; the Code fixes eight hours a day and six days a week, and the 48-hour week is in the Central Rules of 2026. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** know OSH Code sections 25, 26 and 27, and Entries 22 and 24 of the Concurrent List. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** should India legislate a right to disconnect, or leave after-hours work to employers and employees? |
Question 8 of 11
1 Under the Indian Electricity Grid Code, 2023, the National Reference Frequency is 50.000 Hz and the allowable band is 49.900 to 50.050 Hz.
2 The National Load Despatch Centre is provided for under section 26 of the Electricity Act, 2003.
3 Grid Controller of India Limited (Grid-India), formerly the Power System Operation Corporation Limited (POSOCO), operates the National Load Despatch Centre and the Regional Load Despatch Centres.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Regulation 30(1) of the Grid Code, as quoted by CERC, says ‘The National Reference Frequency shall be 50.000 Hz and the allowable band of frequency shall be 49.900-50.050 Hz.’
Statement 2Correct
The NLDC is a body under section 26 of the Electricity Act, 2003.
Statement 3Correct
PIB announced in November 2022 that POSOCO had become Grid Controller of India Limited, which operates the NLDC and five Regional Load Despatch Centres.
Analysis
an Indian Express explainer on Sri Lanka’s October 2026 blackout, whose cause is still under inquiry, shows why the band matters: rooftop inverters that disconnect together when frequency dips can deepen the fall.
Concept note
An alternating-current grid stays stable only while supply matches demand second by second, and frequency is the signal of that balance: it falls when supply drops below demand and rises when supply runs ahead. India’s Grid Code, specified by the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission under section 79(1)(h) of the Electricity Act, 2003, sets a reference frequency of 50.000 Hz and a narrow allowable band.
The Central Electricity Authority specifies technical standards for connectivity to the grid and the Grid Standards under section 73. Operation is in tiers: the National Load Despatch Centre, five Regional Load Despatch Centres run by Grid-India, and the State Load Despatch Centres.
Rooftop solar, a non-dispatchable source, feeds the grid through inverters that disconnect when voltage or frequency leaves set limits; the CEA’s 2013 regulations on connecting distributed generation set frequency trip limits at 50.5 Hz and below 47.5 Hz, which a licensee may narrow. Under Frequency Load Shedding automatically cuts selected loads when frequency falls.
Under PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, 14.8 GW of rooftop capacity had been commissioned, per a PIB release of 13 August 2026. Sri Lanka’s experience shows that the settings in the field, and who audits them, matter as much as the rules.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 infrastructure (energy) and renewable integration; GS2 India’s neighbourhood (Sri Lanka). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** grid frequency, non-dispatchable generation, ride-through, under frequency load shedding. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** confusing CERC (regulator, specifies the Grid Code) with CEA (technical standards and Grid Standards) and with Grid-India (system operator). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** remember the band 49.900 to 50.050 Hz and the three tiers NLDC, RLDC, SLDC. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** should India slow its rooftop solar push to protect grid stability, or speed up inverter standards instead? |
Question 9 of 11
Statement-I: A levy collected for general public purposes, with no specific service rendered to the payer in return, is in the nature of a tax even if the statute calls it a charge.
Statement-II: A fee, unlike a tax, is a compulsory exaction for public purposes that involves no element of quid pro quo.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Courts look at the substance of a levy, not its label; the J&K and Ladakh High Court held, as Bar & Bench reports it, that water usage charges on hydropower, which involved no element of quid pro quo, were ‘nothing but a tax’.
Statement IIIncorrect
It describes a tax, not a fee. A tax is a compulsory exaction for public purposes and is not payment for services rendered, as the headnote of the Shirur Mutt case (1954) puts it; a fee is a payment for a special service or benefit, so quid pro quo is its mark.
Analysis
the Court noted that the charge was set by the height of the water’s fall, not by the quantity supplied, and that the Union Territory had no obligation to incur expenditure on the hydro projects, so no service matched the money.
Concept note
The tax-fee distinction decides which entry of the Seventh Schedule a levy must fall under. The State List has separate taxing entries (such as Entry 53 for taxes on the consumption or sale of electricity) and subject entries (such as Entry 17 on water), so a levy labelled a fee or a charge that in substance is a tax must find a taxing entry, or it fails.
The headnote of the Shirur Mutt case (1954) describes a tax as a compulsory exaction of money by public authority for public purposes, enforceable by law and not a payment for services rendered, and a fee as a charge for a special service. Article 265 adds that no tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law.
Applying the test, the J&K and Ladakh High Court found that the water usage charges under the 2010 Act went to a fund for building and buying power projects and transmission networks, not to a service for the hydro producers, who use water without consuming it and return it to the river. It held the charges to be a tax on the generation of electricity, beyond the State Legislature’s competence, and quashed the demand notices.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 judicial review and legislative competence; GS3 fiscal policy and the investment climate. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** quid pro quo, substance over form, tax versus fee, ultra vires. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** treating any levy named a charge or fee as a fee; courts test whether a specific service matches the money. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** pair Article 265 (no tax without authority of law) with the Shirur Mutt definitions. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** if a State cannot tax hydropower generation, what lawful route remains for it to share in hydro revenue? |
Question 10 of 11
1 The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 formed the new States of Kerala, Mysore and Madhya Pradesh with effect from 1 November 1956.
2 Haryana was formed on 1 November 1966 under the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966.
3 Kannada Rajyotsava marks the formation in 1956 of a new State that was named Karnataka at its creation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Act defines the ‘appointed day’ as the 1st day of November, 1956, and sections 5, 7 and 9 say that from that day there shall be formed new States to be known as Kerala, Mysore and Madhya Pradesh.
Statement 2Correct
The appointed day of the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966 (Act No. 31 of 1966) was 1 November 1966, the day Haryana came into being.
Statement 3Incorrect
The 1956 Act formed the State of Mysore; Kannada Rajyotsava marks that formation, but the State was not called Karnataka in 1956.
Analysis
1 November 2026 is the 70th anniversary of the 1956 Act’s appointed day, and the Prime Minister greeted Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Keralam, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu on their formation days.
Concept note
The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 (Act No. 37 of 1956) redrew India’s internal map on largely linguistic lines. From its appointed day, 1 November 1956, it formed new States including Kerala, Mysore and Madhya Pradesh, which is why Keralappiravi, Kannada Rajyotsava and Madhya Pradesh’s foundation day all fall on 1 November.
A decade later, the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966 carved Haryana out of Punjab with effect from 1 November 1966. Tamil Nadu marks 1 November as the day Madras State was formed, and in July 2026 its Chief Minister announced that the State would also mark 18 July, the day the Legislative Assembly resolved to name it Tamil Nadu.
For Prelims, the trap is the name: the 1956 Act speaks of the State of Mysore, not Karnataka, and Kannada Rajyotsava marks that 1956 formation.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 post-independence consolidation and reorganisation of States; GS2 federal structure and formation of new States. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** linguistic reorganisation, appointed day, unity in diversity, administrative efficiency. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** writing that Karnataka was formed in 1956; the 1956 Act formed Mysore. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 1 November is the formation day of Kerala, Karnataka (as Mysore), Madhya Pradesh and Haryana (1966). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** should language remain the main basis for drawing State boundaries in India? |
Question 11 of 11
1 The Geological Survey of India is an attached office of the Ministry of Mines.
2 Exemptions from customs duty on imports, such as the one on cotton, are notified by the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance.
3 The NVS-03 navigation satellite was launched by the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
PIB describes the GSI as ‘an attached office of the Ministry of Mines’; Dinesh Vitthalrao Ganvir has taken charge as its 55th Director General.
Statement 2Correct
The extension of the cotton import exemption to 31 December 2026 was notified by the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, through Notification No. 35/2026-Customs of 30 October 2026, though the Ministry of Textiles announced it.
Statement 3Incorrect
NVS-03 flew on GSLV-F18, the 20th flight of the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle, from Sriharikota on 30 October 2026.
Analysis
the tempting error in Statement 2 is to credit the sector ministry; customs notifications come from the Department of Revenue.
Concept note
These three items test which body does what. The Geological Survey of India, an attached office of the Ministry of Mines, carries out mineral exploration; its new Director General is tasked with intensifying exploration for critical and strategic minerals and delivering auction-ready blocks, and PIB records that 202 of the blocks covered by its recent reports and memorandums pertained to critical minerals, of which 40 have been auctioned.
Customs duty exemptions are issued as notifications by the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance; the cotton exemption, which was to end on 31 October 2026, now runs two months longer, to help the textile sector get cotton at competitive prices while, the Ministry of Textiles said, balancing the interests of domestic cotton farmers. NVS-03 belongs to India’s regional navigation system, NavIC.
ISRO launched it on GSLV-F18 from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota, completed its first orbit manoeuvre on 31 October 2026, and plans further manoeuvres to place it in its designated geosynchronous orbital slot at 111.75 East. NVS-01, NVS-02 and NVS-03 have been launched, while NVS-04 and NVS-05 are in the pipeline.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 mineral resources and critical minerals; GS3 trade policy and the textile sector; GS3 space technology. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** critical minerals exploration, auction-ready blocks, input-cost relief, indigenous navigation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** crediting a customs exemption to the sector ministry that announces it, or pairing NVS satellites with PSLV. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** GSI under the Ministry of Mines; customs notifications from the Department of Revenue; NVS satellites on GSLV. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** should India keep cutting import duty on cotton when domestic farmers want higher prices? |
Performance
Question-wise Result