UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 15 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
17 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 17
1 It repealed the Indian Ports Act, 1908.
2 Rules to carry out its provisions under Section 77 are made by the Central Government by notification in the Gazette of India.
3 Membership of the Maritime State Development Council constituted under it is an office of profit, and its members draw remuneration.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 85(1) of the Indian Ports Act, 2025 repealed the Indian Ports Act, 1908.
Statement 2Incorrect
Section 77(1) empowers the State Government to make rules by notification in the State Gazette, subject to previous publication.
Statement 3Incorrect
Members receive no remuneration (section 3(5)), and membership is not deemed an office of profit (section 3(6)).
Analysis
The Centre-versus-State trap is the point; at its 21st meeting in Mumbai the Council told States and Union Territories to notify their Section 77 rules within three months.
Concept note
The Maritime State Development Council (MSDC) was established in 1997 and serves, in the Ministry’s words, as the apex advisory body for the development of India’s maritime sector. For almost three decades it worked without a statute.
The Indian Ports Act, 2025 (Act No. 27 of 2025) changed that. It received assent on 21 August 2025, came into force on 1 April 2026 and, through section 85(1), repealed the Indian Ports Act, 1908.
Under section 3(1) the Council was established by S.O. 2524(E) of 15 May 2026, chaired by the Union Minister for Ports, Shipping and Waterways. Section 3 also provides that members receive no remuneration and that membership is not deemed an office of profit.
The Act leaves room for the States: Section 77(1) lets the State Government make rules by notification in the State Gazette. At its 21st meeting in Mumbai on 13 October 2026, the first since it became a statutory consultative body, the Council instructed all States and Union Territories to notify these rules within three months, and set March 2027 for the One Nation One Port Process reforms and integration with the Maritime Single Window (Sagar Setu) at all ports.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (statutory bodies, cooperative federalism); GS3 (ports and infrastructure). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** statutory consultative body, cooperative federalism, State rules, port-led growth. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the Centre makes all rules under a Union Act; Section 77 gives rule-making to the State Government. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Indian Ports Act, 2025: Act No. 27 of 2025; in force 1 April 2026; repealed the 1908 Act; MSDC under section 3(1). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should ports policy be led by the Centre or by the coastal States, and what role can a council play between them? |
Question 2 of 17
1 Combined Task Force 154 is the CMF task force devoted to training.
2 Counter-piracy is the role of Combined Task Force 153.
3 The CMF is commanded by a United States Navy Vice Admiral who is also Commander, U.S. Naval Forces Central Command and U.S. 5th Fleet.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
CTF 154 is the CMF’s dedicated multinational maritime training task force.
Statement 2Incorrect
Counter-piracy is the role of CTF 151; CTF 153 handles Red Sea maritime security.
Statement 3Correct
The CMF is commanded by a US Navy Vice Admiral who also serves as Commander, NAVCENT and US 5th Fleet.
Analysis
The Indian Navy has just completed its first command of a CMF task force, CTF 154, which it held from February 2026.
Concept note
The Combined Maritime Forces is a multinational maritime partnership commanded by a US Navy Vice Admiral, who also serves as Commander, U.S. Navy Central Command (NAVCENT) and U.S. 5th Fleet. It works through five task forces: CTF 150 for maritime security operations outside the Arabian Gulf, CTF 151 for counter-piracy, CTF 152 for maritime security operations inside the Arabian Gulf, CTF 153 for Red Sea maritime security, and CTF 154, established in May 2023, for training.
CTF 154’s training rests on five core pillars: Maritime Domain Awareness, Law of the Sea, Maritime Interdiction Operations, Maritime Rescue and Assistance, and Leadership Development. India joined the CMF as an Associate Partner in 2022 and became a full member in 2023.
On 11 February 2026, at CMF Headquarters in Manama, Bahrain, Cmde Milind M Mokashi took over command of CTF 154 from the outgoing Commander of the Italian Navy, the first time an Indian Navy contingent led a CMF task force. The command was relinquished at a ceremony in Manama on 14 October 2026.
During the tenure the task force held Southern Readiness 26-2 at Kochi, the first major CMF training exercise hosted by India.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (maritime security); GS2 (India and multilateral groupings). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** maritime domain awareness, capacity building, interoperability, training partnerships. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Mixing up the task force numbers; CTF 151 is counter-piracy, CTF 153 the Red Sea, CTF 154 training. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CMF: five task forces, CTF 150 to 154; India Associate Partner 2022, full member 2023. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does leading a US-commanded coalition’s task force sit comfortably with India’s strategic autonomy? |
Question 3 of 17
1 The Anusandhan National Research Foundation Act, 2023 makes the Prime Minister the ex officio President of the Foundation’s Governing Board.
2 The Second Level Fund Managers under the Scheme act as the custodian of its corpus.
3 On the Technology Readiness Level scale used to target its support, TRL 1 is the lowest level and TRL 9 the highest.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Section 5(2)(a) of the ANRF Act, 2023 makes the Prime Minister the ex officio President of the Governing Board.
Statement 2Incorrect
The custodian of funds is the first tier, a Special Purpose Fund established within the ANRF; the Second Level Fund Managers form the second tier, which channels capital to enterprises.
Statement 3Correct
On NASA’s scale, TRL 1 is the lowest and TRL 9 is the highest.
Analysis
The Scheme’s first cohort of 19 Second Level Fund Managers makes the two-tier design concrete.
Concept note
The RDI Scheme places a corpus of ₹1 lakh crore in two tiers. The first is a Special Purpose Fund (SPF) established within the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), which acts as the custodian of funds.
The ANRF Act, 2023 (No. 25 of 2023) provides for special purpose funds and makes the Prime Minister the ex officio President of the Foundation’s Governing Board. The second tier is made up of Second Level Fund Managers (SLFMs), which channel capital to Eligible Technology Enterprises at Technology Readiness Level 4 and above, mainly as long-term concessional loans, with RDIF support capped at 50% of the total assessed project cost.
On the European Commission’s scale, TRL 4 means technology validated in the lab, so the Scheme backs technologies past the laboratory stage rather than basic research. The first cohort of 19 SLFMs, 14 Alternative Investment Funds and 5 Focused Research Organisations, carries a total RDIF commitment of ₹7,131 crore, approved by the Empowered Group of Secretaries.
Advanced Chemicals, Petrochemicals and Material Technologies has since been included as an additional eligible technology area, and the Technology Development Board has agreed to support ideaForge with ₹151 crore of debt financing for its YETI heavy-lift drone.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (science and technology, investment models); GS2 (statutory bodies). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** private R&D, patient capital, concessional loans, technology readiness, Atmanirbharta. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the fund managers hold the corpus; the Special Purpose Fund within the ANRF is the custodian. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** ANRF Act, 2023: PM is ex officio President; RDI support at TRL 4 and above; cap 50% of project cost. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why has private investment in R&D stayed low in India, and can concessional loans change that? |
Question 4 of 17
1 The Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts is an autonomous institution under the Ministry of Culture.
2 The Greater India Society was established in Calcutta in 1926.
3 Brihattar Bharat is an initiative of the Ministry of Culture that is implemented by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
PIB describes IGNCA as an autonomous institution under the Ministry of Culture.
Statement 2Correct
The Greater India Society was established in Calcutta on 14 October 1926.
Statement 3Correct
Brihattar Bharat is an initiative of the ICR Division of the Ministry of Culture, implemented by IGNCA.
Analysis
The tempting error is to place cultural outreach of this kind under the Ministry of External Affairs; this programme sits with the Ministry of Culture.
Concept note
The Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA), an autonomous institution under the Ministry of Culture, is holding an international conference on ‘Bharat’s Cultural Connections across the Globe’ from 14 to 16 October 2026 at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, inaugurated by Union Minister Gajendra Singh Shekhawat. The conference marks the centenary of the Greater India Society, established in Calcutta on 14 October 1926, and seeks to renew the Society’s scholarly legacy through interdisciplinary research and international collaboration.
It is organised under the Brihattar Bharat Scheme (2026-2031), an initiative of the ICR Division of the Ministry of Culture implemented by IGNCA. The deliberations cover ten themes, examining shared traditions in philosophy, religion, languages, arts, textiles, cuisine, performing arts, trade and diaspora communities.
The project involves scholars from around 51 countries, envisages a structured five-year agenda for international academic exchange, and seeks to explore multinational nominations of shared intangible cultural heritage to UNESCO’s Representative List. The Minister said that Brihattar Bharat should be understood not as a political or territorial claim, but as a broad sphere of cultural and historical connections.
For an aspirant, it is a ready example of heritage used as soft power.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (Indian culture and its spread abroad); GS2 (soft power and cultural diplomacy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** civilisational links, shared heritage, soft power, intangible cultural heritage. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading Brihattar Bharat as a territorial idea; the Minister called it a sphere of cultural and historical connections. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** IGNCA: autonomous, Ministry of Culture; Greater India Society: Calcutta, 1926; Brihattar Bharat Scheme 2026-2031. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How can India use shared heritage with Asian countries without it being read as cultural dominance? |
Question 5 of 17
Statement-I: A country’s exports to a trading partner can grow faster in percentage terms than its imports from that partner while its bilateral trade deficit with that partner still widens.
Statement-II: When imports are several times larger than exports, a smaller percentage rise in imports can add more in absolute value than a larger percentage rise in exports.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
As reported by The Hindu from Chinese customs data, India’s exports to China rose 40.7% to $19.26 billion in January to September 2026 while imports rose 23.3% to $125.19 billion, and The Hindu reports that the deficit has continued to widen, standing at $105.93 billion.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
Imports of $125.19 billion are more than six times exports of $19.26 billion, so a smaller percentage rise in imports adds more dollars than a larger percentage rise in exports.
Analysis
Percentage growth from a small base does not close a large gap; option (b) tempts those who see two true statements but miss the causal link.
Concept note
A bilateral trade deficit is the gap between what a country imports from a partner and what it exports to it. According to data released by China’s General Administration of Customs and reported by The Hindu, India’s exports to China grew about 40% in the first three quarters of 2026; these are China’s figures.
Two-way trade rose 25.4% to $144.45 billion, imports from China rose 23.3% to $125.19 billion and exports to China rose 40.7%, albeit from a much smaller base, to $19.26 billion. The deficit stood at $105.93 billion and, in the paper’s words, is on track to surpass last year’s record of $116.12 billion.
The arithmetic explains why: imports are more than six times exports, so a lower growth rate on the larger number adds far more dollars. The Hindu notes India’s continued reliance on finished goods from China, including electronics and machinery, and Chinese export controls in sectors from fertilizers to rare earths.
At their meeting in New Delhi last month, Prime Minister Modi and President Xi underlined the need to address structural trade imbalance and supply chain issues, according to the Ministry of External Affairs.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (external sector, trade balance); GS2 (India-China relations). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** structural trade imbalance, base effect, intermediate goods, supply chain resilience. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading a high export growth rate as a narrowing deficit; the absolute values decide the gap. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Deficit = imports minus exports; compare absolute changes, not percentages. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is a large trade deficit with China a problem in itself, or only when it creates dependence in critical goods? |
Question 6 of 17
Statement-I: Form 6, prescribed under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, is the application for inclusion of a name in the electoral roll by a first-time voter or on shifting from one constituency to another.
Statement-II: Section 31 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 provides for imprisonment of up to one year, or a fine, or both, for making a false declaration.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The form’s own title is ‘Application for Inclusion of Name in Electoral Roll for First time Voter OR on Shifting from One Constituency to Another Constituency’.
Statement IICorrectDoes not explain Statement I
Section 31 of the RP Act, 1950 sets the penalty for a false declaration; it does not explain what Form 6 is for.
Analysis
The two provisions meet in the Delhi SIR dispute, where petitioners argue that deleted voters filing Form 6 would face Section 31.
Concept note
Form 6, prescribed under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, is the application for inclusion of a name in the electoral roll by a first-time voter or on shifting from one constituency to another. The petitioners in the Delhi SIR case say, as The Hindu reported, that it requires an applicant to affirm that they are applying for inclusion ‘for the first time’.
Section 31 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 provides for imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year, or a fine, or both, for a false declaration. In the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) in Delhi, 47,56,722 electors, or 32.78% of the voters on the roll before the SIR, were left out of the draft roll in the ASDD category (Absent, Shifted, Dead or Duplicate), and, according to the petition, Form 6 is the only route open to them.
Petitioners Anjali Bhardwaj and Amrita Johri have asked the Supreme Court that the Election Commission either allow these voters to file Form 8 (for shifted voters) or create a new form, so that they need not apply as first-time voters. A Bench headed by Chief Justice Surya Kant passed no order on 14 October 2026; it advanced the hearing to 28 October, the Chief Justice remarking that the court was thinking of passing an order to deal with the issue.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (elections, Election Commission, Representation of the People Acts). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** inclusive electoral rolls, due process in deletion, right to vote, procedural fairness. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating Form 6 as a restoration form; it is designed for a first-time voter or a voter shifting from another constituency. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** RP Act, 1950 governs electoral rolls; Registration of Electors Rules, 1960 prescribe the forms. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should an electoral roll revision balance accuracy against the risk of excluding genuine voters? |
Question 7 of 17
1 The International Day of Rural Women was established by the United Nations General Assembly.
2 The United Nations has declared 2026 the International Year of the Woman Farmer.
3 The Periodic Labour Force Survey is conducted by the National Statistics Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The General Assembly established the day in resolution 62/136 of 18 December 2007, and it was first observed on 15 October 2008.
Statement 2Correct
The UN has declared 2026 the International Year of the Woman Farmer (IYWF 2026).
Statement 3Correct
PIB cites the PLFS as conducted by the NSO, MoSPI.
Analysis
India marks Mahila Kisan Diwas on the same date as the International Day of Rural Women.
Concept note
The International Day of Rural Women falls on 15 October. It was established by the United Nations General Assembly in resolution 62/136 of 18 December 2007 and first observed on 15 October 2008.
In India, the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare is organising the national-level celebration of Mahila Kisan Diwas 2026 on 15 October 2026 at the Dr. B. R. Ambedkar International Centre, New Delhi, on the theme ‘Role of Women Farmers in Building Developed Agriculture and a Developed India.’ The Ministry cites the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), conducted by the National Statistics Office under MoSPI: females constituted 59.8% of the total workforce engaged in agricultural activities during January to December 2025. The UN has declared 2026 the International Year of the Woman Farmer, which the release calls a global platform to recognise the contributions of women farmers to agrifood systems.
From sowing, transplanting and harvesting to livestock management and seed conservation, women contribute across Indian agriculture, and the release stresses strengthening their access to resources, technology and institutional support. For Mains, this is the feminisation of agriculture: support for women farmers is a question of farm productivity as well as of gender justice.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (role of women, society); GS3 (agriculture). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** feminisation of agriculture, women farmers, institutional support, agrifood systems. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing which body runs which survey; the PLFS is conducted by the NSO under MoSPI. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** International Day of Rural Women: UNGA resolution 62/136 (2007), first observed 2008; IYWF 2026. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Women are most of the farm workforce; why are so few of them recognised as farmers in land records? |
Question 8 of 17
1 The right of an arrested person to be informed of the grounds of arrest is guaranteed by Article 22(2) of the Constitution.
2 The protections in clauses (1) and (2) of Article 22 extend to a person arrested under a law of preventive detention.
3 Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the grounds of an arrest without warrant are to be communicated under Section 50.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
The grounds of arrest are an Article 22(1) right; Article 22(2) requires production before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours.
Statement 2Incorrect
Article 22(3) says clauses (1) and (2) do not cover an enemy alien or a preventive detainee.
Statement 3Incorrect
Section 47 of the BNSS requires the grounds to be communicated forthwith; Section 50 was the old CrPC provision.
Analysis
Mixing up clauses (1) and (2), and the old and new section numbers, are the commonest errors.
Concept note
Article 22(1) gives an arrested person the right to be told the grounds of arrest as soon as may be and to consult a lawyer of their choice. Article 22(2) requires production before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours, excluding journey time, and Article 22(3) says neither clause covers an enemy alien or a preventive detainee.
In the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, Section 47 requires the grounds of an arrest without warrant to be communicated forthwith (formerly CrPC Section 50), and Section 58 keeps the 24-hour limit (formerly CrPC Section 57). The Supreme Court has tightened these safeguards.
Mihir Rajesh Shah (6 November 2025) requires written grounds, in the arrestee’s language, in all offences, and written grounds must reach the arrestee at least two hours before production for remand. Pankaj Bansal arose under the PMLA and Prabir Purkayastha under the UAPA.
Older landmarks still apply: D.K. Basu (decided 18 December 1996, reported (1997) 1 SCC 416) on arrest requirements and Arnesh Kumar (2014) against automatic arrest for offences punishable with up to seven years. The two-hour mark is an outer limit, not an alternative to a reasonable time, and release for an illegal arrest is not default bail.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (fundamental rights, criminal justice, judiciary). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** procedural due process, personal liberty, written grounds, custodial safeguards. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing grounds of arrest in Article 22(2); it is Article 22(1), and 22(2) is the 24-hour rule. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** BNSS Section 47 = old CrPC Section 50 (grounds); BNSS Section 58 = old CrPC Section 57 (24 hours). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Do stricter arrest safeguards hamper investigation, or do they make it more careful? |
Question 9 of 17
1 It was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
2 It is a constitutional body.
3 The sitting Chief Justice of India is its ex officio Chairperson.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The NHRC was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, and was set up on 12 October 1993.
Statement 2Incorrect
It was created by that Act, which makes it a statutory body, not a constitutional one.
Statement 3Incorrect
Its Chairperson is Justice V. Ramasubramanian, while Chief Justice of India Surya Kant attended its 33rd Foundation Day as Chief Guest.
Analysis
Statutory versus constitutional status is a standing Prelims trap for commissions.
Concept note
The National Human Rights Commission was set up on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993; a body created by an Act of Parliament is a statutory body. On its 33rd Foundation Day it held a function and a National Conference on the theme ‘Water as the Elixir of Life: Advancing Human Dignity through the Right to Water’ at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
Chief Justice of India Justice Surya Kant was the Chief Guest, and NHRC Chairperson Justice V. Ramasubramanian also spoke. The Chief Justice noted that people sometimes say the Commission can only recommend and cannot command, and offered instead the image of a solitary lighthouse that casts ‘a guiding light for those adrift in the darkness’.
He also said that the right to water must be understood not only as a right of the present but also as a responsibility towards the future. At the conference the Secretary, Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, said safe drinking water is integral to human dignity, public health and the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution.
For an aspirant, the point is that a recommendatory body draws its weight from its credibility.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (statutory bodies, human rights, Article 21). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** recommendatory powers, human dignity, right to water, accountability institutions. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling the NHRC a constitutional body; it is statutory, under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NHRC: set up 12 October 1993 under the PHRA, 1993; the Chairperson is not the sitting CJI. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** If a commission can only recommend, what makes its recommendations count? |
Question 10 of 17
Facts
Option (d) is correct: PIB describes the 298-km road as connecting Nimmu in Leh with Darcha in Himachal Pradesh through the remote Zanskar Valley. Option (c) is the tempting distractor: it has the right State but not the valley the road runs through.
Analysis
The Prime Minister is scheduled to dedicate the road to the nation as one of five projects in Ladakh.
Concept note
The Prime Minister is scheduled to inaugurate and dedicate to the nation five development projects worth around ₹3,350 crore in Ladakh on 15 October 2026, via video conferencing. Among them is the 298-km Nimmu-Padum-Darcha Road, constructed by the Border Roads Organisation.
It connects Nimmu in Leh with Darcha in Himachal Pradesh through the remote Zanskar Valley, and provides an alternative connectivity corridor to Ladakh, supplementing the Srinagar-Leh and Manali-Leh highways. Its strategic importance, in the release’s words, lies in enhancing operational mobility and strengthening logistical support for the Armed Forces, and it will also benefit residents of Zanskar by improving access to healthcare, education, markets and essential services.
The other projects include the 9 MW Hanu Small Hydroelectric Project with the 66 kV Dah-Hanu-Khaltsi transmission line, India’s first Petroglyph Conservation Park at Sindhu Ghat, Leh, for Ladakh’s prehistoric rock art, and water bodies across 40 villages under Project Him Sarovar. For Prelims, fix the road on the map from Leh through Padum in Zanskar to Darcha in Himachal Pradesh; for Mains, use it as an example of border infrastructure that serves both defence logistics and remote communities.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (geography of the Himalaya); GS3 (border infrastructure, security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** border area development, dual-use infrastructure, last-mile connectivity, strategic roads. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Choosing the right State with the wrong valley; the road runs from Leh through Zanskar to Darcha in Himachal Pradesh. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Nimmu (Leh) to Darcha (Himachal Pradesh) via the Zanskar Valley; BRO; 298 km. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should strategic roads in fragile Himalayan valleys be planned to limit ecological damage? |
Question 11 of 17
1 The Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS) is a production-linked incentive scheme.
2 Press Note 3 (2020) placed investment from countries sharing a land border with India under the Government route.
3 DPIIT’s State-wise data on FDI equity inflows is kept only from October 2019.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
The ECMS uses turnover-linked, hybrid and capex incentives and is not a PLI scheme.
Statement 2Correct
Press Note 3 of 17 April 2020 allowed investment from a country sharing a land border with India only through the Government route.
Statement 3Correct
DPIIT State data is kept only from October 2019, so State shares are cumulative.
Analysis
The Hindu op-ed argues that India’s China+1 lessons lie within its own States, and these numbers are the evidence it reads.
Concept note
In The Hindu, P.S. Srinivas and Anisha Sircar argue that India’s China+1 lessons lie within its own States, chiefly Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Two schemes carry the electronics push.
The Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing PLI, approved by the Cabinet on 21 March 2020 and notified on 1 April 2020, pays 4% to 6% on incremental sales over the base year 2019-20, and its tenure was extended to FY 2025-26. The Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS), approved by the Cabinet on 28 March 2025 and notified on 8 April 2025, is not a PLI scheme: it uses turnover-linked, hybrid and capex incentives, and its outlay of Rs 22,919 crore was raised to Rs 40,000 crore by the Union Budget 2026-27.
ECMS approvals are commitments, not finished factories. On investment rules, Press Note 3 of 17 April 2020 sent investment from land-border countries through the Government route; an easing approved by the Cabinet on 10 March 2026 allows up to 10% non-controlling beneficial ownership through the automatic route.
DPIIT’s State-wise FDI figures run only from October 2019, so the shares are cumulative: Maharashtra 31.35%, Karnataka 20.66% and Gujarat 14.82% to March 2026, with Tamil Nadu fifth.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (industrial policy, investment); GS2 (Centre-State relations, competitive federalism). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** China+1, competitive federalism, component ecosystem, investment facilitation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling every incentive scheme a PLI; the ECMS uses turnover-linked, hybrid and capex incentives. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Press Note 3 (2020): land-border countries via the Government route; DPIIT State FDI data from October 2019. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** If firms choose States rather than India, what should the Centre do differently? |
Question 12 of 17
1 The Union Minister for Ports, Shipping and Waterways is its Chairperson.
2 The Secretary of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways is its Member Secretary.
3 Officers of the Indian Navy and the Indian Coast Guard dealing with coastal security are among its members.
4 Its recommendations on the national perspective plan are binding on the State Governments.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Under section 3(2)(a) the Union Minister for Ports, Shipping and Waterways is the Chairperson.
Statement 2Correct
Under section 3(2)(f) the Secretary of the Ministry is the Member Secretary.
Statement 3Correct
Under section 3(2)(d) and (e) an Indian Navy officer and an Indian Coast Guard officer, each equivalent in rank to a Secretary to the Government of India and dealing with coastal security, are members.
Statement 4Incorrect
Under section 6 the Council advises on the formulation of the national perspective plan, and its role is consultative: its outputs are recommendations, advice and guidelines.
Analysis
A statutory footing does not make a council’s advice binding; read the functions clause, not just the word ‘statutory’.
Concept note
The Indian Ports Act, 2025 (Act No. 27 of 2025) gave the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC) a statute. Section 3(1) says the Central Government ‘shall, by notification, establish’ a Council ‘to be called the Maritime State Development Council’, and S.O. 2524(E) of 15 May 2026 did so.
Every member under section 3(2) sits ex officio. The Union Minister for Ports, Shipping and Waterways is the Chairperson.
The members are the Minister-in-charge of ports of each State; the Minister-in-charge of the Union Territory of Puducherry and the Administrators of all other coastal Union Territories; an Indian Navy officer and an Indian Coast Guard officer, each equivalent in rank to a Secretary to the Government of India and dealing with coastal security; and the Secretary of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways as Member Secretary. Under section 6, the Council makes recommendations to the Government on the adequacy of the legal framework, the growth of and competition in the port sector, and port connectivity, and it advises on the formulation of the national perspective plan referred to in section 12.
Its role is consultative. Sarbananda Sonowal called its 21st meeting in Mumbai ‘cooperative federalism in maritime governance’.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (statutory bodies, federalism); GS3 (ports and infrastructure). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** consultative body, cooperative federalism, ex officio membership, coastal security. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading 'statutory' as 'binding'; the MSDC’s outputs are recommendations, advice and guidelines. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** MSDC: Chairperson the Union Ports Minister; Member Secretary the Secretary, MoPSW; Navy and Coast Guard officers sit as members. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why should Navy and Coast Guard officers sit on a council about developing ports? |
Question 13 of 17
1 From the Special Purpose Fund, funds are allocated to Second Level Fund Managers mainly in the form of long-term concessional loans.
2 The Empowered Group of Secretaries, led by the Cabinet Secretary, approves the Second Level Fund Managers.
3 Support from the RDI Fund can cover the entire assessed cost of a project.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
From the Special Purpose Fund within the ANRF, funds go to a variety of second level fund managers, mainly in the form of long-term concessional loans.
Statement 2Correct
The Empowered Group of Secretaries, led by the Cabinet Secretary, approves scheme changes, sectors, types of projects and second level fund managers.
Statement 3Incorrect
Assistance is limited to not more than 50% of the total assessed project cost, and the rest is raised by the proponents through their own resources or commercial sources.
Analysis
The 50% cap is how public money is meant to draw in private money.
Concept note
The RDI Scheme runs a corpus of ₹1 lakh crore through two tiers. The first is a Special Purpose Fund established within the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), which acts as the custodian of funds.
From it, funds go to a variety of second level fund managers, mainly as long-term concessional loans; equity may also be used, especially for startups. The Governing Board of ANRF, chaired by the Prime Minister, gives overarching strategic direction.
The Executive Council of ANRF approves the Scheme’s guidelines and recommends second level fund managers. The Empowered Group of Secretaries, led by the Cabinet Secretary, approves scheme changes, sectors, types of projects and second level fund managers, and reviews performance.
The Department of Science and Technology is the nodal department. Support goes to projects at Technology Readiness Level 4 or above and is limited to 50% of the total assessed project cost; for equity it is capped at 50% of each funding round.
The first cohort of 19 Second Level Fund Managers, 14 Alternative Investment Funds and 5 Focused Research Organisations, went through the ANRF’s Executive Council and then the EGoS. The fund managers are expected to mobilise private capital equal to the RDIF contribution.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (science and technology, investment models); GS2 (government schemes, institutional design). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** patient capital, blended finance, crowding in private R&D, lab-to-market. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the Fund pays for whole projects; RDIF support is capped at 50% of the assessed project cost. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** RDI Scheme: SPF within ANRF (custodian); EGoS led by the Cabinet Secretary approves fund managers; DST is nodal; TRL 4 or above. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why route public R&D money through fund managers rather than give grants directly? |
Question 14 of 17
1 It is a levy that the exporting country collects on carbon-intensive goods before they are shipped to the EU.
2 Its definitive regime followed a transitional period in which importers only reported the emissions embedded in their goods.
3 If an importer proves that a carbon price has already been paid during the production of the goods, the corresponding amount can be deducted.
4 Machinery and appliances are among the sectors covered by the Regulation as adopted in 2023.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
The legal duty falls on the EU importer, which buys and surrenders CBAM certificates; it is not a tax India levies or collects.
Statement 2Correct
From 1 October 2023 to 31 December 2025 importers only reported embedded emissions, and the definitive regime began on 1 January 2026.
Statement 3Correct
The EU record says the corresponding amount can be deducted.
Statement 4Incorrect
The Regulation covers cement, iron and steel, aluminium, fertilisers, electricity and hydrogen; extending CBAM to downstream products like machinery and appliances is a proposal, from 1 January 2028 if adopted.
Analysis
Separate what is law from what is only proposed, and who pays from who supplies the data.
Concept note
The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism, set up by Regulation (EU) 2023/956 of 10 May 2023, puts a carbon price on selected imports into the European Union: cement, iron and steel, aluminium, fertilisers, electricity and hydrogen. The importer pays for the carbon embedded in the goods, at a price linked to the EU Emissions Trading System.
The legal duty falls on the EU importer, not on the Indian exporter, whose stake lies in the emissions data it must supply and in the carbon cost its buyer has to bear. During the transitional period, from 1 October 2023 to 31 December 2025, importers only reported embedded emissions; from 1 January 2026 the definitive regime applies and importers must surrender CBAM certificates for their imports, with certificate sales on the common central platform starting in February 2027.
The price for the third quarter of 2026 was €82.32 per tonne of CO2. In December 2025 the European Commission proposed extending CBAM to 180 steel and aluminium-intensive downstream products, like machinery and appliances, from 1 January 2028; that is not yet law.
The India-EU FTA gives an assurance and cooperation on CBAM, not an exemption. India’s own carbon market runs under the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme, notified in 2023, with the Bureau of Energy Efficiency as Administrator and Grid India as Registry.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (environment, external trade); GS2 (India-EU relations, WTO). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** carbon border adjustment, embedded emissions, green trade barriers, carbon pricing, Indian Carbon Market. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking India collects CBAM or that the FTA exempts Indian goods; the EU importer pays, and the FTA gives assurance, not exemption. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CBAM: Regulation (EU) 2023/956; six sectors; reporting only to 31 December 2025, definitive regime from 1 January 2026, certificate sales from February 2027. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is CBAM climate policy or protectionism, and how should India respond? |
Question 15 of 17
Statement-I: Under the Code on Wages, 2019, the minimum wage for workers in the same skill category can differ from one geographical area to another.
Statement-II: Section 6(6)(a) of the Code requires the government, in fixing minimum wages, to take into account primarily the skill of workers or the geographical area, or both.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The Union government classifies cities into areas, and the agriculture rates the editorial cites are those for Area A, the category of urban areas with the highest costs of living.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
Section 6(6)(a) names skill or geographical area, or both, as the primary factors, so rates can vary by area within one skill category.
Analysis
The trap is to treat skill as the only factor; the Code names skill or area, or both, and arduous, hazardous or underground work may be added under section 6(6)(b).
Concept note
The Code on Wages, 2019 was made effective from 21 November 2025, one of four labour codes that rationalise 29 laws, and section 69 repeals the Minimum Wages Act, 1948. Section 5 bars any employer from paying less than the notified minimum rate of wages.
Under section 6(6)(a), the government ‘shall primarily take into account the skill of workers required for working under the categories of unskilled, skilled, semi-skilled and highly-skilled or geographical area or both’. Under section 6(6)(b), it may also take into account arduous work, hazardous occupations or processes, or underground work.
Skill and area are alternatives, and arduousness is optional. The Union schedule shows how area enters: for agriculture in Area A, the category of urban areas with the highest costs of living, the daily rate for unskilled work is Rs 537 from 1 October 2026.
The Centre sets a National Floor Wage, and States cannot fix minimum wages below it. Under the old law, minimum wages applied only to scheduled employments; the Code covers all employees.
In The Hindu, Vasudevan Mukunth argues that ‘unskilled’ is a label the state sustains, one that lowers the pay and safety of workers whose jobs demand real skill.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (labour laws, welfare of workers); GS3 (employment, inclusive growth). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** minimum wages, skill classification, National Floor Wage, decent work, labour codes. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking skill is the only basis for minimum wages; the Code names skill or geographical area, or both. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Code on Wages, 2019: in force 21 November 2025; section 6(6) on fixing minimum wages; section 69 repeals the Minimum Wages Act, 1948. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should a minimum wage follow the skill a job demands or the cost of living where it is done? |
Question 16 of 17
1. DAY-NULM : Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
2. PM SVANidhi : Loans to self-help groups of urban poor women
3. DAY-NRLM : Self-help groups of rural women
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
DAY-NULM was run by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
Pair 2Incorrect
PM SVANidhi gives collateral-free working capital loans to urban street vendors; it is not an SHG scheme.
Pair 3Correct
Under DAY-NRLM, 92 lakh SHGs have been formed, covering 10.05 crore rural women.
Analysis
The urban and rural missions are separate; the urban one’s implementation period ended on 30 September 2024, while the rural one still reports progress.
Concept note
The Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM), under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, was launched on 24 September 2013. It aimed to reduce the poverty and vulnerability of urban poor households by enabling them to access gainful self-employment and skilled wage employment, through strong grassroots institutions of the poor.
Poor urban women formed self-help groups that built a savings corpus, the basis for bank linkages, and the groups joined into Area Level Federations and City Level Federations. When its implementation period ended on 30 September 2024, 10,02,545 SHGs had been formed, a cumulative count rather than a count of groups active today.
A pilot, Deendayal Jan Aajeevika-Shehari (DJAY-S), ran from 1 October 2024 in 25 select cities, and the Ministry proposed a new Deendayal Jan Aajeevika Yojana in December 2024; no approval of it had been announced as of 15 October 2026. In the Ministry’s words, urban poverty alleviation is a State subject, and the Government of India supplements the States’ efforts.
PM SVANidhi, launched in June 2020, lends to street vendors, not SHGs. The rural mission, DAY-NRLM, is separate and still reports progress.
The Indian Express argues that letting DAY-NULM end without a successor was a mistake.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (welfare schemes, federalism); GS1 (urbanisation, women); GS3 (inclusive growth). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** urban poverty, self-help groups, women’s collectives, livelihoods, scheme continuity. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating DAY-NULM and DAY-NRLM as one mission; the urban one ended on 30 September 2024, the rural one continues. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** DAY-NULM: MoHUA, launched 24 September 2013, ended 30 September 2024; federations ALF and CLF; PM SVANidhi is for street vendors. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** If urban poverty alleviation is a State subject, who should support women’s SHGs when a Central mission ends? |
Question 17 of 17
1 The PITNDPS Act, 1988 provides for preventive detention to prevent illicit traffic in narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
2 Offences under the NDPS Act, 1985 are non-cognizable.
3 Section 64A of the NDPS Act gives immunity from prosecution, in certain cases, to addicts who voluntarily seek de-addiction treatment.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The PITNDPS Act, 1988 provides for preventive detention to prevent illicit traffic in narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
Statement 2Incorrect
Section 37 makes every offence under the NDPS Act cognizable, and for commercial quantity and offences under Sections 19, 24 and 27A bail is subject to the twin conditions.
Statement 3Correct
Section 64A gives immunity to addicts charged under Section 27 or with offences involving small quantity who voluntarily seek de-addiction treatment at a hospital or institution maintained or recognised by the Government.
Analysis
The NDPS Act punishes after trial, the PITNDPS Act detains to prevent, and Section 64A treats the addict as a patient.
Concept note
The Hindu’s editorial argues that Punjab’s drug trade and targeted killings feed each other, and that arrest tallies are no substitute for convictions, forfeiture and rehabilitation. The NDPS Act, 1985 grades punishment by quantity: small, more than small but less than commercial, and commercial, with commercial quantity attracting rigorous imprisonment of 10 to 20 years.
Section 27A punishes financing illicit traffic and harbouring offenders. Under Section 37 every offence is cognizable, and for commercial quantity and offences under Sections 19, 24 and 27A the accused cannot be released on bail unless the twin conditions are met.
Chapter VA (Sections 68A to 68Y), inserted by Act 2 of 1989, provides for forfeiture of illegally acquired property. Section 68A(2) lists the persons it applies to, among them persons convicted of offences punishable with ten years or more and persons detained under the PITNDPS Act, 1988, and it also reaches their relatives, their associates and later holders of such property.
Attachment or freezing of property is an investigative step; forfeiture is the final loss of the property. Section 64A offers immunity to addicts who voluntarily seek treatment.
Punjab’s campaign, ‘Yudh Nashian Virudh’, reports arrests and property action, not convictions.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (internal security, organised crime and drug trafficking); GS2 (health, criminal justice). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** drugs-crime nexus, conviction rate, asset forfeiture, de-addiction, preventive detention. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating attachment as forfeiture; under Chapter VA forfeiture reaches only the persons Section 68A(2) lists: those convicted of, arrested for or detained (PITNDPS Act) over serious drug offences, and their relatives, associates and property-holders. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NDPS Act, 1985: Section 37 (cognizable, twin conditions for bail), Section 64A (immunity for addicts), Chapter VA (forfeiture); PITNDPS Act, 1988 (preventive detention). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is a high arrest count a sign of success against drugs, or of a strategy that misses the suppliers? |
Performance
Question-wise Result