UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 20 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
10 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 10
Statement-I: China’s export controls on tunnel-boring machines do not, in their text, prohibit the export of these machines to India.
Statement-II: The controls name no country; they require a licence for exports to 'sensitive countries and regions' that have disputes with China, and registration with end-use undertakings for all other destinations.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Announcement No. 50 of 2026 sets up a licence route and a registration route; it is not a ban on exports to India, and whether China counts India among the ‘sensitive’ destinations is not stated.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
The text names no country; exports to ‘sensitive countries and regions’ with disputes with China need a licence, and all other destinations need registration and end-use undertakings, so the text itself bars no named country.
Analysis
Issued by MOFCOM and the General Administration of Customs on 19 October 2026, the controls take effect on 18 November 2026 and also cover walking excavators and high-altitude wet-spraying machines. India, which depends on imported TBMs, has earlier raised customs delays for these machines with China, The Hindu reported.
Concept note
China’s export-control framework covers dual-use items, which its 2024 Regulations on Export Control of Dual-Use Items define as goods, technologies and services usable for civil or military purposes. It rests on the Export Control Law, adopted on 17 October 2020 and in force from 1 December 2020, and on the Dual-Use Regulations, in force from 1 December 2024.
Announcement No. 50 of 2026, issued by MOFCOM and the General Administration of Customs on 19 October 2026 and in force from 18 November 2026, lists full-face tunnel-boring machines (shield and hard-rock types), their key parts and remanufacturing technology, along with walking excavators and high-altitude wet-spraying machines for use above 3,000 m. It uses two routes: a licence for ‘sensitive countries and regions’ that have disputes with China, and registration with end-use undertakings for all other destinations. Foreign parties also need a licence to re-export these items to the sensitive destinations.
The same day, Announcement No. 49 covered drones and No. 51 dredger items. India uses TBMs for metro rail, railway corridors and tunnelling, including in border areas, and depends on imports for them; separately, a 16 October plan on more than 40 technologies remains a draft.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 effect of other countries' policies on India’s interests; GS3 infrastructure and supply chains. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** dual-use export controls, economic statecraft, supply-chain resilience, licensing discretion. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading a licence requirement for unnamed 'sensitive' destinations as a ban on exports to India. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Keep the issue date (19 October 2026) apart from the in-force date (18 November 2026), and a draft plan apart from rules in force. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should India reduce its dependence on imported tunnel-boring machines without delaying critical projects? |
Question 2 of 10
1 It is designed to land on Deimos and collect a sample there, observing Phobos only from a distance.
2 Its rover, IDEFIX, was jointly developed by the French space agency CNES and the German Aerospace Center (DLR).
3 Japan’s earlier Hayabusa2 mission returned samples from the asteroid Ryugu, with its capsule landing in Australia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
MMX targets Phobos, the larger of Mars’s two moons, where it will land and collect at least 10 g of surface material; Deimos will be observed from a distance during a flyby, with no landing.
Statement 2Correct
IDEFIX, a 25 kg rover, was jointly developed by CNES and DLR and lands before the main spacecraft.
Statement 3Correct
Hayabusa2 touched down twice on the C-type asteroid Ryugu in 2019 and returned its capsule to the Woomera Prohibited Area in Australia in December 2020.
Analysis
JAXA launched MMX on H3 flight No. 10 from the Tanegashima Space Center at 04:41:03 JST on 20 October 2026. ESA’s factsheet says MMX will be the first mission to land on Phobos and the first to return a sample from the Mars system, if it succeeds.
Concept note
JAXA’s Martian Moons eXploration (MMX) is planned as a round trip of about five years to the Martian system. About one year after launch it is to arrive near Mars and enter a Quasi-Satellite Orbit, which flies close to Phobos for detailed observation.
The rover IDEFIX (25 kg) will land first; the main spacecraft will then land and collect at least 10 g with two samplers, a corer that takes cores from a depth of two centimetres and a pneumatic sampler that uses pressurised gas. Deimos is observed only during a flyby.
The Sample Return Capsule, about 60 cm in diameter, is to land in Australia in Japanese fiscal year 2031, and the samples go to ISAS at Sagamihara. The science question is how the moons formed: from debris after a giant impact on Mars, or as asteroids captured by Mars’s gravity.
The partners are NASA, CNES, DLR and ESA. India’s Chandrayaan-4, approved by the Union Cabinet on 18 September 2024 at Rs 2,104.06 crore with two LVM3 launches, is a Moon sample-return mission, not a Mars mission.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 space technology; GS2 international cooperation in science (NASA, CNES, DLR, ESA). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** sample return, planetary formation, Quasi-Satellite Orbit, international collaboration. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking MMX samples the Martian surface or lands on Deimos; it lands on Phobos and only observes Deimos. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Phobos (fear) and Deimos (terror) are named after the sons of the Greek war god Ares; Phobos is the larger moon. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India pursue sample-return missions on its own, or through partnerships like the one behind MMX? |
Question 3 of 10
1 Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) is produced by the International Bureau of Weights and Measures (BIPM) and runs at the same rate as International Atomic Time (TAI).
2 Under the leap-second rule followed since 1972, UTC was kept within 0.9 seconds of UT1, the time scale describing the Earth’s rotation.
3 A negative leap second, in which a second is removed from UTC, has been applied at least once.
4 The General Conference on Weights and Measures has set 3,600 seconds as the maximum value for the difference between UT1 and UTC.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The BIPM produces UTC ‘with the same rate as International Atomic Time (TAI), but differing from TAI only by an integral number of seconds’.
Statement 2Correct
From 1 January 1972, leap seconds kept UTC within 0.9 seconds of UT1.
Statement 3Incorrect
No negative leap second has ever been applied; all 27 leap seconds so far were insertions.
Statement 4Correct
Resolution 5 of the 28th CGPM sets the maximum value of |UT1-UTC| at 3,600 seconds (1 hour).
Analysis
The Indian Express, in its editorial of 20 October 2026, backs the decision, since ‘The risk to computer systems is lower’. The resolution sets a ceiling, not a ‘leap hour’, and UTC itself continues; only the leap-second step ends, from 20 May 2027.
Concept note
Two kinds of time meet in Coordinated Universal Time (UTC). Atomic clocks give International Atomic Time (TAI); the Earth’s slightly irregular rotation gives UT1.
UTC, produced by the BIPM, runs at TAI’s rate but differs from TAI by a whole number of seconds. From 1 January 1972, leap seconds kept UTC within 0.9 seconds of UT1, and the IERS decided them about six months ahead.
TAI-UTC rose from 10 seconds in 1972 to 37 seconds from 1 January 2017, so 27 leap seconds were inserted and none was removed. Resolution 5 of the 28th General Conference on Weights and Measures (CGPM), adopted at Versailles on 15 October 2026, decides that continuous UTC will become effective on 20 May 2027 and that |UT1-UTC| may reach at most 3,600 seconds.
Its reasons: transport, energy, telecom and space projects need UTC without adjustment; a CCTF-IERS workshop put the probability of a negative leap second at 30 per cent by 2035; and service providers’ differing fixes cause inconsistency between systems. In India, CSIR-NPL keeps Indian Standard Time traceable to UTC within a few nanoseconds, so the change reaches every system synchronised to IST.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 science in everyday life, critical infrastructure and cybersecurity; GS2 international institutions (BIPM, CGPM, ITU). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** continuous UTC, negative leap second, time synchronisation, metrological traceability. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying UTC is abolished or that a 'leap hour' is scheduled; only the leap-second step ends, and one hour is a ceiling. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** UTC shares TAI’s rate; TAI-UTC has been 37 seconds since 1 January 2017. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** When a global standard changes, who should bear the cost: the engineers who gain or the users of Earth-rotation time? |
Question 4 of 10
1 Section 17A requires prior approval before an enquiry, inquiry or investigation into an offence relatable to a recommendation made or decision taken by a public servant in the discharge of official functions or duties.
2 No such approval is needed for the arrest of a person on the spot on the charge of accepting or attempting to accept any undue advantage.
3 The prior approval under Section 17A and the sanction for prosecution under Section 19 are the same requirement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 17A applies where there is a recommendation or a decision taken by a public servant in the discharge of official duties, and it requires prior approval before such a probe.
Statement 2Correct
Its proviso says no approval is needed for the arrest of a person on the spot on the charge of accepting or attempting to accept any undue advantage.
Statement 3Incorrect
Section 17A approval concerns the start of a probe, while Section 19 sanction is needed for prosecution; in the case decided on 16 October 2026, Section 19 sanction was granted on 8 December 2023.
Analysis
In that judgment, a Bench of Justices S.V.N. Bhatti and N.V. Anjaria held that Section 17A did not protect a police constable accused of demanding a bribe: ‘The decisive phrase in the Section is discharge of official functions or duties.’
Concept note
The Prevention of Corruption (PC) Act has three provisions an aspirant must keep apart. Section 7 punishes public servants who accept, obtain or attempt to obtain an undue advantage to improperly or dishonestly perform a public duty.
Section 17A, inserted in 2018, requires prior approval before a probe into an offence relatable to a recommendation made or decision taken by a public servant in the discharge of official functions or duties; its proviso exempts the arrest of a person on the spot while accepting or attempting to accept an undue advantage. Section 19 deals with sanction for prosecution.
On 16 October 2026, the Supreme Court held that Section 17A did not cover Tejaram, a Rajasthan police constable posted at Sirohi who was accused of demanding Rs 1.5 lakh, because the alleged demand was not linked to any decision or recommendation in his official duties. The validity of Section 17A is a separate question: in January 2026, Justice Nagarathna struck the section down while Justice K.V. Viswanathan upheld it by reading it narrowly, and the matter was placed before the Chief Justice of India for a larger Bench, Bar & Bench reported.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 probity in governance and accountability of public servants; GS4 integrity and the protection of honest decision-making. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** prior approval, sanction for prosecution, honest decision-making, accountability. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating Section 17A approval (before a probe) as the same as Section 19 sanction (before prosecution). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 17A was inserted in 2018; its proviso exempts arrest on the spot while accepting an undue advantage. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does prior approval protect honest officers, or does it shield corrupt ones? |
Question 5 of 10
Facts
Option (d) is correct: a ryotwari patta is an official revenue document and land record issued to an individual cultivator (ryot), certifying the right to occupy and cultivate a specific piece of land while paying land tax directly to the government. The tempting distractor is (b): it describes government land such as a tank recorded as poramboke, which the Supreme Court contrasted with ryoti land eligible for a patta. Option (c) describes an arrangement through an intermediary, while a ryotwari patta holder pays land tax directly to the government.
Option (a) is a mortgage, a separate transaction.
Analysis
On 16 October 2026 the Supreme Court upheld the cancellation of a ryotwari patta granted in 2011 over land recorded in 1911 as ‘Government Poramboke’ at Thirumullaivoyal, Tiruvallur district, Tamil Nadu, and directed an alternative site for 20 flat owners before demolition.
Concept note
A ryotwari patta, in The Hindu’s description, is an official revenue document and land record issued to an individual cultivator (ryot), certifying their right to occupy and cultivate a specific piece of land while paying land tax directly to the government. Government land such as a tank, recorded as poramboke, stands apart from ryoti land that is eligible for a patta.
In the case decided on 16 October 2026, the 1911 resettlement register recorded land at Thirumullaivoyal village in Tiruvallur district as ‘Government Poramboke’. The District Revenue Officer, Tiruvallur, granted a patta for 0.72 acres in January 2011, and 20 flats were later built on the land.
The Commissioner of Land Administration set the patta aside in December 2019, and the Madras High Court upheld the cancellation and directed restoration of the water body. A Bench of Justices S.V.N. Bhatti and N.V. Anjaria, with Justice Bhatti writing, dismissed three civil appeals.
It directed the Chief Secretary and the District Collector to allot them a vacant, commensurate site, preferably within six months, and then demolish 0.22 acres of construction, without breaching Section 14-A of the Tamil Nadu Estates (Abolition and Conversion into Ryotwari) Act, 1948.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 land revenue systems in modern Indian history; GS2 and GS3 land administration and the protection of water bodies. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** ryotwari patta, poramboke land, water-body restoration, reliance on revenue records. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing ryotwari, where the cultivator pays land tax directly to the government, with arrangements that run through an intermediary landlord. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** The ryot under a ryotwari patta pays land tax directly to the government. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should the State balance restoring water bodies with the claims of flat buyers who relied on official records? |
Question 6 of 10
1 The northeast monsoon affects parts of India from October to December.
2 The northeast monsoon is more intense than the southwest monsoon and matters mainly for kharif crops.
3 The El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO) has three phases: El Niño, La Niña and a neutral phase.
4 La Niña usually has a warming effect on the planet, while El Niño has a cooling effect.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The northeast monsoon affects parts of the country from October to December.
Statement 2Incorrect
The northeast monsoon is less intense than the southwest monsoon and is significant for rabi crops; the southwest monsoon drives the kharif cycle.
Statement 3Correct
El Niño is one of the three phases of ENSO, with La Niña and a neutral phase.
Statement 4Incorrect
El Niño has a warming effect on the planet, while La Niña usually results in cooling.
Analysis
The IMD said the southwest monsoon withdrew from the entire country on 15 October 2026, and northeast monsoon rain began the same day over Tamil Nadu and neighbouring areas. The season ended 12.6% below normal, The Hindu reported, citing the IMD, and El Niño conditions that emerged in June were a key reason.
Concept note
India has two monsoon seasons. The southwest monsoon is active from June to September and drives the kharif crop cycle.
The northeast monsoon affects parts of the country from October to December; it is less intense, but significant for rabi crops. In 2026, the IMD said the southwest monsoon withdrew from the entire country on 15 October, and northeast monsoon rainfall activity commenced the same day over Tamil Nadu, Puducherry and Karaikal, Coastal Andhra Pradesh, Rayalaseema, South Interior Karnataka, and Kerala and Mahe.
It forecast a wet spell with isolated heavy falls over south peninsular India. The Hindu, citing the IMD, reported a season total of 759.4 mm, 12.6% below the normal of 868.6 mm, and named El Niño conditions, which emerged in June, as a key reason.
El Niño is one of the three phases of the El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO). It leads to less monsoon rainfall in India and has a warming effect on the planet; its opposite phase, La Niña, usually results in cooling, and ENSO also has a neutral phase.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 the Indian monsoon and climate; GS3 agriculture and crop seasons. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** ENSO, northeast monsoon, rainfall deficit, kharif and rabi. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reversing the climate effects: El Niño warms the planet and weakens India’s monsoon; La Niña usually cools it. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Southwest monsoon, June to September (kharif); northeast monsoon, October to December (rabi). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should India prepare its farmers for a year of El Niño and a weak monsoon? |
Question 7 of 10
1 China Merchants Port Holdings holds the majority stake in the Colombo International Container Terminal (CICT).
2 Adani International Port Holdings holds a majority stake in the Colombo West International Terminal (CWIT).
3 Under the proposed joint venture for the South Asia Commercial and Logistics Hub, the Sri Lanka Ports Authority was to hold the majority stake.
4 The proposed South Asia Commercial and Logistics Hub was to follow a Build-Operate-Transfer model.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
China Merchants Port Holdings holds 85% of the CICT.
Statement 2Correct
Adani International Port Holdings holds 51% of the adjoining CWIT.
Statement 3Incorrect
China Merchants was to hold 70%, with the Sri Lanka Ports Authority and Access Engineering PLC at 15% each.
Statement 4Correct
China Merchants’ 2023 disclosure to the Hong Kong exchange set out a Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT) model.
Analysis
The SLPA said on 19 October 2026 that the $392 million joint venture would not proceed, formally confirming an exit first reported in May 2026. It now plans a new logistics hub under a Public-Private Partnership model, through competitive bidding.
Concept note
The Port of Colombo lies along key shipping routes, and both Chinese and Indian companies hold terminals there. China Merchants Port Holdings holds 85% of the Colombo International Container Terminal (CICT), and Adani International Port Holdings holds 51% of the adjoining Colombo West International Terminal (CWIT).
China Merchants is also involved in managing the southern Hambantota Port. In 2023, China Merchants announced a $392 million joint venture for the South Asia Commercial and Logistics Hub (SACLH), with 70% for itself and 15% each for the Sri Lanka Ports Authority (SLPA) and Access Engineering PLC, on a Build-Operate-Transfer model.
It was touted as the first major foreign direct investment to enter Sri Lanka after the country’s 2022 debt default. On 17 May 2026, The Sunday Morning reported that the project had been cancelled.
China Merchants’ filing to the Hong Kong stock exchange on 15 October 2026 and the SLPA’s statement of 19 October formally confirmed the exit. The Hindu called it the second big exit from an agreed project in Sri Lanka, after Adani Green withdrew from a $442-million renewable energy project in northern Sri Lanka in February 2025.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 India and its neighbourhood; GS3 port infrastructure and investment models (BOT, PPP). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** port diplomacy, debt distress, Build-Operate-Transfer, competitive bidding. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading the October statements as fresh news of a pull-out; the exit was first reported in May 2026. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CICT is China Merchants (85%); CWIT is Adani (51%); both are at Colombo, while Hambantota is in the south. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India welcome Sri Lanka’s move to open bidding for the hub, and how should Indian firms compete? |
Question 8 of 10
1 It serves as a single-window gateway to PM-KISAN, AgriStack and the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana.
2 It was developed in compliance with website guidelines issued by the Ministry of Rural Development.
3 It provides for online eligibility checks and the transfer of financial assistance through Direct Benefit Transfer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The platform will serve as a single-window gateway to major government initiatives, including PM-KISAN, AgriStack and the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana.
Statement 2Incorrect
It was developed in compliance with the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology’s Digital Brand Identity Manual 3.0 and Guidelines for Indian Government Websites 3.0, not guidelines of the Ministry of Rural Development.
Statement 3Correct
It offers online eligibility checks, direct applications and the transfer of financial assistance through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
Analysis
Union Minister for Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare and Rural Development Shivraj Singh Chouhan launched the portal on 19 October 2026; because he holds both portfolios, statement 2 is a tempting trap.
Concept note
The upgraded Agri Welfare Portal, launched on 19 October 2026 by Union Minister for Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare and Rural Development Shivraj Singh Chouhan, aims to give farmers direct, easy access to government schemes, financial assistance and agricultural information on their mobile phones. It acts as a single window to PM-KISAN, AgriStack and the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana.
Its design follows two standards of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY): the Digital Brand Identity Manual 3.0 and the Guidelines for Indian Government Websites 3.0. Online eligibility checks, direct applications and Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) are meant to reduce the role of intermediaries.
The portal is lightweight enough for basic smartphones and areas with weak connectivity, carries information on weather, scientific farming practices, the availability of seeds and fertilisers, and market prices, and supports screen readers and simple navigation for persons with disabilities. It also brings together Farmer Producer Organisations, Primary Agricultural Credit Societies, agricultural scientists, researchers and startups, and a special training campaign will be conducted through Krishi Vigyan Kendras across the country.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 e-technology in aid of farmers and DBT; GS2 e-governance and accessibility. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** single-window delivery, Direct Benefit Transfer, digital agriculture, last-mile access. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Crediting the website standards to the Agriculture or Rural Development Ministry; they are MeitY’s. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** PM-KISAN, AgriStack and PMFBY are the three initiatives named for the single window. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can a portal reach small and marginal farmers who have limited formal education? |
Question 9 of 10
Place : Country or State
1. Kualanamu International Airport : Indonesia
2. Nandankanan Zoological Park : Odisha
3. Woomera Prohibited Area : Australia
4. Tanegashima Space Center : Japan
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
Kualanamu International Airport is at Medan, Indonesia, where a baby Sumatran orangutan repatriated from India arrived on 19 October 2026.
Pair 2Correct
Nandankanan Zoological Park is in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, where five young orangutans rescued in Odisha are being cared for.
Pair 3Correct
Hayabusa2’s capsule landed at the Woomera Prohibited Area in Australia in December 2020, and MMX’s capsule is also planned to land in Australia.
Pair 4Correct
JAXA launched MMX on H3 flight No. 10 from the Tanegashima Space Center in Japan.
Analysis
Pair 2 is the one most often doubted, but it is correct: the orangutan that went home was repatriated from Gujarat, while the Odisha animals are at Nandankanan, awaiting confirmation of their species and origin.
Concept note
Place-based questions reward reading the map behind each story. A baby orangutan of Sumatran origin, rescued in India in 2024, was repatriated from Gujarat and arrived at Kualanamu International Airport in Medan, Indonesia, on 19 October 2026.
The CITES Management Authorities of India and Indonesia coordinated its return, and officials of the Consulate General of India attended a reception organised by Indonesia’s Ministry of Forestry. Five young orangutans rescued in Odisha in September are being cared for at Nandankanan Zoological Park in Bhubaneswar while their species and origin are confirmed; their repatriation is not yet done.
In space, JAXA launched its MMX mission to Phobos on H3 flight No. 10 from the Tanegashima Space Center in Japan. Japan’s earlier sample-return mission, Hayabusa2, returned its capsule from the asteroid Ryugu to the Woomera Prohibited Area in Australia in December 2020.
MMX’s Sample Return Capsule is also planned to land in Australia, in Japanese fiscal year 2031, with the samples going to JAXA’s Institute of Space and Astronautical Science at Sagamihara, near Tokyo.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 places in the news (map); GS3 conservation (CITES) and space technology. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** wildlife trafficking, repatriation, CITES Management Authority, sample return. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the Odisha orangutans in Gujarat; Gujarat is where the repatriated animal was sent from. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Tanegashima is Japan’s launch site; Woomera in Australia received Hayabusa2’s capsule. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What does India gain by returning rescued wildlife to its country of origin at its own cost? |
Question 10 of 10
1 It is designed to land on the Moon, collect samples and bring them back to Earth for analysis.
2 It is planned as a single launch of the LVM3 rocket.
3 The Cabinet release approving it said the mission was expected to be completed within 24 months of approval.
4 The same release placed it within a wider vision that includes a Bharatiya Antariksh Station by 2035 and an Indian landing on the Moon by 2040.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The mission is meant ‘to develop and demonstrate the technologies to come back to Earth after successfully landing on the Moon and also collect moon samples and analyse them on Earth’ (PIB).
Statement 2Incorrect
It needs two LVM3 launch missions, at a total cost of Rs 2,104.06 crore.
Statement 3Incorrect
The 2024 Cabinet release said it was ‘expected to be completed within 36 months of approval’.
Statement 4Correct
The release placed it within a vision of a Bharatiya Antariksh Station by 2035 and an Indian landing on the Moon by 2040.
Analysis
Japan’s MMX, launched on 20 October 2026, aims to return a sample from Phobos; Chandrayaan-4’s plan names the same links in the chain: docking, landing, safe return and analysis on Earth.
Concept note
A sample-return mission must reach and land on a body, collect material and bring it safely back to Earth for analysis. India’s Chandrayaan-4, approved by the Union Cabinet on 18 September 2024, is designed to do this on the Moon: in the words of the PIB release, ‘to develop and demonstrate the technologies to come back to Earth after successfully landing on the Moon and also collect moon samples and analyse them on Earth’.
It needs two LVM3 launch missions, at a total cost of Rs 2,104.06 crore, and the release said it was ‘expected to be completed within 36 months of approval’. Its heritage is Chandrayaan-3’s soft landing on the Moon.
The release placed the mission within a wider vision: a Bharatiya Antariksh Station by 2035 and an Indian landing on the Moon by 2040. Japan’s MMX, launched on 20 October 2026 from the Tanegashima Space Center, shows how long that chain can be at a greater distance: a long cruise, close-orbit operations, two landings, a capsule built to survive re-entry and a laboratory to receive the sample.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 space technology and indigenisation; GS2 international cooperation in space. ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** sample return, technology demonstration, docking, safe return, India’s space vision. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling Chandrayaan-4 a single-launch mission or a Mars mission; it is a Moon sample-return mission with two LVM3 launches. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Approved 18 September 2024; Rs 2,104.06 crore; two LVM3 launches; 36 months from approval. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What can India learn from Japan’s sample-return missions as it prepares Chandrayaan-4? |
Performance
Question-wise Result