UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 17 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
14 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 14
1 Tier 1 capital is described as going-concern capital and must be at least 7% of risk-weighted assets.
2 Common Equity Tier 1 capital must be at least 5.5% of risk-weighted assets.
3 The point of non-viability trigger for Additional Tier 1 (AT-1) bonds is determined by the issuing bank’s Board of Directors.
4 Tier 2 capital is described as gone-concern capital.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The RBI’s Master Circular calls Tier 1 ‘going-concern capital’ and sets it at at least 7% of risk-weighted assets.
Statement 2Correct
Within that 7%, Common Equity Tier 1 must be at least 5.5%, and the remaining 1.5% may optionally be AT-1.
Statement 3Incorrect
The point of non-viability is determined by the RBI, and at that trigger ‘it is then the RBI which must write down the Bonds’.
Statement 4Correct
Tier 2 is ‘gone-concern capital’.
Analysis
Dismissing the appeals against the Bombay High Court’s order, the Supreme Court held that Yes Bank’s Administrator had no power to write down Rs 8,415 crore of AT-1 bonds, because neither trigger was used by the authority entitled to use it.
Concept note
Basel III is the capital framework of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision at the Bank for International Settlements, which the RBI applied through its Master Circular on Basel III Capital Regulations of 1 July 2015, the version in force in March 2020. Capital comes in layers.
Tier 1 is going-concern capital and must be at least 7% of risk-weighted assets; within it, Common Equity Tier 1 must be at least 5.5%, and the remaining 1.5% may be Additional Tier 1 instruments. Tier 2 is gone-concern capital.
An AT-1 bond must be able to absorb losses, and Annex 16 of the Master Circular gives it two triggers. The pre-specified trigger bites when CET1 falls below 6.125% of risk-weighted assets, which is the 5.5% minimum plus 25% of the capital conservation buffer; the bank then has the option to convert or write down.
The point of non-viability is determined by the RBI. Yes Bank’s CET1 had fallen to 0.6% on 31 December 2019 against a requirement of 7.375%.
The bank chose not to use the first trigger, and the RBI did not use the second. The Court also noted that AT-1 bonds, as high-risk securities, are to be offered only to institutional investors, yet Yes Bank had offered them to individuals.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (banking, capital adequacy, bank resolution); GS2 (regulatory bodies, judicial review). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** loss absorbency, point of non-viability, bail-in, regulatory accountability. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the bank or its Administrator decides the point of non-viability; under the Master Circular it is the RBI. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Tier 1 at least 7% of RWAs (CET1 at least 5.5%, the remaining 1.5% may be AT-1); pre-specified trigger: CET1 below 6.125%. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should AT-1 bonds be sold to individual investors at all? |
Question 2 of 14
1 Section 45 of the Act deals with a moratorium on a banking company and a scheme of its reconstruction or amalgamation.
2 Under section 36ACA, the Reserve Bank of India may, in consultation with the Central Government, supersede the Board of Directors of a banking company for up to six months, extendable to a total of twelve months.
3 An Administrator appointed under section 36ACA must be an officer of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The moratorium on Yes Bank of 5 March 2020 and the Yes Bank Limited Reconstruction Scheme, 2020 were both made under section 45.
Statement 2Correct
Section 36ACA lets the RBI, in consultation with the Central Government, supersede a Board for up to six months, extendable to a total of twelve months, and appoint an Administrator.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Administrator is not to be an officer of the Central or a State Government, but a person with experience in law, finance, banking, economics or accountancy.
Analysis
The Supreme Court held that the Administrator ‘acts as a substitute for the Board of Directors’ and that he ‘could not have assumed the regulatory role of the RBI’.
Concept note
The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 carries the main tools for rescuing a failing bank. Section 45 provides for a moratorium and a scheme of reconstruction or amalgamation: for Yes Bank, the Central Government imposed a moratorium on 5 March 2020 till 3 April 2020, and the Yes Bank Limited Reconstruction Scheme, 2020 came into force on 13 March 2020.
Section 36ACA lets the RBI, in consultation with the Central Government, supersede a bank’s Board for up to six months, extendable to a total of twelve months, and appoint an Administrator. The Administrator is not an officer of the Central or a State Government, must have experience in law, finance, banking, economics or accountancy, and is bound to follow the RBI’s directions.
The Supreme Court’s reading of these powers is the core of its Yes Bank judgment of 15 October 2026. The Administrator stands in for the Board, so his powers are the Board’s, not the regulator’s. His write-down of the AT-1 bonds on 14 March 2020, the day after the Scheme took effect, was held ultra vires.
In the Court’s words: ‘Any act performed by the administrator beyond the powers clothed upon him would be wholly illegal and void.’
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (judicial review of administrative action, statutory powers); GS3 (banking regulation, bank resolution). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** ultra vires, rule of law, bank resolution, separation of supervisory and managerial roles. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating a section 36ACA Administrator as the RBI’s delegate with regulatory powers; he stands in for the superseded Board. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 45 = moratorium and scheme of reconstruction or amalgamation; section 36ACA = supersession of the Board (six months, up to twelve in all) and an Administrator. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** When speed matters in a bank rescue, how much procedure can the law afford to insist on? |
Question 3 of 14
Statement-I: Aditya-L1 observes the Sun while travelling steadily closer to it.
Statement-II: At the Lagrange point L1 of the Sun-Earth system, the gravitational forces of the Sun and the Earth are in equilibrium.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement IIncorrect
Aditya-L1 is in a halo orbit around the Sun-Earth L1 point, about 1.5 million km from Earth, or about 1% of the Earth-Sun distance, and ISRO says it ‘will neither land on the Sun nor approach the Sun any closer.’
Statement IICorrect
ISRO describes L1 as ‘a location in space where the gravitational forces of two celestial bodies, such as the Sun and Earth, are in equilibrium.’ (ISRO’s own description; strictly, at L1 the combined pull of the Sun and the Earth supplies the force that keeps a spacecraft in step with the Earth’s orbit.)
Analysis
A halo orbit around L1 has ‘the major advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without any occultation/eclipses.’ That steady view let Aditya-L1’s VELC join ESA’s Proba-3 in the first joint analysis of the same coronal mass ejections, which ISRO announced on 15 October 2026.
Concept note
Aditya-L1 is India’s first dedicated solar mission. Launched on PSLV-C57 on 2 September 2023, it reached a halo orbit around the Sun-Earth L1 point on 6 January 2024.
‘Aditya’ means the Sun in Sanskrit, and L1 is Lagrange Point 1 of the Sun-Earth system, about 1.5 million km from Earth. ISRO says all seven of its payloads were developed indigenously: four view the Sun directly and three study particles and fields in situ at L1.
The prime payload, the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC), built by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics, Bengaluru, takes spectra of the corona from 1.05 to 1.5 solar radii in the 5303 Angstrom green line. A coronagraph blocks the Sun’s disc to make an artificial eclipse, because the Sun is around a million times brighter than the brightest point in the corona.
ESA’s Proba-3, launched by India’s PSLV-XL from Sriharikota on 5 December 2024, does this with two spacecraft about 150 m apart, one casting a shadow on the other, and its ASPIICS coronagraph takes images. Together the two instruments caught two coronal mass ejections, of 14 and 16 September 2025, and their estimates of mass and thermal energy agree well.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (space technology, achievements of Indians in science and technology); GS1 (the Sun and Earth’s space environment). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** space weather, Lagrange point, halo orbit, international scientific cooperation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking Aditya-L1 flies towards the Sun; it stays in a halo orbit around L1, about 1% of the way from Earth to the Sun. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Aditya-L1: PSLV-C57, seven payloads, VELC (IIA, Bengaluru) the prime payload; Proba-3 is ESA’s, launched by a PSLV. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** India launched Proba-3, and an IIA-led team now pairs its data with Aditya-L1’s: is that the right model for space cooperation? |
Question 4 of 14
1 The Crew Module is the pressurised, habitable module, while the Service Module is unpressurised.
2 The Crew Escape System uses quick-acting liquid-propellant engines.
3 The Crew Module stays joined to the Service Module until after re-entry.
4 HLVM3 is the LVM3 launcher, with solid, liquid and cryogenic stages, re-configured for human rating.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Crew Module is habitable, pressurised and built for re-entry, while the Service Module is unpressurised and supports the Crew Module in orbit.
Statement 2Incorrect
The Crew Escape System uses quick-acting, high burn rate solid motors; it was the TV-D1 test vehicle that was liquid-propelled, with a modified VIKAS engine.
Statement 3Incorrect
The two fly as a single integrated module until the on-orbit phase is complete, and the Crew Module is separated from the Service Module before re-entry.
Statement 4Correct
HLVM3 is LVM3, with solid, liquid and cryogenic stages, re-configured for human rating.
Analysis
ISRO announced on 16 October 2026 that separation tests at VSSC had validated the design adequacy of the CM-SM separation systems, a step towards G1, the first uncrewed mission.
Concept note
Gaganyaan aims, in ISRO’s words, at ‘launching crew of 3 members to an orbit of 400 km for a 3 days mission’ and bringing them back safely to a landing in Indian sea waters. The launcher is HLVM3, the LVM3 with its solid, liquid and cryogenic stages re-configured for human rating.
The spacecraft, the Orbital Module, has two parts joined by a separation system: the Crew Module, habitable and built for re-entry, and the unpressurised Service Module, which supports it in orbit. Before re-entry the CM is separated from the SM through multiple, precisely sequenced events involving pyrotechnic devices and jettisoning systems; the ground tests at VSSC simulated this, including the severing of several umbilical connections.
Safety is being proven one system at a time. The TV-D1 flight of 21 October 2023 demonstrated an in-flight abort of the Crew Escape System at Mach 1.2, air-drop tests exercised the deceleration system of 10 parachutes of 4 types, and the fifth main-parachute airdrop test qualified the Main Parachute for the maximum expected loads of G1.
G1, the first uncrewed mission, is to carry the Vyommitra half-humanoid and is targeted for launch in 2026; two more uncrewed missions are targeted by 2027 before India’s first crewed orbital mission. The Union Cabinet approved Rs 20,193 crore in September 2024 for eight missions.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (space technology, indigenisation of technology); GS2 (international cooperation in space). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** human rating, crew safety, ground qualification, uncrewed precursor missions. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling the Service Module the crew’s cabin; the pressurised, habitable module is the Crew Module. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Orbital Module = Crew Module + Service Module; CES = solid motors; TV-D1 = liquid single-stage vehicle with a modified VIKAS engine; 10 parachutes of 4 types. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India fix a date for its first crewed flight, or let testing set the pace? |
Question 5 of 14
Statement-I: The Delhi High Court held that the principles of promissory estoppel could not be invoked to prevent the Government from reducing its stake in IDBI.
Statement-II: Statements made before a House of Parliament cannot substitute or override a statute enacted by Parliament.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
In All India IDBI Officers’ Association v. Union of India & Others (17 December 2018), the Delhi High Court dismissed the writ petition, and the Finance Ministry quotes paragraph 41: ‘The principles of promissory estoppel are wholly inapplicable in the aforesaid context.’
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
The same paragraph says ‘The statements made before the House cannot substitute or override the statue so enacted by the Parliament.’ (the release’s spelling). Para 41 gives the two points together as one reason: the House statements cannot override the enacted statute, so promissory estoppel is inapplicable. An assurance given in the House could not bind the Government against the Act that Parliament passed.
Analysis
The Ministry issued its clarification on 17 October 2026 after press comment on the legislative developments of 2003; the CCEA had approved the strategic sale of 60.72% of IDBI Bank on 14 October 2026.
Concept note
The Finance Ministry’s clarification on its IDBI stake turns on the limit of promissory estoppel against a statute. When the IDBI (Repeal) Act, 2003 was enacted, an amendment seeking to restrict the dilution of the Government’s stake ‘was moved but was ultimately rejected and did not form part of the enacted legislation’, the Ministry says.
In 2018, in All India IDBI Officers’ Association v. Union of India & Others, the Delhi High Court dismissed a writ petition and held the principles of promissory estoppel ‘wholly inapplicable’; in the Ministry’s summary, the doctrine ‘could not be invoked to prevent the Government from reducing or divesting its stake’. The Ministry also points to policy continuity.
The Budget speech for 2016-17 said the Government would ‘also consider the option of reducing its stake to below 50%’, and the Budget speech for 2021-22 proposed, besides IDBI Bank, the privatisation of two Public Sector Banks and one General Insurance company. On 14 October 2026 the CCEA approved 10955230 Canada Inc. (parent: Fairfax Financial Holdings) as the Strategic Buyer of 60.72% of IDBI Bank for about Rs 52,878 crore.
RBI checks remain, so the sale is not complete.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Parliament and the legislative process, judicial review); GS3 (disinvestment, public sector banks). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** promissory estoppel, parliamentary assurances, strategic disinvestment, policy continuity. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking an assurance given in Parliament binds the Government against the Act as passed; the Court held a statement before the House cannot override the statute. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Delhi High Court, 17 December 2018: promissory estoppel 'wholly inapplicable'; the CCEA approval of 14 October 2026 is not completion of the sale. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should promises made by Ministers in Parliament carry legal weight? |
Question 6 of 14
1 It is a statutory, quasi-judicial and autonomous authority, re-established in 1979 under the Press Council Act, 1978.
2 It was first set up in 1966 under the Indian Press Council Act, 1965.
3 It consists of a Chairman and 28 members.
4 After an inquiry, it may warn, admonish or censure.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The PCI is a statutory, quasi-judicial, autonomous authority, re-established in 1979 under the Press Council Act, 1978.
Statement 2Correct
The first Council was set up in 1966 under the Indian Press Council Act, 1965.
Statement 3Correct
It consists of a Chairman and 28 members.
Statement 4Correct
After an inquiry it may warn, admonish or censure.
Analysis
The PCI’s new guidelines for journalists covering protests ask reporters to ‘Maintain neutrality and professionalism’, to carry a valid press card or accreditation, and to keep a safe distance from confrontations.
Concept note
The Press Council of India is a statutory, quasi-judicial, autonomous authority. The first Council was set up in 1966 under the Indian Press Council Act, 1965; the present one was re-established in 1979 under the Press Council Act, 1978.
It consists of a Chairman and 28 members, and after an inquiry it may warn, admonish or censure. The Council adopted guidelines for journalists covering protests and demonstrations at its meeting of 14 October 2026, PTI reported.
Reporters are to display a press identity card issued by their organisation, or a PIB or State government accreditation card. They are to stay neutral and not take part in demonstrations, take sides or provoke confrontations, and to follow lawful police instructions while calmly asserting press status when necessary.
They are to keep a safe distance from confrontations and use protective headgear and body armour according to the assessed threat. On reporting, they are to verify through multiple sources, treat the statements of protesters, organisers, police and government with equal scrutiny, and not publish real-time police positions where that could compromise safety.
Newsrooms are to designate a point of contact to monitor journalists’ locations and respond to emergencies.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (statutory and quasi-judicial bodies, freedom of the press); GS4 (media ethics). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** press freedom, journalist safety, self-regulation, responsible reporting. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Mixing the two Acts: the Indian Press Council Act, 1965 set up the first Council (1966); the Press Council Act, 1978 re-established it (1979). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** PCI: a Chairman and 28 members; it may warn, admonish or censure. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the Press Council have the power to enforce its guidelines, or is moral authority enough? |
Question 7 of 14
1 The gravity of the allegations, however serious, cannot by itself justify indefinite pre-trial detention.
2 Bail can be granted only after charges have been framed.
3 A completed investigation and evidence that is mainly documentary reduce the scope for tampering, which weighs in favour of bail.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Court held that ‘the gravity of the allegations, however serious, cannot by itself eclipse all other considerations governing the grant of bail or justify indefinite pre-trial detention’.
Statement 2Incorrect
The Court granted bail although charges had not yet been framed, in a trial with 22 accused, three chargesheets, 124 prosecution witnesses and 20,000 pages of documents.
Statement 3Correct
The Court noted that the investigation was complete and the evidence, as The Hindu reported, rested overwhelmingly on documentary and electronic material, so the scope for tampering was ‘substantially obviated’.
Analysis
A Bench of Justices Dipankar Datta and Sheel Nagu granted bail to former Rajasthan Minister Mahesh Joshi on 16 October 2026, holding that prolonged pre-trial detention cannot ‘degenerate into punishment without trial’.
Concept note
In its bail order of 16 October 2026 in the alleged Jal Jeevan Mission tender case, a Bench of Justices Dipankar Datta and Sheel Nagu set out the factors that decided it, as The Hindu reported. The investigation was complete and chargesheets had been filed.
The evidence was overwhelmingly documentary and electronic, so the scope for tampering was substantially obviated, and no custodial interrogation was needed. The trial, on the other hand, was large: 22 accused, three chargesheets, 124 prosecution witnesses and 20,000 pages of documents, with charges not yet framed.
Holding that prolonged pre-trial detention cannot be allowed to ‘degenerate into punishment without trial’, and that gravity alone cannot justify indefinite detention, the Court set aside the Rajasthan High Court’s order of 13 August denying regular bail. It imposed conditions: bail bonds and sureties; no inducement, threat or promise to witnesses and no tampering; and liberty to the trial court to cancel bail on breach.
Bail is not acquittal. The prosecution alleges that two firms secured 104 tenders of Rajasthan’s Public Health Engineering Department, worth Rs 979.45 crore, using forged certificates; that case is still to be tried.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (judiciary, criminal justice, rights of the accused); GS4 (justice and fairness). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** bail as the rule for undertrials, undertrial detention, speedy trial, personal liberty. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating bail as a finding of innocence; charges are yet to be framed, and the trial will decide guilt. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Key phrase: pre-trial detention must not 'degenerate into punishment without trial'. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** When a trial will take years, should the seriousness of the charge still keep an accused in jail? |
Question 8 of 14
Statement-I: Under the Census Rules, 1990, as amended, a State Government may engage as an enumerator any person it considers suitable to perform the duties of an enumerator.
Statement-II: Census enumerators are appointed by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The amended entry in Rule 3 adds teachers of government, aided and private institutions, and clerks or officials of governments, PSUs, statutory bodies, banks and companies, and ends with ‘Any person, as the State Government or the Union territory Administration may consider suitable, to perform the duties as an Enumerator’.
Statement IIIncorrect
Enumerators are appointed by State Governments and Union territory Administrations; the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India notified the amendment.
Analysis
Around 34 lakh enumerators are needed for the Population Enumeration, an official said, more than government school teachers alone can supply.
Concept note
The Census Rules, 1990 were made under Section 18(1) of the Census Act, 1948, and Rule 3 says who may serve as census officers. Its entry for enumerators used to read ‘Teachers, Clerks or any official or any person’; in practice, The Hindu says, mostly government school teachers and revenue and other State government officials were engaged.
The amendment notified in the gazette by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India on 16 October 2026 spells out three categories: teachers of any educational institution of the government, a local authority, or aided or unaided private bodies, societies or trusts; clerks or officials of the Central or State Government, a local authority or an establishment, including public sector undertakings, statutory bodies, banks, companies, institutions, societies and trusts; and any person a State Government or UT Administration considers suitable. The power to appoint stays with the States and UT Administrations.
The reason is scale: around 34 lakh enumerators for the Population Enumeration, which will be held door to door in Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Goa and Punjab from 1 December 2026 to 4 January 2027, and in February 2027 in the rest of the country. Private schools have gone to court: the Punjab and Haryana High Court and, in May, the Bombay High Court gave them interim relief.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (population and demography); GS2 (Centre-State relations, delegated legislation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** cooperative federalism, delegated legislation, administrative capacity, Census 2027. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the RG&CCI appoints enumerators; it notified the rule, but State Governments and UT Administrations appoint them. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Census Rules, 1990 under Section 18(1) of the Census Act, 1948; Rule 3 lists the census officers. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should private school teachers be required to do Census duty? |
Question 9 of 14
1 Its origin lies in a gathering at the Trocadéro in Paris on 17 October 1987 to honour the victims of extreme poverty, violence and hunger.
2 It was declared by a resolution of the United Nations Economic and Social Council.
3 It falls within the Third United Nations Decade for the Eradication of Poverty (2018-2027).
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Over a hundred thousand people gathered at the Trocadéro in Paris on 17 October 1987 to honour the victims of extreme poverty, violence and hunger.
Statement 2Incorrect
The Day was declared by the UN General Assembly, through resolution 47/196 of 22 December 1992, not by ECOSOC.
Statement 3Correct
The Day falls within the Third UN Decade for the Eradication of Poverty (2018-2027), proclaimed by resolution 72/233; SDG 1 sets the goal of ending poverty.
Analysis
The 2026 observance focuses on ‘Safe Homes for All’ under the 2026-2028 theme ‘United for Peace and Human Rights’; the UN says more than 2.8 billion people face some form of housing inadequacy.
Concept note
The International Day for the Eradication of Poverty is observed every year on 17 October. It began with a gathering of over a hundred thousand people at the Trocadéro in Paris on 17 October 1987 to honour the victims of extreme poverty, violence and hunger, and the UN General Assembly declared the Day through resolution 47/196, adopted on 22 December 1992.
It falls within the Third UN Decade for the Eradication of Poverty (2018-2027), proclaimed by resolution 72/233; SDG 1 sets the goal of ending poverty. The theme for 2026-2028 is ‘United for Peace and Human Rights’, and the 2026 observance focuses on ‘Safe Homes for All’.
The UN says that ‘More than 2.8 billion people worldwide face some form of housing inadequacy’, and it names three areas of action: make safe housing a human-rights priority, design policies with people experiencing poverty, and mobilise resources for safe homes for all. The observance builds on the Doha Political Declaration (A/RES/80/5), adopted by the General Assembly after the Second World Summit for Social Development in November 2025.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (poverty, housing and urbanisation); GS2 (UN bodies, international declarations). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** housing inadequacy, right to adequate housing, participation of people in poverty, SDG 1. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Taking 'Safe Homes for All' as the theme for 2026-2028; it is the 2026 focus under the theme 'United for Peace and Human Rights'. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 17 October; UNGA resolution 47/196 (22 December 1992); Third UN Decade 2018-2027. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is a safe home a better test of escaping poverty than income? |
Question 10 of 14
1. SEBI’s circular on the Closing Auction Session and the settlement of derivatives : Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992
2. New rules to regulate airfares and predatory pricing : Aircraft Act, 1934
3. Scheme of merger of REC Limited with and into Power Finance Corporation : Companies Act, 2013
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
SEBI issued the circular under Section 11(1) of the SEBI Act, 1992, read with Regulation 51 of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) (Stock Exchanges and Clearing Corporations) Regulations, 2018.
Pair 2Incorrect
The new airfare rules are framed under the Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024 and are to replace the Aircraft Rules, 1937; they have administrative approval but are not yet published.
Pair 3Correct
The scheme of merger of REC Limited with and into PFC is under Sections 230-232 of the Companies Act, 2013.
Analysis
Each of the three is a step in progress, not a finished change: most of SEBI’s changes will apply from 7 December 2026, and those in para 4.8 of its circular from 8 February 2027, the airfare rules await publication, and the merger still needs the approvals of shareholders, creditors and others.
Concept note
Each instrument takes its force from a different law. SEBI’s circular of 15 October 2026 on the Closing Auction Session, market timings and the settlement of derivatives cites Section 11(1) of the SEBI Act, 1992, read with Regulation 51 of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) (Stock Exchanges and Clearing Corporations) Regulations, 2018.
From 7 December 2026 the Closing Auction Session will be a separate 10-minute session from 3:30 pm to 3:40 pm, stop-loss orders will not be allowed in it, and expiry-day settlement prices will be computed from volume-weighted average prices over the last 30 minutes of the Continuous Trading Session. On airfares, the Centre told the Supreme Court that rules framed under the Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024 to regulate volatile airfares and predatory pricing had administrative approval and would be published within two weeks; in an earlier affidavit it had said they would replace the Aircraft Rules, 1937.
The petition says there is currently no regulatory authority with the power to review or cap airfares, and the next hearing will be on 16 November. The scheme of merger of REC Limited with and into PFC under Sections 230-232 of the Companies Act, 2013 received an RBI no-objection certificate on 15 October 2026, according to PFC’s filing; the approvals of shareholders and creditors, and other statutory approvals, remain.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (capital markets, civil aviation, public sector finance); GS2 (statutory regulators, delegated legislation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** delegated legislation, regulatory certainty, consumer protection, market integrity. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the new airfare rules under the Aircraft Act, 1934; they are framed under the Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024 and are to replace the Aircraft Rules, 1937. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** SEBI’s circulars: Section 11(1), SEBI Act, 1992; mergers by scheme: Sections 230-232, Companies Act, 2013. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the Government cap airfares during festivals, or leave prices to competition? |
Question 11 of 14
1 The roll for each constituency is prepared by reference to the qualifying date.
2 The Election Commission may at any time, for reasons to be recorded, direct a special revision of the electoral roll for any constituency or part of a constituency.
3 There are four qualifying dates in a year, and the annual summary revision is conducted with reference to each of them.
4 If an electoral roll is not revised in a year, its validity is not affected.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Under Section 21(1), the roll ‘shall be prepared in the prescribed manner by reference to the qualifying date’.
Statement 2Correct
Section 21(3) lets the ECI ‘at any time, for reasons to be recorded, direct a special revision of the electoral roll for any constituency or part of a constituency in such manner as it may think fit’.
Statement 3Incorrect
Since 1 August 2022 there are four qualifying dates a year (1 January, 1 April, 1 July and 1 October), but the annual summary revision is conducted with reference to 1 January only.
Statement 4Correct
Under Section 21(2), a roll that is not revised does not lose its validity.
Analysis
The Hindu calls the ECI’s special summary revision in 17 States and UTs, with 1 January 2027 as the qualifying date, a necessary corrective to the missteps of the Special Intensive Revision.
Concept note
Electoral rolls rest on the Constitution and the Representation of the People Act, 1950. Article 324(1) vests the superintendence, direction and control of their preparation in the Election Commission, and Article 326 entitles every citizen of eighteen or more, not otherwise disqualified, to be registered.
Section 21 of the 1950 Act sets the method. The roll is prepared by reference to the qualifying date.
It is revised before each general election and each bye-election unless the ECI directs otherwise for reasons recorded in writing, and in any year if the ECI so directs; a roll that is not revised stays valid. Section 21(3) adds a separate power: a special revision for any constituency or part of one, at any time, for reasons to be recorded, with the existing roll in force until it is complete.
Since 1 August 2022 the amended Section 14(b) gives four qualifying dates a year, but the annual summary revision uses 1 January only. The special summary revision ordered on 15 October 2026 for 17 States and UTs, as reported by IANS and ANI, takes 1 January 2027 as its qualifying date, with draft rolls due by 12 November and final rolls expected on 4 January 2027.
Aadhaar is voluntary, and the Electoral Registration Officer must ensure that no eligible citizen is left out and no ineligible person is included.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Election Commission, Representation of the People Act, 1950, conduct of elections). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** inclusive electoral rolls, procedural fairness, qualifying date, institutional credibility. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the annual summary revision runs on all four qualifying dates; it uses 1 January only. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** RP Act, 1950: Section 14(b) qualifying dates; Section 21(1) preparation, 21(2) revision, 21(3) special revision. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should the ECI balance clean rolls against the risk of excluding genuine voters? |
Question 12 of 14
1 It covers up to 75% of the rural and up to 50% of the urban population.
2 Under it, priority households are entitled to 35 kg of foodgrains per family per month, and Antyodaya Anna Yojana households to 5 kg per person per month.
3 The households eligible under the Act are identified by the Union Government.
4 The State-wise coverage under the Act was set by the Finance Commission.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Act covers up to 75% of the rural and up to 50% of the urban population, which at Census 2011 comes to about 81.35 crore.
Statement 2Incorrect
It is the other way round; AAY households get 35 kg per family per month and priority households 5 kg per person per month.
Statement 3Incorrect
Within the coverage fixed for each, the States and UTs identify the households (Section 10).
Statement 4Incorrect
State-wise coverage was set by the erstwhile Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog), using the NSSO’s Household Consumption Survey data for 2011-12.
Analysis
The Hindu says that India gives free food to more than 81 crore people on estimates 13 to 15 years old, and draws on Hall’s work on hand-to-mouth households to argue for targeting with fresher data.
Concept note
The National Food Security Act, 2013 entitles up to 75% of the rural and up to 50% of the urban population to foodgrains, which at Census 2011 comes to about 81.35 crore people. Antyodaya Anna Yojana households receive 35 kg per family per month, and priority households 5 kg per person per month.
Each State’s coverage was set by the erstwhile Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) on the NSSO’s Household Consumption Survey data for 2011-12, and the States and UTs identify the households within that coverage under Section 10. Under the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana, foodgrains are free to about 81.35 crore beneficiaries for five years from 1 January 2024, at a food subsidy of about Rs 11.80 lakh crore over the five years, by the Cabinet decision of 29 November 2023.
The Hindu’s editorial on the 2026 economics prize to Robert E. Hall and Michael Woodford draws a lesson from this. Hall and Fredric Mishkin (1982) found that around 80 per cent of the households they studied made their consumption decisions in line with the theory and the rest lived hand-to-mouth, and the Academy notes that such shares vary but ‘can be estimated’.
The paper argues that free foodgrains should be targeted with fresher data than the 2011 base.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (welfare schemes, public distribution and food security); GS3 (food subsidy, public finance). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** targeting, inclusion and exclusion errors, data freshness, fiscal cost of subsidies. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Swapping the entitlements: AAY is 35 kg per family per month; priority households get 5 kg per person per month. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NFSA coverage: 75% rural, 50% urban, about 81.35 crore at Census 2011; PMGKAY: free foodgrains for five years from 1 January 2024. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should free foodgrains still go to 81 crore people when the population base is from 2011? |
Question 13 of 14
1 It excludes from its scope any law or measure regarding taxation, including measures taken to enforce taxation obligations.
2 Where the host State decides that the conduct complained of is a subject matter of taxation, an arbitral tribunal may review that decision.
3 Where applicable, it requires an investor to exhaust domestic remedies for at least five years from the date on which it first acquired knowledge of the measure before it can begin a proceeding by a notice of dispute.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 2.4(ii) says the Treaty shall not apply to ‘any law or measure regarding taxation, including measures taken to enforce taxation obligations’.
Statement 2Incorrect
Such a decision of the host State, ‘whether before or after the commencement of arbitral proceedings, shall be non-justiciable and it shall not be open to any arbitration tribunal to review such decision’.
Statement 3Correct
Article 15.2 opens ‘Where applicable’ and lets the investor begin a proceeding only after exhausting domestic remedies ‘for at least a period of five years from the date on which the investor first acquired knowledge of the measure in question’.
Analysis
In The Indian Express, Suranjali Tandon notes that many countries grapple with forum shopping, cites the Cairn and Vodafone cases, and concludes that India’s explicit exclusion of tax from its BITs ‘is not atypical’.
Concept note
A double taxation avoidance agreement settles tax disputes between the two governments through the mutual agreement procedure, and some add mandatory binding arbitration. A bilateral investment treaty gives the foreign investor its own route, investor-state dispute settlement, in which the investor, not its government, brings the claim against the host state.
Forum shopping is the choice of the investment route for a tax dispute, to use broader standards such as fair and equitable treatment. Two awards shaped India’s response.
Both arose from the Finance Act 2012, which amended Section 9(1)(i) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and reached back to indirect transfers made before it. In Vodafone (25 September 2020, under the Netherlands-India BIT) the tribunal ruled unanimously for the company; in Cairn (21 December 2020, under the UK-India BIT) it found that India had failed to accord fair and equitable treatment and awarded about US$ 1.23 billion plus interest.
The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021 then gave relief for indirect transfers made before 28 May 2012, on condition that the taxpayer withdrew its appeals and any arbitration and waived further claims. India’s Model BIT text of 28 December 2015 carves tax out and lets the host State decide what is a tax matter.
The India-UAE BIT, in force from 31 August 2024, has a taxation carve-out and ISDS with mandatory exhaustion of local remedies for 3 years.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (investment models, taxation); GS2 (bilateral agreements, international arbitration). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** tax sovereignty, investor-state dispute settlement, forum shopping, regulatory space. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking a tribunal decides whether a dispute is about tax; under the model text the host State’s decision on that is non-justiciable. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Model BIT (DEA, 28 December 2015): Article 2.4(ii) tax carve-out; Article 15.2 five years of local remedies; India-UAE BIT: 3 years. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does a full tax carve-out make India a less attractive treaty partner? |
Question 14 of 14
1 In India’s monthly foreign trade release, the figures for services come from the Reserve Bank of India, and the latest month’s services figure is an estimate.
2 The Foreign Trade Policy 2023 seeks to take India’s exports to US$ 2 trillion by 2030.
3 In April-September 2026-27, the USA was India’s largest export destination and China its largest source of merchandise imports.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Services figures in the monthly release come from the RBI, and the latest month is an estimate.
Statement 2Correct
The Foreign Trade Policy 2023 seeks to take exports to US$ 2 trillion by 2030.
Statement 3Correct
In April-September 2026-27 the USA was the largest export destination (US$ 50.81 billion) and China the largest import source (US$ 80.35 billion), leaving a goods trade deficit with China of US$ 68.9 billion.
Analysis
The Indian Express welcomes the 23.04% rise in September’s goods exports to US$ 44.40 billion, but says the RBI ‘should resist targeting any rupee/dollar level’, and asks the government to push ahead with trade agreements, manufacturing and foreign investment.
Concept note
When a report says exports, check what it counts. India’s monthly trade release gives merchandise (goods) exports and a far larger combined figure for goods and services; the services figures come from the RBI, and the latest month is an estimate.
In September 2026, provisional goods exports were US$ 44.40 billion, up 23.04% from US$ 36.08 billion, while goods and services together came to US$ 80.75 billion, up 10.99%. Over April-September 2026-27, goods exports were US$ 259.89 billion, up 18.51%, and non-petroleum exports US$ 218.70 billion, up 15.56%.
The full year is flatter: goods exports in 2025-26 were US$ 441.78 billion, up only 0.93% on 2024-25. The USA is the largest destination, with exports there up 47.99% in September alone, and China the largest import source, with a goods deficit of US$ 68.9 billion in the half-year; exports to the UAE and Saudi Arabia fell in April-September.
The Foreign Trade Policy 2023 seeks US$ 2 trillion of exports by 2030. The Indian Express says the currency’s decline ‘is likely to have played a role’ in export competitiveness, but that the RBI ‘should resist targeting any rupee/dollar level’, and it asks the government to push ahead with its reform agenda: trade agreements, manufacturing and foreign investment.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (external sector, balance of payments, trade policy); GS2 (trade agreements). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** export competitiveness, trade deficit, exchange-rate policy, market diversification. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Mixing goods with goods-and-services figures: US$ 44.40 billion is goods only; US$ 80.75 billion includes services. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** FTP 2023 target: US$ 2 trillion of exports by 2030; largest export destination the USA, largest import source China. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is a weaker rupee a sound way to boost exports? |
Performance
Question-wise Result