UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 24 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
13 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 13
1 The INSTC was established in 2000 by India, Iran and Russia.
2 Azerbaijan is one of the founding members of the INSTC.
3 The INSTC connects the Indian Ocean and the Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea through Iran.
4 ONGC Videsh holds stakes in the Azeri-Chirag-Gunashli oil and gas fields and the Baku-Tbilisi-Ceyhan pipeline.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The INSTC was established on 12 September 2000 in St Petersburg by India, Iran and Russia.
Statement 2Incorrect
Azerbaijan is a later member; the corridor later expanded to include Azerbaijan, Armenia and other countries.
Statement 3Correct
It connects the Indian Ocean and the Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea through Iran, and then to St Petersburg and northern Europe through Russia.
Statement 4Correct
ONGC Videsh Ltd (OVL) has invested more than US$ 1.2 billion in stakes in the Azeri-Chirag-Gunashli (ACG) fields and the associated Baku-Tbilisi-Ceyhan (BTC) pipeline.
Analysis
External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar met President Ilham Aliyev in Baku on 23 October 2026, and the two sides agreed to coordinate more closely on the INSTC; no agreement was reported signed. The usual trap is to count Azerbaijan among the founders: the three founders are India, Iran and Russia.
Concept note
The INSTC is a multimodal transport corridor: freight moves on more than one mode of transport along the way. It was established on 12 September 2000 in St Petersburg by India, Iran and Russia, and later expanded to include Azerbaijan, Armenia and other countries.
It connects the Indian Ocean and the Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea through Iran, and then to St Petersburg and northern Europe through Russia; The Indian Express describes it as about 7,200 km long, for moving freight among India, Iran, Afghanistan, Armenia, Azerbaijan, Russia, Central Asia and Europe. India’s energy stake in Azerbaijan runs through ONGC Videsh, which has invested more than US$ 1.2 billion in the ACG fields and the BTC pipeline.
On 29 November 2024 OVL acquired an additional 0.615 per cent participating interest in ACG from Equinor, raising its stakes to 2.925 per cent in ACG and 3.097 per cent in BTC. Trade is small and volatile: by the MEA’s calendar-year figures it was US$ 401 million in 2025, with imports of US$ 175 million, mostly crude oil.
For Mains, connectivity (the INSTC) and energy (ACG and BTC) are the two reasons Azerbaijan matters to India.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 India and Eurasia (bilateral relations, connectivity); GS3 infrastructure (energy assets abroad, transport corridors) ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** INSTC, multimodal connectivity, energy security, overseas oil assets ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** listing Azerbaijan as an INSTC founder; the founders are India, Iran and Russia, and Azerbaijan joined later ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** INSTC: 12 September 2000, St Petersburg, India, Iran and Russia; OVL: ACG fields and BTC pipeline ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can India rely on a corridor that runs through Iran to reach Russia and Europe? |
Question 2 of 13
Statement-I: At the White House Peace Summit between Armenia and Azerbaijan, the two countries' leaders signed the Agreement on the Establishment of Peace and Inter-State Relations between them.
Statement-II: Initialling a treaty text marks it as agreed, but it is neither a signature nor a ratification.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement IIncorrect
At the Peace Summit at the White House on 8 August 2025, President Aliyev and Armenian Prime Minister Pashinyan signed the Joint Declaration for peace; the draft peace agreement was initialled by the two foreign ministers, not signed.
Statement IICorrect
Initialling marks a text as agreed; it is not a signature or a ratification.
Analysis
In Baku on 23 October 2026, Jaishankar welcomed what The Indian Express called ‘the August peace agreement between Azerbaijan and Armenia’; the word ‘agreement’ hides the stage the text has reached. As of September 2026, the Council on Foreign Relations noted that full ratification hinges on Armenia amending its constitution to remove territorial claims.
Concept note
A treaty passes through stages, and the exam tests which stage a text has reached. Initialling marks a text as agreed; signature and ratification are separate steps, and a text that is only initialled is not yet in force.
The Armenia-Azerbaijan case shows the difference. At a Peace Summit at the White House on 8 August 2025, President Aliyev and Armenian Prime Minister Pashinyan signed the Joint Declaration for peace, while the draft ‘Agreement on the Establishment of Peace and Inter-State Relations between the Republic of Armenia and the Republic of Azerbaijan’ was initialled by the two foreign ministers.
As of September 2026, the Council on Foreign Relations noted that full ratification hinges on Armenia amending its constitution to remove territorial claims, so the agreement remained initialled, not signed. The summit also produced TRIPP, the Trump Route for International Peace and Prosperity, a multimodal transit route; the joint statement of the United States, Armenia and Azerbaijan on the summit’s first anniversary said it ‘is moving from vision to reality’.
India’s stated principle, in Jaishankar’s words, is that ‘disputes should be settled through dialogue and diplomacy.’
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 international relations (treaty-making, the South Caucasus), GS2 India and Eurasia ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** initialling, signature, ratification, peace process ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** writing that Armenia and Azerbaijan signed a peace treaty in Washington; only the Joint Declaration was signed, the draft agreement was initialled ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** initialled is not signed, and signed is not ratified; keep the three stages apart ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why should India support a peace process in which it has no direct role? |
Question 3 of 13
1 United Nations Day marks the signing of the UN Charter.
2 The 'Question of Equitable representation on and increase in the membership of Security Council' is an agenda item of the UN General Assembly.
3 India is a candidate for a non-permanent seat on the UN Security Council for the 2028-29 term.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
In the UN’s words, ‘United Nations Day (24 October) marks the entry into force in 1945 of the United Nations Charter’, not its signing.
Statement 2Correct
India’s Permanent Representative to the UN spoke on this agenda item in the UN General Assembly.
Statement 3Correct
India is vying for a non-permanent seat for the 2028-29 term, The Hindu (PTI) reported.
Analysis
On 22 October 2026, India told the General Assembly that the ‘authority derived from a victory eight decades ago cannot compensate for the deficit in legitimacy of an unrepresentative Security Council today.’ It was a statement in a debate: India moved no resolution, and no vote or outcome text was reported.
Concept note
United Nations Day falls on 24 October and, in the UN’s words, ‘marks the entry into force in 1945 of the United Nations Charter’. Reform of the Security Council is debated in the General Assembly under the agenda item ‘Question of Equitable representation on and increase in the membership of Security Council’.
Speaking under it on 22 October 2026, India’s Permanent Representative to the UN said that an organisation that cannot renew its principal organ will find it ever harder to command authority in a world that has moved far beyond 1945, and added: ‘We cannot reasonably drive into the future by constantly looking at the rearview mirror’. India’s argument is about legitimacy: authority won in 1945 cannot make up for a Council that is unrepresentative today.
India is also vying for a non-permanent seat for the 2028-29 term. Keep the forms apart in an answer: a statement in a General Assembly debate is not a resolution, and no vote or outcome text followed this one.
For the Council’s composition, the veto and the Charter’s amendment rule, read this site’s analysis of Shashi Tharoor’s column of 22 October 2026 in The Indian Express.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 important international institutions (the UN, its structure and mandate), GS2 India’s foreign policy ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** UNSC reform, legitimacy, representation, non-permanent seat ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** dating UN Day from the signing of the Charter; it marks the Charter’s entry into force in 1945 ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** UN Day, 24 October: entry into force of the UN Charter, 1945; India seeks a non-permanent seat for 2028-29 ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India argue for UNSC reform on grounds of legitimacy or of power? |
Question 4 of 13
1 A low-pressure system is given a name only once it intensifies into a cyclonic storm.
2 A cyclonic storm is a weaker stage of intensification than a deep depression.
3 The names are proposed by the India Meteorological Department alone.
4 On average, more cyclones form over the Arabian Sea than over the Bay of Bengal in a year.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
A name applies only once a cyclonic storm forms; the present Bay of Bengal system will be named Arnab only if it becomes a cyclonic storm.
Statement 2Incorrect
The order of intensification runs from a low-pressure area to a depression, then a deep depression, then a cyclonic storm, so the cyclonic storm is the stronger stage.
Statement 3Incorrect
The name Arnab, for instance, was proposed by Bangladesh, not by the IMD.
Statement 4Incorrect
‘On average, four cyclones form here in a year. Of them, three develop in the Bay of Bengal,’ The Indian Express notes.
Analysis
A low-pressure area formed over the east-central and adjoining southeast Bay of Bengal on 23 October 2026. The IMD forecast that it would become a depression on 24 October, a deep depression by 25 October and a cyclonic storm on 26 October; this is a forecast, and no cyclone has been named yet.
Concept note
A cyclone grows in stages, and the Bay of Bengal system of October 2026 shows them in order. A low-pressure area formed over the east-central and adjoining southeast Bay of Bengal at 5.30 a.m. on 23 October 2026.
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) said it would intensify into a depression on Saturday, was very likely to move west-northwest and intensify further into a deep depression by 25 October, and would then develop into a cyclonic storm on 26 October. Its likely track is towards the north Andhra Pradesh and adjoining south Odisha coast around the early morning hours of 28 October, although the IMD had yet to forecast the exact area of landfall.
If it becomes a cyclonic storm, it will be named Arnab, a name proposed by Bangladesh; naming of cyclones over the North Indian Ocean began in September 2004. Odisha’s preparedness shows the chain before landfall: a red alert for heavy rain in Puri, Ganjam and Gajapati districts on 27 October, leave of officials cancelled, fishermen advised to return to the coast, and the National Disaster Response Force and the Odisha Disaster Rapid Action Force on standby.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 physical geography (tropical cyclones), GS3 disaster management ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** cyclogenesis, intensification, early warning, preparedness ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** naming a system before it becomes a cyclonic storm; a depression or deep depression carries no name ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** low-pressure area, depression, deep depression, cyclonic storm; North Indian Ocean naming since September 2004; the Bay of Bengal sees most of the region’s cyclones ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why does the Bay of Bengal see more cyclones than the Arabian Sea, and what does that mean for India’s east coast? |
Question 5 of 13
1 The Oskar Klein Medal is awarded by Stockholm University and the Nobel Committee for Physics of the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences.
2 The Oskar Klein Medal is a category of the Nobel Prize in Physics.
3 Ashoke Sen’s work includes S-duality, the precision counting of black-hole entropy and string field theory.
4 Ashoke Sen has received both the Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics and the Dirac Medal.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The medal ‘is awarded annually by Stockholm University and the Nobel Committee for Physics of the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences’.
Statement 2Incorrect
The Nobel Committee for Physics co-awards the medal, but it is not a Nobel Prize; it was established in 1988 and is named after the Swedish theoretical physicist Oskar Klein.
Statement 3Correct
ICTS cites his work on S-duality, the precision counting of black-hole entropy and string field theory.
Statement 4Correct
He received the Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics in 2012 and the Dirac Medal in 2014.
Analysis
ICTS announced on 22 October 2026 that Ashoke Sen has been awarded the Oskar Klein Medal for 2026. He delivered the 2026 Oskar Klein Memorial Lecture, ‘Gravity from Strings and Strings from Gravity’, at Stockholm University’s AlbaNova Centre.
Concept note
The Oskar Klein Medal is named after the Swedish theoretical physicist Oskar Klein and ‘is awarded annually by Stockholm University and the Nobel Committee for Physics of the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences’. It was established in 1988, and its first three recipients were the Nobel laureates Chen-Ning Yang, Steven Weinberg and Hans Bethe.
The 2026 medal goes to the string theorist Ashoke Sen, an ICTS-Infosys Madhava Chair Professor, whom ICTS calls ‘the first Indian physicist to receive the honour’. ICTS cites his work on S-duality, the precision counting of black-hole entropy and string field theory, which helped shape modern string theory.
His earlier honours include the Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics (2012), the Dirac Medal (2014), the Infosys Prize in Mathematical Sciences (2009), the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize (1994), the ICTP Prize (1989), the Padma Shri (2001) and the Padma Bhushan (2013); he was elected a Fellow of the Royal Society in 1998. For Prelims, remember that a medal co-awarded by the Nobel Committee for Physics is still not a Nobel Prize.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 science and technology (achievements of Indians), GS1 persons in news ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** string theory, black-hole entropy, basic research, scientific excellence ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** calling the Oskar Klein Medal a Nobel Prize because the Nobel Committee for Physics co-awards it ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Oskar Klein Medal: Stockholm University and the Nobel Committee for Physics, established 1988; Sen: Breakthrough Prize 2012, Dirac Medal 2014 ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India fund theoretical physics that has no immediate application? |
Question 6 of 13
Statement-I: India has been certified polio-free as part of the WHO South-East Asia Region.
Statement-II: The World Health Organization certifies WHO regions as a whole, not single countries, as polio-free.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The WHO South-East Asia Region, which covers India, was certified polio-free on 27 March 2014.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
In the words of WHO’s South-East Asia regional office, ‘No single country can be certified as polio-free. WHO regions as a whole are certified as polio-free.’ That is why India’s status comes from the Region’s certification.
Analysis
World Polio Day falls on 24 October. The common error is to write that India was certified polio-free on its own in 2014; India’s last confirmed wild poliovirus (WPV) case was in January 2011, according to the US Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
Concept note
World Polio Day falls on 24 October, and the examinable point is how polio-free certification works. The WHO’s South-East Asia regional office puts it plainly: 'No single country can be certified as polio-free.
WHO regions as a whole are certified as polio-free.’ The WHO South-East Asia Region, which covers India, was certified polio-free on 27 March 2014. India’s own milestone came earlier: ‘The last confirmed WPV case in India occurred in January 2011,’ the US Centers for Disease Control and Prevention records, WPV being the wild poliovirus.
So two dates belong together in an answer: January 2011 for India’s last confirmed wild poliovirus case, and 27 March 2014 for the certification of the Region as a whole. The wording matters in Prelims: ‘India was certified polio-free on its own’ is wrong, because WHO certifies regions, and India is covered by the Region’s 2014 certification.
For Mains, regional certification shows that eradication is judged across a whole region, not one country at a time.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 issues relating to health (immunisation, international health bodies), GS2 international institutions (WHO) ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** polio eradication, regional certification, wild poliovirus, immunisation ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** saying WHO certified India polio-free on its own; WHO certifies regions, and India is covered by the South-East Asia Region’s certification ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** India’s last confirmed wild poliovirus case: January 2011; WHO South-East Asia Region certified polio-free: 27 March 2014 ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why does WHO certify regions rather than single countries as polio-free? |
Question 7 of 13
1 It was raised in 1962 for reorganising the frontier intelligence and security set-up along the Indo-Tibetan border.
2 It was first raised under the CRPF Act.
3 Parliament enacted the ITBPF Act in 1992.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
According to the force’s own history page, it was raised on 24 October 1962 ‘for reorganizing the frontier intelligence and security set up along the Indo-Tibetan border’, with only four battalions sanctioned to begin with.
Statement 2Correct
The ITBP was first raised under the CRPF Act, not under a law of its own.
Statement 3Correct
Parliament enacted the ITBPF Act in 1992, and the rules under it were framed in 1994.
Analysis
The ITBP marks its raising day on 24 October. The trap is statement 2: many aspirants assume the force had its own Act from the start, but its own statute came three decades after it was raised.
Concept note
The Indo-Tibetan Border Police marks its raising day on 24 October. According to the force’s own history page, it was raised on 24 October 1962 'for reorganizing the frontier intelligence and security set up along the Indo-Tibetan border.
Only four Battalions were sanctioned to begin with.’ Its legal basis changed over time, and this is the part Prelims tests. The force was first raised under the CRPF Act; only in 1992 did Parliament enact a law of its own, the ITBPF Act, and the rules under that Act were framed in 1994.
So three dates go together: 1962 for the raising, 1992 for the Act and 1994 for the rules. For Mains, the ITBP is a force raised for a specific frontier, which is why its history begins with reorganising intelligence and security along the Indo-Tibetan border rather than with general policing.
For the force’s border role and its chief’s recent remarks on Arunachal Pradesh, see this site’s roundup of 23 October 2026.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 security forces and agencies and their mandate, GS3 border management ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** border guarding force, frontier security, statutory basis, Central Armed Police Forces ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** assuming the ITBP was created under its own Act; it was first raised under the CRPF Act, and the ITBPF Act came in 1992 ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** raised 24 October 1962 with four battalions; ITBPF Act 1992; rules 1994 ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should one force guard each border, or should border guarding be organised by function? |
Question 8 of 13
1 The decision of the MPC is binding on the Reserve Bank of India.
2 The inflation target is set by the Reserve Bank of India, in consultation with the Central Government, once every three years.
3 The minutes of each MPC meeting are published on the fourteenth day after the meeting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 45ZB sets up the six-member MPC, which determines the policy repo rate needed to achieve the inflation target, and its decision binds the RBI.
Statement 2Incorrect
Under section 45ZA, the Central Government, in consultation with the RBI, sets the target in terms of the Consumer Price Index once every five years; it stands at 4 per cent with a tolerance band of plus or minus 2 per cent.
Statement 3Correct
Section 45ZL requires the minutes to be published on the fourteenth day after each meeting.
Analysis
The RBI released the minutes of the October 2026 meeting on 21 October 2026. At that meeting the MPC voted 6-0 to raise the repo rate by 25 basis points to 5.50 per cent, and moved its stance from neutral to calibrated tightening by a divided vote; ‘unanimous’ applies to the rate vote only.
Concept note
The Monetary Policy Committee is a creature of statute. Section 45ZB of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, inserted by the Finance Act, 2016 and in force from 27 June 2016, sets up a six-member committee: the RBI Governor as chairperson, the Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy, one RBI officer nominated by the Central Board, and three persons appointed by the Central Government.
It determines the policy repo rate needed to achieve the inflation target, and its decision binds the RBI. Under section 45ZI, the RBI must hold at least four meetings a year; the quorum is four, including the Governor or, in his absence, the Deputy Governor on the committee; each member has one vote, and in a tie the Governor has a second or casting vote.
Members appointed by the Centre serve four years and are not eligible for re-appointment (section 45ZD). Minutes are published on the fourteenth day after each meeting (section 45ZL).
Under section 45ZA, the Centre, in consultation with the RBI, sets the CPI target every five years: 4 per cent, plus or minus 2 per cent, renewed on 25 March 2026 to March 2031. If the RBI fails to meet the target, it must report to the Central Government (section 45ZN).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 Indian economy (monetary policy, inflation targeting), GS2 statutory bodies ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** flexible inflation targeting, policy repo rate, central bank accountability, transparency ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** thinking the RBI sets its own inflation target; the Central Government sets it, in consultation with the RBI, every five years ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** s.45ZA target (4 per cent plus or minus 2 per cent); s.45ZB composition; s.45ZI quorum and casting vote; s.45ZL minutes on the 14th day ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the Government or the central bank decide the inflation target? |
Question 9 of 13
1. Core inflation : CPI inflation excluding food and fuel
2. Diffusion index : the weighted share of items in the CPI basket with inflation above a threshold
3. Households' Inflation Expectations Survey : the RBI’s own forecast of inflation
4. Second-round effects of a supply shock : the direct rise in fuel and food prices
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
Core inflation is CPI inflation excluding food and fuel.
Pair 2Correct
A diffusion index is the weighted share of items in the CPI basket with inflation above a threshold, such as 4 or 6 per cent.
Pair 3Incorrect
The RBI’s bi-monthly survey records the median of households’ expectations; it is not an RBI forecast.
Pair 4Incorrect
The direct rise in fuel and food prices is the first round; second-round effects are inflation expectations, wage expectations and firm-level pricing behaviour, which can turn a one-time shock into broad, lasting inflation.
Analysis
In its editorial of 24 October 2026, The Indian Express argues that how far the RBI tightens will depend on whether second-round effects take hold. The MPC’s own view is that ‘there are only limited signs of supply side pressures getting embedded in pricing behaviour.’
Concept note
A supply shock, such as dearer crude oil or a poor harvest, first lifts the prices it touches directly: fuel, transport, food. Monetary policy can do little about that first round; as RBI Deputy Governor Poonam Gupta put it in May 2026, food and fuel prices are ‘inherently volatile and primarily driven by supply-side factors such as monsoon variability and global commodity cycles, on which monetary policy has limited traction’.
The MPC’s rationale says that ‘monetary policy primarily acts by curtailing second round effects (inflation expectations and firm level pricing behaviour, etc.), which take time to manifest and are difficult to extract from available data’. If households expect higher prices, workers seek higher wages and firms raise prices in advance, a one-time shock becomes generalised.
The RBI watches four signs of this: core inflation, diffusion indices, inflation expectations from its bi-monthly Households’ Inflation Expectations Survey, and firm-level pricing. In the survey’s September 2026 round, covering 19 major cities, the median expectation for the next three months rose 70 basis points to 9.9 per cent.
The minutes add a caution: second-round effects are hard to tell apart from the indirect cost of dearer energy and inputs, because both show up in the same indicators.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 Indian economy (inflation, its measurement and causes), GS3 monetary policy ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** supply shock, second-round effects, generalisation of inflation, anchoring expectations ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** treating the households' survey figure as an RBI forecast; it is the median of what households expect ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** first round: direct price effect of the shock; second round: expectations, wages and firm pricing, which monetary policy targets ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why should the RBI raise interest rates when crude oil and food, not demand, push prices up? |
Question 10 of 13
1 Article 47 of the Constitution directs the State to endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption, except for medicinal purposes, of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health.
2 Under Article 37, the Directive Principles of State Policy are enforceable by the courts.
3 Intoxicating liquors are a subject in the Concurrent List.
4 Drugs and poisons are a subject in the Union List.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 47, in Part IV, says the State ‘shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health’.
Statement 2Incorrect
Under Article 37 the Directive Principles cannot be enforced by any court, though they are ‘fundamental in the governance of the country’.
Statement 3Incorrect
Intoxicating liquors fall under Entry 8 of the State List, so each State decides whether to ban, tax or license alcohol.
Statement 4Incorrect
Drugs and poisons are Entry 19 of the Concurrent List, so Parliament legislates on them too, as in the NDPS Act, 1985.
Analysis
In its editorial of 24 October 2026, The Indian Express argues that Bihar’s prohibition, in force since April 2016, has not ended addiction, and that ‘Mere prohibition and criminalisation, as the experience of the last decade shows, can make matters worse.’
Concept note
Prohibition in India rests on a Directive Principle and a State subject. Article 47, in Part IV, asks the State to endeavour to bring about prohibition of intoxicating drinks and of drugs injurious to health, except for medicinal purposes; under Article 37 this cannot be enforced by any court, but it is ‘fundamental in the governance of the country’.
Entry 8 of the State List covers intoxicating liquors, from production and manufacture to possession, transport, purchase and sale, so each State chooses its own policy. Bihar went furthest.
The Bihar Excise (Amendment) Act, 2016 amended the law on 31 March 2016; country liquor was banned from 1 April 2016 and foreign liquor by a notification of 5 April 2016. The Patna High Court set that notification aside on 30 September 2016, and the Supreme Court stayed the High Court’s judgment on 7 October 2016.
The Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016 took over later that year. Since then the State has eased penalties: a 2018 amendment made certain penalties less stringent, and on 30 March 2022 the Assembly passed a Bill letting first-time offenders get bail from the duty magistrate on a fine, subject to the Governor’s approval.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 Indian Constitution (Directive Principles, the Seventh Schedule), GS2 government policies in the social sector, GS1 social issues ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Directive Principles, prohibition, State List, over-criminalisation ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** placing liquor in the Concurrent List; liquor is State List Entry 8, while drugs and poisons are Concurrent List Entry 19 ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 47 (prohibition, a DPSP); Article 37 (DPSPs not enforceable by courts); State List Entry 8; Concurrent List Entry 19 ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should a State enforce a Directive Principle through criminal law? |
Question 11 of 13
1 The Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act of 2026, a law of the United States, provided for a 100 per cent duty on goods from the largest importers of Russian crude oil and natural gas.
2 The duties provided for under that Act were waived by a US executive order.
3 India and the United States have concluded a Bilateral Trade Agreement.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Act, signed on 18 September 2026, provided for a 100 per cent duty on goods from the largest five importers of Russian crude oil and natural gas; the executive order of 16 October 2026 applied it only if a country knowingly makes new purchases on or after 18 October 2026.
Statement 2Correct
A US executive order of 16 October 2026 used Section 115 of the Act to waive the duties in Sections 112 and 113, until Washington decides that ‘further action is appropriate’.
Statement 3Incorrect
The agreement is still under negotiation; in Mumbai, US Secretary of State Marco Rubio said, as The Indian Express reported, ‘We’re very, very close’, with ‘a small number of items to wrap up’.
Analysis
The Hindu argues, in its editorial ‘Falling short’ of 24 October 2026, that Rubio’s second visit to India, to Mumbai and Jamnagar, ‘yielded little in terms of results’; that is the paper’s verdict. The waiver came before the visit; it was not an outcome of it.
Concept note
US Secretary of State Marco Rubio’s announced Indian itinerary named Mumbai and Jamnagar, not New Delhi, for 20 to 22 October 2026; he held talks with External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar in Mumbai on 20 October and visited Reliance’s Jamnagar refinery. The Hindu lists what New Delhi hoped for: moves towards concluding the Bilateral Trade Agreement, reassurance on US sanctions on the import of Russian oil, preparation for Trump-Modi meetings expected at the ASEAN summit in Manila and the G-20 summit in Miami, plans for a Quad summit that India has been trying to host, and a date for President Trump’s India visit.
The sanctions backdrop is a US law, the Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act of 2026, whose duties were waived by an executive order of 16 October 2026; the waiver eased the pressure without removing the uncertainty. In The Hindu’s view, trade, tariffs, H-1B restrictions and anti-immigrant measures remain unaddressed, and Rubio ‘must walk that talk’.
C. Raja Mohan, writing in The Indian Express on 21 October 2026, read the Jamnagar stop differently, as a sign that Indian capital is becoming part of India’s diplomatic arsenal. The leader-level meetings are expected, not held.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 India-US relations, GS2 effect of the policies of developed countries on India’s interests, GS3 energy security ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** secondary sanctions, strategic autonomy, trade negotiations, energy diplomacy ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** treating the Graham Act waiver as an outcome of Rubio’s visit; it came by an executive order before the visit ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Graham Act of 2026: Section 115 waiver of the duties in Sections 112 and 113, by an executive order of 16 October 2026 ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should India weigh optics against outcomes in judging a high-level visit? |
Question 12 of 13
1 It consolidated and amended the law under the Opium Act, 1878 and the Dangerous Drugs Act, 1930.
2 Its 2001 amendment sought deterrent sentences for traffickers in significant quantities of drugs and less severe punishment for addicts.
3 Under Section 37, every offence under the Act is cognizable.
4 Section 37 lays down twin conditions for the grant of bail in cases involving a commercial quantity.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The NDPS Act, 1985 (Act 61 of 1985) consolidated and amended the law under the Opium Act, 1878 and the Dangerous Drugs Act, 1930.
Statement 2Correct
The 2001 reform aimed at a graded system in which ‘drug traffickers who traffic in significant quantities of drugs are punished with deterrent sentences, the addicts and those who commit less serious offences are sentenced to less severe punishment.’
Statement 3Correct
Section 37 makes every offence under the Act cognizable.
Statement 4Correct
In commercial-quantity cases, Section 37 allows bail only on twin conditions, which a Supreme Court judgment of 2 June 2026 held mandatory.
Analysis
The Indian Express argues, in its editorial of 24 October 2026 on Bihar, that addiction must be treated as a social and psychological disease. The NDPS Act’s own sentencing logic draws a similar line: it is meant to be hardest on supply and gentlest on the user.
Concept note
Drugs and poisons are Entry 19 of the Concurrent List, so Parliament legislates on them; its main law is the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 (Act 61 of 1985), which consolidated and amended the law under the Opium Act, 1878 and the Dangerous Drugs Act, 1930, and has been amended in 1989, 2001, 2014 and 2021. The 2001 reform set up a graded system: deterrent sentences for those who traffic in significant quantities, and less severe punishment for addicts and those who commit less serious offences.
Section 37 makes every offence cognizable and, in commercial-quantity cases, allows bail only on twin conditions, which the Supreme Court held mandatory in State of Punjab v. Balraj Singh @ Billa on 2 June 2026. The treatment side is thin.
The national survey run by NDDTC, AIIMS in 2018, whose report was released on 18 February 2019, found about 14.6 per cent of Indians aged 10 to 75 currently using alcohol, about 5.2 per cent affected by harmful or dependent use, and just about one in 38 people with alcohol dependence reporting any treatment. For Mains, the Act’s logic supports a split: firm policing for supply, treatment for users.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 government policies in the health and social sectors, GS3 internal security (drug trafficking) ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** graded sentencing, harm reduction, de-addiction, supply and demand reduction ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** reading the NDPS Act as punishing users and traffickers alike; its 2001 reform graded sentences by quantity and role ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NDPS Act, 1985 (Act 61); amended 1989, 2001, 2014, 2021; Section 37: offences cognizable, twin conditions for commercial-quantity bail ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should drug users be treated as patients or as offenders? |
Question 13 of 13
Statement-I: Under the Electricity Act, 2003, the Appropriate Commission may grant a licence to two or more persons for distribution of electricity through their own distribution systems within the same area.
Statement-II: An order of a State Electricity Regulatory Commission granting such a licence can be challenged before the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
A proviso to Section 14 of the Act says ‘the Appropriate Commission may grant a licence to two or more persons for distribution of electricity through their own distribution system within the same area’.
Statement IICorrectDoes not explain Statement I
The Appellate Tribunal for Electricity is the forum for a challenge to such an order; that is a matter of appeal, not the source of the power to grant a parallel licence.
Analysis
On 19 October 2026 the Haryana Electricity Regulatory Commission (HERC) granted a 25-year parallel electricity distribution licence to a private company, Eleven Power Private Limited, for Gurugram and Nuh districts, The Indian Express reported. The State government had said it would challenge the order before the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity; on Friday 23 October it decided instead to seek a review and cancellation of the order, The Hindu reported.
Concept note
Electricity distribution has long meant one licensee per area, but the Electricity Act, 2003 allows more. A proviso to Section 14 says ‘the Appropriate Commission may grant a licence to two or more persons for distribution of electricity through their own distribution system within the same area’.
A licence of this kind is called a parallel distribution licence, and for an area within a State the Appropriate Commission is the State’s regulator. In Haryana, the Haryana Electricity Regulatory Commission on 19 October 2026 granted a 25-year parallel licence to Eleven Power Private Limited for Gurugram and Nuh districts; the company’s business plan puts capital expenditure at Rs 4,717 crore over five years, The Indian Express reported.
The State government had said it would challenge the order before the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity; on Friday 23 October, The Hindu reported, it decided to seek a review and cancellation of the order, and electricity employees called off their strike. For Mains, a parallel licence can give consumers a choice of supplier and so bring competition into distribution, while the State’s challenge shows the friction that can arise between a State government and its own regulator.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 infrastructure (energy, the power sector), GS2 regulatory bodies ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** distribution competition, consumer choice, regulatory independence, power sector reform ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** thinking only one distribution licensee is allowed in an area; a proviso to Section 14 allows two or more ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Electricity Act, 2003, Section 14 proviso: two or more distribution licensees in the same area ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Will competition in electricity distribution help consumers or only the most profitable areas? |
Performance
Question-wise Result