UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 25 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
15 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 15
1 The Integrated Atmospheric Chemistry and Aerosol Toxicity Analysis Laboratory (AATAL) has been set up at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology’s Delhi Branch under Mission Mausam.
2 In source apportionment, receptor models use the chemical and physical make-up of pollutants measured at a site to identify sources, while dispersion models work from emission estimates, weather and chemical transformation.
3 Under the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP), curbs are invoked only after Delhi’s Air Quality Index has actually reached the level of a stage.
4 AATAL is owned and run by the Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR and Adjoining Areas (CAQM).
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
AATAL was opened at IITM’s Delhi Branch and has been set up under Mission Mausam, which is implemented primarily by IMD, IITM and NCMRWF.
Statement 2Correct
Receptor models infer sources from measurements at a site; dispersion models estimate them from emissions, weather and chemistry.
Statement 3Incorrect
GRAP actions are invoked in advance of the AQI reaching a stage’s level, based on the dynamic model and the forecasts of IMD and IITM.
Statement 4Incorrect
AATAL is at IITM’s Delhi Branch, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, and was set up under Mission Mausam; PIB names CAQM among the agencies it will serve, not as its owner or operator.
Analysis
Dr. Jitendra Singh, Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology and Earth Sciences, inaugurated AATAL on 24 October 2026. The AQI tells a regulator how much pollution is in the air; source apportionment tells it what the air contains and where it comes from. The release describes AATAL as the world’s first facility of its kind; that is the government’s own description.
Concept note
The Air Quality Index reports pollution in six categories, from Good to Severe. The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) ties curbs to Delhi’s AQI in four stages: Stage I Poor (201-300), Stage II Very Poor (301-400), Stage III Severe (401-450) and Stage IV Severe + (above 450).
Under the schedule revised in September 2026 it carries 48 actions, invoked in advance on forecasts; Stage III actions, for example, come on top of those of Stages I and II. The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) is a statutory body set up under an Act of 2021; its five ex officio members are Chief Secretaries or Secretaries of Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
Mission Mausam was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2024 with an outlay of Rs 2,000 crore over two years. AATAL is linked to IITM’s AIRWISE system, whose forecasts are given at a resolution of 400 metres for the next 72 hours.
Under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP), launched in January 2019, source studies found road and construction and demolition dust to be major sources of PM10, almost 40-50 per cent in most cities, the government told Parliament in July 2025.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 environmental pollution (GRAP, NCAP); GS3 science and technology in everyday life; GS2 statutory bodies (CAQM) ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** source apportionment, composition and toxicity, forecast-based GRAP, airshed management ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** thinking GRAP waits for the AQI to cross a stage; its actions are invoked in advance on forecasts ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** AATAL: IITM Delhi Branch, Ministry of Earth Sciences, Mission Mausam; CAQM is its user, not its owner ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Delhi has had source studies before. What would make a new laboratory change policy rather than add data? |
Question 2 of 15
1 Article 324, which vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission, came into force on 26 November 1949, before the rest of the Constitution.
2 The Representation of the People Act, 1950 deals with the actual conduct of elections, while the Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals with electoral rolls and the delimitation of constituencies.
3 The minimum voting age at the time of the first General Election was 18 years.
4 For the first General Election, the Election Commission was a multi-member body of a Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 324 was brought into force on 26 November 1949, ahead of the rest of the Constitution, which came into force on 26 January 1950.
Statement 2Incorrect
The two Acts are swapped; the 1950 Act deals with electoral rolls and delimitation, and the 1951 Act with the actual conduct of elections.
Statement 3Incorrect
The voting age was 21; it became 18 under the Sixty-first Amendment, in force from 28 March 1989.
Statement 4Incorrect
For these elections the Commission was the Chief Election Commissioner alone; the Commission’s 1955 report notes that no other Election Commissioner had been appointed by then.
Analysis
Polling in the first General Election began 75 years ago, on 25 October 1951, in Himachal Pradesh. The RPA 1951 was enacted only in July 1951, a few months before polling began.
Concept note
The Constitution’s electoral scheme rests on three Articles. Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of electoral rolls, and of elections to Parliament, the State Legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President, in the Election Commission.
Article 326 provides for adult suffrage, and Article 327 lets Parliament make laws on all matters relating to elections. Parliament legislated in two stages: the Representation of the People Act, 1950 mainly covered the preparation of electoral rolls and the delimitation of constituencies, and the Representation of the People Act, 1951, enacted in July 1951, covered the actual conduct of elections.
The Office of the Election Commission was set up on 25 January 1950, the date now marked as National Voters’ Day, and Sukumar Sen assumed charge as Chief Election Commissioner on 21 March 1950. The Commission’s report recorded 17,32,13,635 electors, excluding Jammu and Kashmir, about 45 per cent of them women, and an overall voting of 51.15 per cent in the elections to Parliament.
The elections were held under the First-Past-The-Post system. The Lok Sabha was duly constituted for the first time on 17 April 1952, and G.V. Mavalankar was its first Speaker.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 Representation of the People Acts and constitutional bodies; GS1 post-independence consolidation ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** universal adult franchise, institution building, electoral integrity, Article 324 ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** swapping the two RPAs; RPA 1950 is rolls and delimitation, RPA 1951 is the conduct of elections ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 324 in force 26 November 1949; voting age 21 until the Sixty-first Amendment made it 18 ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Was it wise to hold the first election by adult suffrage when the voting age was 21 and the electorate over 17 crore? |
Question 3 of 15
Statement-I: In India’s first General Election of 1951-52, voters did not have to mark their ballot papers.
Statement-II: The Election Commission assigned a separate ballot box, with a different mark on each box, to every candidate, so that the ballot paper was only a token.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Voters did not mark a ballot in 1951-52.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
The Commission assigned a separate ballot box to each candidate, with a different mark on each box, the ballot paper being, in the Commission’s words, ‘a mere token not requiring any marking by the voter’. A voter chose a candidate by choosing the box.
Analysis
The design suited an electorate of over 17 crore enrolled adults. The same flexibility showed in the calendar: the Chini and Pangi constituencies of Himachal Pradesh polled first, from 25 October 1951, so that polling could be completed before the snowfall usual there in early November.
Concept note
The first General Election was administered at a scale no one had attempted before. The Commission’s Report on the First General Elections in India 1951-52, published in 1955, records 1,32,560 polling stations with 1,96,084 polling booths.
Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies polled in the same exercise. The first notifications were issued on 10 September 1951 for Himachal Pradesh; the last polling for the Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies ended in Uttar Pradesh on 21 February 1952, and the whole programme, up to the West Bengal Legislative Council election, ended on 4 June 1952.
In Himachal Pradesh, polling was spread over 37 days, with actual polling on only 17 days. Reservation was carried mostly through multi-member seats.
There were 314 single-member, 86 two-member and 1 three-member parliamentary constituencies; all 72 Scheduled Caste seats and 16 of the 26 Scheduled Tribe seats were in multi-member constituencies, and the other 10 Scheduled Tribe seats in single-member ones. North Bengal was the only three-member constituency.
The Commission’s book Leap of Faith sets the 120 days the 1951-52 poll took against the 19 days of the next General Election, in 1957. Shyam Saran Negi, a schoolteacher from Kalpa, is recognised as independent India’s first voter.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 post-independence consolidation; GS2 electoral administration and the Election Commission ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** electoral administration, inclusive voting design, simultaneous Lok Sabha and Assembly polls, institution building ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** assuming the first election used a marked ballot; it used a separate box and symbol for each candidate ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 1951-52: a separate ballot box per candidate; polling began in Chini and Pangi, Himachal Pradesh ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What can the Election Commission of today learn from the way the first election adapted to its voters and terrain? |
Question 4 of 15
1 The Regional Specialised Meteorological Centre (RSMC), New Delhi gives a name to a system only once its wind speed reaches 34 knots.
2 A deep depression is a stronger system than a cyclonic storm.
3 A cyclonic storm has wind speeds of 34-47 knots (62-88 kmph).
4 A very severe cyclonic storm has wind speeds of 64-89 knots.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
RSMC New Delhi names a system once its wind speed reaches 34 knots, the cyclonic-storm threshold.
Statement 2Incorrect
In IMD’s classes a deep depression has winds of 28-33 knots, below the cyclonic storm’s 34-47 knots, so it is the weaker stage.
Statement 3Correct
A cyclonic storm is 34-47 knots, or 62-88 kmph.
Statement 4Correct
A very severe cyclonic storm is 64-89 knots, or 118-166 kmph.
Analysis
A depression formed over the Bay of Bengal on 24 October 2026. IMD forecasts that it is very likely to intensify into a very severe cyclonic storm and cross the Andhra Pradesh and Yanam coasts between Bapatla and Visakhapatnam by the forenoon of 28 October, with winds of 115-125 kmph gusting to 140 kmph (the lower end of that forecast sits just under the class’s 118 kmph floor). That is a forecast; the bulletin calls the system only a Depression, and it has no name yet.
Concept note
IMD grades a cyclonic disturbance by its wind speed, and each stage has its own band: a deep depression is 28-33 knots, a cyclonic storm 34-47 knots (62-88 kmph), and a very severe cyclonic storm 64-89 knots (118-166 kmph). The order of intensification runs from a low-pressure area to a depression, then a deep depression, a cyclonic storm, a severe cyclonic storm and a very severe cyclonic storm.
A name is given only at the cyclonic-storm stage, 34 knots, by RSMC New Delhi. Warnings are issued in steps: for the present system IMD has issued a Cyclone Alert, an Orange Message, for Andhra Pradesh and the adjoining south Odisha coasts, forecast extremely heavy rainfall at isolated places, and advised fishermen not to venture into the sea off the Andhra Pradesh-Odisha coasts on 27 and 28 October.
IMD has issued red alerts for 28 October in 12 Andhra Pradesh districts and five Odisha districts, and educational institutions in five Odisha districts will be closed on 28 and 29 October. For Mains, the chain from forecast to warning to State preparedness is the core of cyclone disaster management.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 important geophysical phenomena (cyclones); GS3 disaster management ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** early warning, landfall forecast, cyclone preparedness, RSMC New Delhi ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** ranking a deep depression above a cyclonic storm; the cyclonic storm (34-47 knots) is the stronger stage ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** names come only at 34 knots; very severe cyclonic storm is 64-89 knots ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should a State order evacuations on a forecast that IMD itself calls only 'very likely'? |
Question 5 of 15
1 The Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA) and the Cauvery Water Regulation Committee (CWRC) were constituted by a Union government notification to give effect to the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal’s decision as modified by the Supreme Court.
2 The Supreme Court’s 2018 verdict increased Karnataka’s normal-year delivery to Tamil Nadu from 177.25 TMC to 192 TMC.
3 Karnataka’s delivery of Cauvery water to Tamil Nadu is measured at Biligundlu.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The CWMA and the CWRC were constituted by a Union government gazette notification dated 1 June 2018, to give effect to the Tribunal’s decision as modified by the Supreme Court’s order of 16 February 2018.
Statement 2Incorrect
The direction of the change is reversed; the verdict reduced the normal-year delivery from 192 TMC to 177.25 TMC.
Statement 3Correct
The delivery is measured at Biligundlu.
Analysis
The CWRC has directed Karnataka to ensure 3,000 cusecs at Biligundlu for 15 days from 24 October 2026, about 3.88 tmcft, and the CWMA upheld the direction at its 60th meeting, The Hindu reported. Tamil Nadu had sought far more, and Karnataka cited a deficit year; those figures are the two States’ submissions, not the committee’s findings.
Concept note
The Cauvery dispute shows how a tribunal award becomes a working arrangement. The Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal gave its decision, which the Supreme Court modified in its order of 16 February 2018; the verdict reduced the total normal-year delivery from Karnataka to Tamil Nadu, measured at Biligundlu, from 192 TMC to 177.25 TMC.
To give effect to it, the Union government constituted the Cauvery Water Management Authority and the Cauvery Water Regulation Committee by a gazette notification dated 1 June 2018. In the present case the CWRC issued a short-term flow direction and the CWMA upheld it: a direction of 3,000 cusecs at Biligundlu for 15 days, upheld at the CWMA’s 60th meeting after the CWRC’s 145th.
In deficit years the dispute turns on competing figures: Karnataka points to low inflows into its reservoirs and drought-affected taluks; Tamil Nadu to a claimed backlog. For Mains, the case is a study in water federalism: standing bodies that turn an award into short-term decisions.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 federal structure and inter-State water disputes; GS1 rivers of peninsular India ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** water federalism, distress sharing, tribunal award, CWMA and CWRC ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** thinking the 2018 verdict raised Tamil Nadu’s share; it reduced the normal-year delivery to 177.25 TMC ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CWMA and CWRC constituted 1 June 2018; delivery measured at Biligundlu ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should distress-year sharing of a river be decided by a formula fixed in advance rather than by fortnightly directions? |
Question 6 of 15
Statement-I: An Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) system boosts the underwater endurance of diesel-electric submarines.
Statement-II: AIP works by letting a submerged submarine draw in more atmospheric oxygen.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
In PIB’s words, the AIP system ‘boosts the underwater endurance of the diesel-electric submarines’.
Statement IIIncorrect
AIP does the opposite; it works ‘by reducing its dependence on atmospheric oxygen’. Less dependence on atmospheric oxygen is what extends underwater endurance.
Analysis
The Setting to Work Phase-2 (STW-2) of the AIP Energy Module, developed indigenously by DRDO’s Naval Materials Research Laboratory (NMRL), was inaugurated at L&T’s AM Naik Heavy Engineering Complex in Hazira, Gujarat, on 24 October 2026. STW-2 is one phase of testing: the module is to be energised and tested to the Navy’s protocols before it is handed to Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders for integration on a Kalvari-class submarine, which is planned for early 2027. On PIB’s timeline, that integration is still ahead.
Concept note
Air Independent Propulsion, in PIB’s words, ‘boosts the underwater endurance of the diesel-electric submarines by reducing its dependence on atmospheric oxygen’. DRDO’s NMRL has developed a fuel cell-based AIP, which PIB described in 2021 as ‘unique as the hydrogen is generated onboard’.
Its land-based prototype was proven in March 2021, with L&T and Thermax as industry partners. In December 2024 a contract worth around Rs 1,990 crore was signed with Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) for the construction of the AIP plug and its integration.
The Setting to Work Phase-2 (STW-2) of the AIP Energy Module was inaugurated at L&T’s AM Naik Heavy Engineering Complex in Hazira, Gujarat, on 24 October 2026, PIB said. STW-2 is a test stage: the module will be energised for power production and tested rigorously as per the Indian Navy’s protocols before handover to MDL, with integration on a Kalvari-class submarine planned for early 2027.
For Mains, the AIP is an example of indigenisation in defence technology, with a DRDO laboratory designing it, L&T and Thermax as industry partners, and MDL to integrate it.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 indigenisation of technology; GS3 security (naval capability) ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** underwater endurance, indigenous defence technology, DRDO-industry partnership, Kalvari class ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** thinking AIP brings in more air; it reduces the submarine’s dependence on atmospheric oxygen ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NMRL’s AIP is fuel cell-based, with hydrogen generated onboard; Kalvari-class integration is planned, not done ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India invest in AIP for conventional submarines or put the money into nuclear-powered submarines? |
Question 7 of 15
1. VAHAN : Vehicle registration records
2. SARATHI : Traffic violations and fines
3. e-Challan : Driving licences
4. PUCC : Pollution control certificates
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
VAHAN manages vehicle-registration records.
Pair 2Incorrect
SARATHI handles driving licences and related services; traffic violations and fines are recorded by e-Challan.
Pair 3Incorrect
E-Challan records traffic violations and fines; driving licences belong to SARATHI.
Pair 4Correct
PUCC manages pollution control certificates.
Analysis
The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has asked CERT-In to conduct a forensic security audit of the VAHAN, SARATHI, e-Challan and PUCC portals after vehicle information was found on sale through apps and websites, The Hindu reported. The audit has been sought; no finding has been reported.
Concept note
VAHAN and SARATHI are the national registers behind road transport services: VAHAN holds vehicle-registration records and SARATHI driving licences, while e-Challan records traffic violations and fines and PUCC manages pollution control certificates. Under the Ministry’s data-sharing policy, as The Hindu reports it, government bodies, including the police, may access all data fields, in accordance with the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023; private entities may access only selected fields, with a daily cap; and all entities must hold a Security Audit Certificate from CERT-In.
Through an RTI request, the Internet Freedom Foundation found that 25,314 credentials had been issued to private entities, through which 1.708 crore queries were run over 33 months. Government agencies seeking data will now need the Transport Secretary’s approval, and officials ruled out suspending data sharing with private entities.
The trigger, The Hindu says, was vehicle information being sold through multiple apps and websites ‘for as little as ₹5’, according to an investigation by the security firm Cyderes. For Mains, these platforms show both the reach of digital public services and the risk when citizen data held by the State is shared with private users.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 e-governance and government policies; GS3 basics of cyber security ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** data governance, State-to-private data sharing, security audit, digital public infrastructure ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** swapping VAHAN and SARATHI; VAHAN is vehicles, SARATHI is driving licences ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** VAHAN vehicles, SARATHI licences, e-Challan fines, PUCC pollution certificates ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the State sell or share access to citizen data held in its registers with private firms at all? |
Question 8 of 15
1 It is being developed under the Amritsar Kolkata Industrial Corridor (AKIC).
2 It is part of the National Industrial Corridor Development Programme (NICDP).
3 Its special purpose vehicle is wholly owned by the National Industrial Corridor Development and Implementation Trust (NICDIT).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The IMC at Gaya is being developed under the Amritsar Kolkata Industrial Corridor.
Statement 2Correct
It is being developed as part of the National Industrial Corridor Development Programme.
Statement 3Incorrect
The SPV, Bihar Integrated Manufacturing City Gaya Limited (BIMCGL), is a joint venture of the Bihar Industrial Area Development Authority (BIADA) and NICDIT, with equal equity participation, incorporated on 6 January 2025.
Analysis
Bihar Chief Minister Samrat Choudhary formally launched BIMCGL at Bodh Gaya on 24 October 2026, PIB said. A second trap: NICDIT, the Trust, is BIMCGL’s partner; NICDC is a separate corporation.
Concept note
The Gaya cluster is being developed under the Amritsar Kolkata Industrial Corridor, as part of the National Industrial Corridor Development Programme. It covers 1,670 acres in Dobhi block of Gaya district and was approved by the Government of India on 28 August 2024 at a total cost of Rs 1,339 crore, including land.
It is expected to attract investments of about Rs 16,500 crore and to create jobs for around 1.10 lakh people; these are expectations, not results. The project is run by a special purpose vehicle, BIMCGL, in which the Bihar Industrial Area Development Authority and the National Industrial Corridor Development and Implementation Trust hold equal equity, incorporated on 6 January 2025.
Physical construction has begun, PIB says, and 12 MoUs covering about 300 acres, with proposed investments of around Rs 4,200 crore, were signed at the launch. For Mains, the SPV model puts a State authority and a national trust in one company with equal equity.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 infrastructure and industrial policy; GS3 inclusive growth ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** industrial corridors, manufacturing clusters, special purpose vehicle, balanced regional development ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** confusing NICDIT, the Trust that is BIMCGL’s partner, with NICDC, a separate corporation ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** IMC Gaya: AKIC, NICDP; SPV BIMCGL is a BIADA-NICDIT joint venture with equal equity ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can an industrial cluster in Bihar reverse migration, or will land and logistics decide its success? |
Question 9 of 15
1 Starshield, SpaceX’s service for government use, runs on the Starlink constellation, with specialised satellites for services such as remote sensing.
2 Under Article VI of the Outer Space Treaty, 1967, a State bears international responsibility for national activities in outer space, including those of non-governmental entities.
3 Under Article VII of the Outer Space Treaty, liability for damage rests only with the State whose company owns the space object.
4 Under the Telecommunications Act, 2023, spectrum for satellite-based services listed in its First Schedule, such as GMPCS, is assigned by administrative process rather than by auction.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Starshield uses the same Starlink constellation to provide secure communications, with stronger data encryption, while its other services, including remote sensing, use specialised satellites.
Statement 2Correct
Under Article VI, the activities of non-governmental entities need the ‘authorization and continuing supervision’ of the appropriate State Party.
Statement 3Incorrect
Under Article VII, a State that launches or procures a launch, or from whose territory a launch occurs, is internationally liable for damage.
Statement 4Correct
Section 4(4) says spectrum is assigned by auction ‘except for entries listed in the First Schedule’, and entry 16 covers satellite-based services, including GMPCS.
Analysis
In mid-October 2026, Ukrainian drone units using Starshield lost connectivity, and who ordered the limits is disputed. In a Profile in The Hindu, Vasudevan Mukunth argues that, unlike an arms seller, the provider of a service keeps control after the sale.
Concept note
A constellation is a network of several of the same or similar satellites working together to provide continuous coverage; SpaceX’s Starlink constellation has more than 11,000 satellites in low-earth orbit, The Hindu says. International space law answers for such networks through the State.
Article VI of the Outer Space Treaty, 1967 makes each State internationally responsible for national activities in outer space, whether carried out by government agencies or by non-governmental entities, which need its authorisation and continuing supervision; Article VII makes the launching State liable for damage. But Article VI speaks of activities in outer space, not of the terms on which a company sells a service on the ground.
In India, satellite services are licensed as a GMPCS (Global Mobile Personal Communication by Satellite) authorisation under the Unified Licence, and, as the Minister of State for Communications told the Lok Sabha on 5 August 2026, security clearance to the licensees is ‘subject to successful demonstration of compliance with the stipulated security and technical conditions of license’. The Telecommunications Act, 2023 assigns spectrum by auction, except for the First Schedule entries, which are assigned by administrative process.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 space technology and security; GS2 international treaties and the effect of other countries' policies on India ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** non-state power, State responsibility in space, sovereign satellite communication, licence conditions ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** treating Starshield as a separate constellation; it runs on the Starlink satellites ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** OST Article VI: responsibility including non-governmental entities; Article VII: launching State liability ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India’s armed forces ever depend on a satellite network owned by a foreign company? |
Question 10 of 15
1 Under the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, a Data Fiduciary must give intimation of a personal data breach to the Data Protection Board and to each affected Data Principal.
2 Under the DPDP Act, 2023, the maximum penalty for failing to take reasonable security safeguards to prevent a breach is higher than that for failing to give intimation of a breach.
3 Rule 7 of the DPDP Rules, 2025, on intimation of a breach, came into force on the date the Rules were published.
4 CERT-In’s Directions of 2022 require cyber incidents, including data breaches and data leaks, to be reported to CERT-In within 6 hours of noticing them.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 8(6) requires a Data Fiduciary to intimate a breach to the Board and to each affected Data Principal.
Statement 2Correct
A breach of section 8(5), the duty to take reasonable security safeguards, ‘May extend to two hundred and fifty crore rupees’, while a failure under section 8(6) ‘May extend to two hundred crore rupees’. Both are the law as enacted; section 8 and the Board’s power to impose these penalties start on 13 May 2027 (see statement 3).
Statement 3Incorrect
Rule 1(4) says Rules 3, 5 to 16, 22 and 23 ‘shall come into force eighteen months after the date of publication’; counted from the Gazette dated 13 November 2025, they start on 13 May 2027.
Statement 4Correct
The Directions of 28 April 2022 require reporting ‘within 6 hours of noticing such incidents’, and the list includes data breach and data leak.
Analysis
SBI told the stock exchanges that a preliminary analysis of approximately 3,75,000 records on the dark web had identified 3,897 customer records containing Personally Identifiable Information. The duties now in force, the Internet Freedom Foundation argues, ‘are owed to regulators and not to customers’.
Concept note
The DPDP Act, 2023 defines a personal data breach as any unauthorised processing of personal data, or its accidental disclosure, acquisition, sharing, use, alteration, destruction or loss of access, that compromises its confidentiality, integrity or availability. A Data Fiduciary has two duties: under section 8(5), to take reasonable security safeguards to prevent a breach, and under section 8(6), to intimate a breach to the Data Protection Board and to each affected Data Principal.
Rule 7 of the DPDP Rules, 2025 sets out the notice: to each affected person, without delay, a description of the breach, its likely consequences, the mitigation measures, the safety steps the person may take and a contact; to the Board, a detailed report within seventy-two hours. Penalties under the Schedule are imposed by the Board under section 33 after an inquiry.
These provisions are on a staggered commencement and start eighteen months after the Rules’ publication, so they are not yet in force. Until then the duties in force run to regulators: CERT-In, the national agency for cyber security under section 70B of the IT Act, 2000, must be told within 6 hours, and a listed company keeps the stock exchanges informed.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 cyber security and banking; GS2 statutory and regulatory bodies (Data Protection Board, CERT-In) ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** breach notification, duty of care, staggered commencement, data minimisation ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** thinking the DPDP breach duties are already in force; section 8(6), Rule 7 and section 33 commence eighteen months after the Rules' publication ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Rs 250 crore for failing safeguards (section 8(5)); Rs 200 crore for failing to notify (section 8(6)); CERT-In: 6 hours ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should a bank tell customers about a suspected leak before it has confirmed the source? |
Question 11 of 15
1 The Punjab Preservation of Subsoil Water Act, 2009 itself fixes the date before which paddy cannot be transplanted.
2 Crop residue fire events are counted by satellite under a standard protocol developed by ISRO and issued by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM).
3 Under the CAQM Act, 2021, the penalty of imprisonment of up to five years or a fine of up to Rs 1 crore does not apply to farmers for stubble burning, and the Commission may collect environmental compensation from them instead.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
The 2009 Act writes a date only for the paddy nursery, which may not be sown before 10 May (or a date the State notifies); the transplanting date is notified by the State in the Official Gazette.
Statement 2Correct
Fires are counted by satellite from 15 September to 30 November under a standard protocol developed by ISRO and issued by CAQM in August 2021.
Statement 3Correct
A proviso to section 14 says its penalty ‘shall not apply to any farmer for causing air pollution by stubble burning’, and section 15 says the Commission ‘may impose and collect environmental compensation from farmers causing air pollution by stubble burning’.
Analysis
The Indian Express reports 574 farm fires in Punjab so far this season, 414 of them in Tarn Taran and Amritsar. In a column in the same paper on 25 October 2026, Anupreet Singh Tiwana argues that burning will fade only when stubble has a buyer and a price.
Concept note
Paddy is a kharif crop in Punjab and wheat a rabi crop, and farmers burn paddy stubble to clear fields for the rabi sowing. The Punjab Preservation of Subsoil Water Act, 2009 was passed to save groundwater by delaying paddy: it bars a paddy nursery before 10 May (or a notified date) and transplanting before a date the State notifies, with a penalty of Rs 10,000 for every month or part of a month, per hectare.
Fires are tracked by satellite under the standard protocol developed by ISRO in consultation with State Remote Sensing Centres and IARI, and issued by CAQM in August 2021; the counts are fire events, not the area burnt or the smoke that reached Delhi. CAQM’s figure for the 2025 season was 5,114 fire events in Punjab.
Under the CAQM Act, 2021 (No. 29 of 2021), the proviso to section 14 keeps farmers out of that section for stubble burning or mismanagement of agricultural residue, and section 15 lets the Commission collect environmental compensation from them instead. In situ management (Happy Seeder, Super Seeder) handles straw in the field; ex situ management takes it out, often as bales, for use as fuel or livestock feed.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 environmental pollution and cropping patterns; GS2 statutory bodies and Centre-State cost-sharing ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** crop residue management, environmental compensation, residue market, compressed crop calendar ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** thinking the 2009 Act fixes the transplanting date; it fixes only the nursery date (10 May), and the State notifies transplanting ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CAQM Act section 14 excludes farmers for stubble burning; section 15 allows environmental compensation ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should stubble burning be fought with penalties, machines or a market for straw? |
Question 12 of 15
1. Majha : Between the Beas and the Ravi
2. Doaba : Between the Beas and the Sutlej
3. Malwa : South of the Sutlej
4. Tarn Taran : Majha region
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
Majha extends north from the right bank of the Beas as far as the left bank of the Ravi.
Pair 2Correct
Doaba, also called the Bist Doab or Jalandhar Doab, lies between the Beas and the Sutlej.
Pair 3Correct
Malwa lies south of the Sutlej, north of the Ghaggar.
Pair 4Correct
Tarn Taran is one of Majha’s four districts, with Amritsar, Gurdaspur and Pathankot.
Analysis
Majha leads this season’s farm fires: The Indian Express reports that Tarn Taran and Amritsar account for 414 (72%) of Punjab’s 574 fires so far this season. Its farmers grow short-duration paddy and Basmati such as Pusa 1509, whose early harvest frees fields for a third crop of peas or potatoes before wheat.
Concept note
Punjab is broadly divided into three regions. Majha, in the northwest, lies between the Beas and the Ravi; its four districts in Indian Punjab are Amritsar, Tarn Taran, Gurdaspur and Pathankot.
Doaba, in the northeast, lies between the Beas and the Sutlej: the Beas separates it from Majha and the Sutlej from Malwa. Malwa, the southern region, lies south of the Sutlej; Bathinda, Faridkot, Muktsar and Firozpur make up its Lakhi Jungle tract, and Sangrur and Patiala are also in Malwa.
Amritsar and Tarn Taran are border districts: Amritsar lies along the India-Pakistan border, and Tarn Taran has Pakistan to its west. Farm fires usually peak in early November, but Majha burns early because its short-duration paddy and Basmati varieties free the fields in September, and green peas, a 60-day crop, fit between the paddy harvest and wheat sowing.
Tarn Taran recorded the most fires of any district in the 2025 season.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 physical and regional geography of India (doabs); GS3 cropping patterns ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** doab, regional cropping pattern, third crop, spatial pattern of farm fires ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** placing Doaba south of the Sutlej; Doaba lies between the Beas and the Sutlej, and Malwa lies south of the Sutlej ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Majha: Beas-Ravi; Doaba: Beas-Sutlej; Malwa: south of the Sutlej ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why might the same State need different stubble policies for Majha and Malwa? |
Question 13 of 15
Statement-I: A topping refinery can convert heavy, low-value fractions of crude oil into lighter, high-value products such as petrol.
Statement-II: Cracking is the most widely used method of converting heavy, low-value fractions into lighter, high-value products.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement IIncorrect
The simplest refineries, called topping refineries, have a distillation column and nothing else; they can only distil, not convert heavy fractions.
Statement IICorrect
Conversion processes heavy, low-value fractions into lighter, high-value products, and cracking is the most widely used method; a topping refinery lacks such units.
Analysis
In an explainer in The New Indian Express, Rakesh Kumar argues that India’s complex refineries can process heavy, high-sulphur crude such as Venezuela’s Merey, which lets Indian refiners buy crude ‘depending on its price, quality and availability’. His caution is that such crude is ‘not automatically cheaper once it reaches India’, because it needs more processing and travels far.
Concept note
A refinery first separates crude oil by boiling point in a distillation unit: heavy fractions at the bottom, light ones at the top. Every refinery has an atmospheric distillation unit; more complex ones add vacuum distillation.
Conversion units then turn heavy, low-value fractions into lighter, high-value products such as petrol, and cracking is the most widely used method. Complexity rises with this secondary conversion capacity; the Nelson Complexity Index is one measure.
Crude grades differ: density runs from light to heavy, and sulphur content makes a crude sweet (low sulphur) or sour. Light, sweet grades need far less sophisticated refineries, while heavy, sour crude needs complex ones.
India’s installed refining capacity was 267.1 MMTPA on 1 April 2026, by PPAC’s count, and PPAC’s Ready Reckoner ranks India fourth largest globally and second-largest in Asia; in 2025-26 its refineries processed 272.0 MMT of crude (provisional), at an average capacity utilisation of 106 per cent as PPAC reports it; the Ready Reckoner gives nameplate capacity as 258.1 MMTPA. Reliance calls Jamnagar the ‘largest and most complex single-site refinery in the world’; that is the company’s own claim.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 infrastructure (energy) and the Indian economy; GS2 energy diplomacy ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** refinery complexity, heavy sour crude, delivered cost, diversified sourcing ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** thinking every refinery can process any crude; a topping refinery only distils, and heavy, sour grades need conversion units ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** sweet = low sulphur, sour = high sulphur; cracking is the most widely used conversion method ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should Indian refiners buy more Venezuelan crude if the discount barely covers freight and processing? |
Question 14 of 15
1. Digboi : Assam
2. Pachpadra : Rajasthan
3. Vadinar : Maharashtra
4. Numaligarh : Odisha
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
Digboi, in Assam, is India’s first refinery, commissioned in December 1901.
Pair 2Correct
The HPCL Rajasthan Refinery (HRRL) at Pachpadra is in Barmer, Rajasthan.
Pair 3Incorrect
Nayara Energy’s Vadinar refinery is in Gujarat, not Maharashtra; Gujarat has four refineries at three sites, Jamnagar’s two, Vadinar and Koyali.
Pair 4Incorrect
Numaligarh is in Assam; Paradip is the Odisha refinery, and a pipeline of around 1,635 km is to carry imported crude from Paradip to Numaligarh.
Analysis
Of India’s Venezuelan crude imports in April-August 2026, Jamnagar SEZ, Sikka, Paradip, Mundra and Vadinar were the points of entry, the Global Trade Research Initiative (GTRI) says.
Concept note
Gujarat has four refineries at three sites: Reliance’s two at Jamnagar (68.2 MMTPA together), Nayara Energy’s at Vadinar (20.0 MMTPA) and Indian Oil’s at Koyali, together more than a third of India’s capacity. Assam has four: Digboi, Guwahati and Bongaigaon (Indian Oil) and Numaligarh (NRL).
Digboi, commissioned in December 1901, is India’s first refinery; well No. 1 there was drilled in September 1889. On the east coast, Paradip in Odisha (Indian Oil, 15.0 MMTPA) and Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh (HPCL) are major refineries.
The HPCL Rajasthan Refinery at Pachpadra, Barmer, a 9 MMTPA joint venture of HPCL (74%) and the Rajasthan government (26%), was dedicated to the nation by the Prime Minister on 4 July 2026. Numaligarh is expanding from 3 to 9 MMTPA with a new refinery that will run on imported crude brought from Paradip.
PPAC’s list of crude pipelines includes the Salaya-Mathura, Mundra-Panipat, Mundra-Bathinda and Vadinar-Bina pipelines; each name ends in a refinery town.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 location of industries in India; GS3 energy infrastructure ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** coastal refining, crude pipelines, northeast refineries, location factors ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** placing Numaligarh in Odisha because of the Paradip pipeline; Numaligarh is in Assam, and Paradip is in Odisha ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Digboi (Assam), India’s first refinery, 1901; Jamnagar and Vadinar in Gujarat; Pachpadra in Barmer, Rajasthan ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Gujarat alone holds more than a third of India’s refining capacity. Is that concentration a strength or a risk? |
Question 15 of 15
Facts
Under section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000, CERT-In (the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team) is the national agency for cyber security; it may call for information and give directions to service providers, intermediaries, data centres and body corporates. Its Directions of 28 April 2022 require cyber incidents, data breaches and data leaks among them, to be reported to it within 6 hours of noticing them.
Analysis
SBI has told the stock exchanges that a preliminary analysis of approximately 3,75,000 records on the dark web identified 3,897 customer records containing Personally Identifiable Information. The duties in force today run to regulators and markets, such as CERT-In and the stock exchanges; the duty to tell each affected person, under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, is not yet in force.
Concept note
CERT-In, the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team, is the national agency for cyber security under section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000, and may call for information and give directions to service providers, intermediaries, data centres and body corporates. Its Directions of 28 April 2022 require cyber incidents to be reported to it ‘within 6 hours of noticing such incidents or being brought to notice about such incidents’, and the list of reportable incidents includes ‘Data Breach’ and ‘Data Leak’.
That duty runs to CERT-In, not to the person whose data were exposed; a listed bank must also keep the stock exchanges informed under SEBI’s disclosure norms. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 adds a duty owed to people: under section 8(6), a Data Fiduciary must intimate a breach to the Data Protection Board and to each affected Data Principal.
But section 8, section 33 and Rule 7 of the DPDP Rules, 2025 start eighteen months after the Rules’ Gazette of 13 November 2025, which works out to 13 May 2027. For Mains, the two laws show the difference between incident reporting for national cyber security and breach notice for individual privacy.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 basics of cyber security; GS2 statutory bodies and data protection law ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** incident reporting, national cyber security agency, breach notification, duties owed to regulators ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** confusing CERT-In’s 6-hour incident report, owed to CERT-In, with a breach notice owed to each affected customer ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CERT-In: section 70B, IT Act, 2000; Directions of 28 April 2022, report within 6 hours ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should a company that reports a breach to CERT-In within 6 hours also have to tell the people affected at once? |
Performance
Question-wise Result