UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 13 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
10 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 10
1 Article 16(4) of the Constitution, which enables reservation in posts for backward classes, prescribes no percentage limit.
2 The only 'ceiling of fifty per cent' in the text of the Constitution is in Article 16(4B), which concerns carried-forward unfilled vacancies.
3 In Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India (2022), the majority held that the 50 per cent ceiling is inflexible and applies to the EWS quota as well.
4 Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 can be tested against the basic structure of the Constitution.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 16(4) enables reservation for ‘any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State’ and names no percentage; the 50 per cent ceiling is judge-made, from Indra Sawhney (1992).
Statement 2Correct
Article 16(4B) carries the only ‘ceiling of fifty per cent’ in the text, and it applies to carried-forward unfilled vacancies.
Statement 3Incorrect
The majority wrote that the ceiling ‘is not inflexible and in any case, applies only to the reservations envisaged by Articles 15(4), 15(5) and 16(4)’, so the EWS 10 per cent sits outside it.
Statement 4Correct
In I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007, nine judges), the Supreme Court held that laws added after 24 April 1973 can be tested on the touchstone of basic structure.
So three are correct: ‘Only one’ and ‘Only two’ reject a true statement, and ‘All four’ accepts the trap in Statement 3.
Analysis
The Karnataka High Court applied this ceiling to strike down the State’s 2022 rise in SC and ST quotas, which took the total from 50 to 56 per cent.
Concept note
The 50 per cent rule is a creation of the Supreme Court, not of the constitutional text. Article 15(4) enables special provision for socially and educationally backward classes and for SCs and STs; Article 16(4) enables reservation in posts for backward classes not adequately represented; neither names a number.
In Indra Sawhney (1992), paras 809-810, the Court held that reservation ‘should not exceed 50%’, while allowing relaxation in ‘extraordinary situations’, with extreme caution and ‘a special case made out’. The 103rd Amendment (2019) added Articles 15(6) and 16(6) for the EWS quota of up to ten per cent, ‘in addition to the existing reservations’, and Janhit Abhiyan (7 November 2022) upheld it, holding that the ceiling binds only the 15(4), 15(5) and 16(4) classes.
States that want to go higher have looked to the Ninth Schedule. Article 31B, inserted by the First Amendment, shields its laws from challenge under Part III, and Tamil Nadu’s 69 per cent law sits there as entry 257A (76th Amendment).
But I.R. Coelho (2007) opened entries added after 24 April 1973 to basic-structure review. Karnataka’s 2022 Act is not in the Ninth Schedule, and the High Court struck down Section 4 in full and Section 3 insofar as the total exceeds 50 per cent.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Fundamental Rights, judiciary, Ninth Schedule); GS1 (social justice and caste). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** 50% ceiling; extraordinary situations; quantifiable data; internal reservation; Ninth Schedule; basic structure. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Believing the 50% ceiling is written in Article 16(4); it is judge-made, and the only textual ceiling is 16(4B), for carried-forward vacancies. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 15(4) and 16(4) carry no number; 16(4B) carried-forward 50%; 15(6) and 16(6) EWS 10%, 103rd Amendment; Coelho cut-off 24 April 1973. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should reservation follow population share? Weigh representation against equality under Articles 14, 15 and 16. |
Question 2 of 10
1 The base year has been revised from 2012=100 to 2024=100, with the item basket and weights based on the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) 2023-24.
2 The new series classifies items into 12 Divisions as per COICOP 2018, in place of 6 Groups.
3 The Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI) and the 'Food and beverages' division of the CPI are the same measure.
4 Under Section 45ZA of the RBI Act, 1934, the Reserve Bank of India determines the inflation target, in consultation with the Central Government.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
MoSPI moved the base from 2012=100 to 2024=100, and the basket and weights of the new series come from HCES 2023-24.
Statement 2Correct
The new series has 12 Divisions as per COICOP 2018 in place of 6 Groups, with 43 groups, 92 classes, 162 subclasses and 358 items inside them.
Statement 3Incorrect
They are different measures; for September 2026 the CFPI stood at 7.74 per cent while the ‘Food and beverages’ division, a different measure, stood at 7.36 per cent.
Statement 4Incorrect
Section 45ZA says ‘The Central Government shall, in consultation with the Bank, determine the inflation target in terms of the Consumer Price Index, once in every five years’; the Centre decides, not the RBI.
So two are correct: ‘Only one’ rejects a true statement, while ‘Only three’ and ‘All four’ accept a false one.
Analysis
The September 2026 headline of 5.54 per cent sits inside the 2 to 6 per cent band of the target renewed to March 2031.
Concept note
Inflation targeting in India has a statutory base. Section 45ZA of the RBI Act, 1934 leaves the target to the Central Government, in consultation with the Bank, once in every five years, in terms of the CPI.
The first target ran from 2016 to 2021 and was retained to 2026 by a notification of 31 March 2021; a Gazette notification of 25 March 2026 (S.O. 1580(E)) renewed 4 per cent with a ±2 per cent band through March 2031. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) sets the repo rate; it raised it by 25 basis points to 5.50 per cent before the September print.
The index itself has changed. MoSPI’s 2024=100 series, released on 12 February 2026, has 358 items (308 goods, 50 services) against 299, 12 COICOP 2018 Divisions in place of 6 Groups, weights from HCES 2023-24 and 12 online markets.
Prices are collected by the Field Operations Division of the National Statistics Office (NSO) on a weekly roster. MoSPI warns that the new series cannot be compared directly with the old one, because the basket, weights, market coverage and methodology all differ.
So a September 2026 print should not be set beside a month of 2024 or 2025.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (inflation, monetary policy, official statistics); GS2 (statutory framework of the RBI). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** base revision; COICOP 2018; CFPI; inflation targeting; tolerance band; calibrated tightening. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating CFPI (7.74%) and the Food and beverages division (7.36%) as one number, and thinking the RBI sets the target. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 45ZA: the Centre sets the target, in consultation with the RBI, once in every five years; the current target is 4% with a ±2% band to March 2031. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why not compare today’s inflation with 2024’s? Explain the new base, basket and weights. |
Question 3 of 10
Statement-I: After a negative supply shock, the New Keynesian model of Michael Woodford recommends a cooling measure, such as higher interest rates, rather than stimulus.
Statement-II: A negative supply shock lowers natural output, so the output gap can turn positive even though demand has not risen.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences writes that ‘Unlike the traditional Keynesian models, Woodford’s model recommends a cooling measure, such as increased interest rates, to avoid uncontrolled inflation.’
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
The output gap is actual output minus natural output; when a supply shock cuts natural output and demand does not fall as much, the gap turns positive, a positive gap pushes inflation up, and policy is meant ‘to steer the gap toward zero’, which calls for cooling. Option (b) is wrong because II is the reason for I; options (c) and (d) are wrong because both statements are correct.
Analysis
Robert E. Hall and Michael Woodford won the 2026 economics prize ‘for microeconomic foundations of macroeconomic stabilisation’.
Concept note
Stabilisation policy uses monetary and fiscal tools to accelerate a slowing economy or brake an overheating one. The traditional Keynesian models rested on statistical links between aggregates, such as the Phillips curve (‘inflation tends to be low when unemployment is high, and vice versa’).
The oil crises of the 1970s broke those links: ‘Inflation rose despite increasing unemployment’. Robert E. Lucas, Jr., the 1995 laureate, argued that a change in policy changes the behaviour that produced the old correlations, so models need microfoundations.
Hall supplied the household side: if consumption follows expected income, changes in consumption cannot be predicted, and Hall and Mishkin (1982) found about 80 per cent of the households studied acted in line with the theory. Woodford’s 2003 book Interest and Prices joined households, firms with sticky prices and a central bank that sets the interest rate into a three-equation New Keynesian model.
Its lessons: policy works through the interest rate, with Knut Wicksell’s natural rate (1898) as the neutral point; credibility and transparency matter because firms look ahead; and the output gap, actual minus natural output, is the guide. A supply shock lowers natural output, which is why the model advises cooling.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (monetary policy, inflation, growth); GS2 (the RBI as a statutory body). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** microfoundations; New Keynesian model; sticky prices; output gap; forward guidance; Lucas critique. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the answer to every slowdown is a rate cut; after a supply shock that opens a positive output gap, the model advises cooling. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Output gap = actual output minus natural output; a positive gap pushes inflation up; natural rate of interest = Wicksell (1898). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should a central bank raise rates when inflation comes from an energy price shock rather than from demand? |
Question 4 of 10
Facts
Option (c) is correct: Sveriges Riksbank, Sweden’s central bank, established the prize in 1968; it was first awarded in 1969, to Ragnar Frisch and Jan Tinbergen, and the Riksbank pays the prize amount. Option (a) is wrong: Alfred Nobel did not found the economics prize; the Riksbank did, in 1968. Option (b) is wrong: the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences awards the prize, ‘according to the same principles as for the Nobel Prizes that have been awarded since 1901’, but it did not establish it.
Option (d) is wrong: the prize was established by the Riksbank and is awarded by the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences, not by any Norwegian body.
Analysis
The 2026 prize, 12 million Swedish kronor shared equally, went to Robert E. Hall and Michael Woodford.
Concept note
The prize in the news has a long official name, and each part of it is a Prelims fact. It is the Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel; ‘Economics Nobel’ is shorthand.
Sveriges Riksbank, Sweden’s central bank, established it in 1968, and it was first awarded in 1969, to Ragnar Frisch and Jan Tinbergen. The prize amount is the same as for the Nobel Prizes and is paid by the Riksbank.
The awarding body is the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences, founded in 1739, which awards it ‘according to the same principles as for the Nobel Prizes that have been awarded since 1901’. Three roles therefore sit with three names: the Riksbank established the prize and pays for it, the Academy awards it, and Alfred Nobel is remembered in the title.
The 2026 prize, 12 million Swedish kronor shared equally, went to Robert E. Hall of Stanford University and Michael Woodford of Columbia University ‘for microeconomic foundations of macroeconomic stabilisation’. This year’s texts also name two earlier laureates: Robert E. Lucas, Jr. (1995), whose critique of Keynesian models the prize work answers, and Angus Deaton (2015), named for further work on consumption.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** Prelims persons and awards; GS3 (macroeconomics, central banking). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** stabilisation policy; microfoundations; central bank credibility. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying Alfred Nobel founded the economics prize; Sveriges Riksbank established it in 1968. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Established 1968 (Riksbank); first awarded 1969 (Frisch and Tinbergen); awarded by the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences (founded 1739). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should economics, whose findings change with policy, be honoured on the same principles as the natural sciences? |
Question 5 of 10
Statement-I: The State may impose reasonable restrictions on the right of citizens to assemble peaceably and without arms, in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
Statement-II: Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution guarantees citizens the right to freedom of speech and expression.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Article 19(3) lets the State impose reasonable restrictions on the right of assembly guaranteed by Article 19(1)(b), in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
Statement IICorrectDoes not explain Statement I
Article 19(1)(a) guarantees the right ‘to freedom of speech and expression’, a separate clause; the power to restrict assembly comes from Article 19(3), not from 19(1)(a). Option (a) is wrong because II gives no reason for I; options (c) and (d) are wrong because both statements are correct.
Analysis
The Delhi Police, The Hindu reports, denotified Jantar Mantar as a protest venue and designated Ramlila Maidan, Burari Ground and CBD Ground instead; whether a restriction on the place and manner of protest is reasonable is the question for the courts.
Concept note
Protest is protected through two clauses of Article 19. Clause (1)(a) guarantees the right ‘to freedom of speech and expression’, and clause (1)(b) the right ‘to assemble peaceably and without arms’.
Neither is absolute. Under Article 19(3), the State may impose reasonable restrictions on the right of assembly in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
A restriction on the place and manner of protest must itself be reasonable, and that is what courts examine. The Delhi Police order, a standing order of the Commissioner issued after recommendations of a committee constituted by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, partially modifies Standing Order No. L&O/48/22 of April 2022, which had identified Jantar Mantar as a designated site.
It names three grounds instead, with revised standard operating procedures to be issued separately. A Supreme Court Bench had earlier urged the Union government to look for a ‘spacious, open’ alternative site, with basic amenities for those engaged in peaceful and lawful protest.
Activists say relocation makes it harder for citizens to draw the attention of political leaders and decision-makers to their demands. The Delhi High Court is to hear two petitions on the closure.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Fundamental Rights, police and public order); GS4 (dissent and accountability). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** reasonable restrictions; public order; place and manner of protest; peaceful assembly. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Locating the power to restrict assembly in Article 19(1)(b) itself; it lies in Article 19(3). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 19(1)(a) speech and expression; 19(1)(b) assemble peaceably and without arms; 19(3) restrictions for sovereignty and integrity, public order. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should a city balance the right to protest with the rights of residents and commuters? |
Question 6 of 10
1 A Governor is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
2 A Governor holds office for a fixed term of five years and cannot be removed before it ends.
3 A person must have completed 30 years of age to be eligible for appointment as Governor.
4 A Governor may continue as a member of the Legislature of a State while holding the office.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 155 says the Governor is ‘appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal’.
Statement 2Incorrect
Under Article 156 the Governor holds office ‘during the pleasure of the President’; the five-year term runs from entering office, and a Governor continues until a successor enters office.
Statement 3Incorrect
Article 157 requires a citizen of India who has completed 35 years of age.
Statement 4Incorrect
Article 158 bars a Governor from being a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any State.
So only one is correct; ‘Only two’, ‘Only three’ and ‘All four’ each accept at least one false statement.
Analysis
The President’s communique appointing Governors for six States says the appointments take effect from the dates the Governors assume charge of their offices.
Concept note
The Governor is the constitutional head of the State, and Articles 153 to 158 set out the office. Article 153 provides ‘There shall be a Governor for each State’, and its proviso allows one person to be Governor of two or more States.
Article 155 makes the appointment by the President, by warrant under his hand and seal. Article 156 is the key to tenure: the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President, so the five-year term from entering office is not a guarantee, and a Governor whose term ends continues until a successor enters office.
Article 157 fixes two qualifications, citizenship of India and 35 completed years of age. Article 158 bars a Governor from membership of either House of Parliament or of a House of a State Legislature.
The communique of the President’s Secretariat covers six States: Keralam, Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Karnataka, Uttarakhand and Sikkim. Two are transfers of serving Governors, from Sikkim to Keralam and from Keralam to Tamil Nadu.
Each appointment takes effect only when the Governor assumes charge, so until then the earlier holder continues. For Prelims, the trap is usually tenure: a fixed five years is wrong, the pleasure of the President is right.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (State executive, Centre-State relations, federalism). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** constitutional head; pleasure of the President; tenure; federal balance. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the five-year term as fixed; under Article 156 the Governor serves during the pleasure of the President. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Art 153 a Governor for each State (proviso: two or more States); 155 warrant; 156 pleasure; 157 age 35; 158 not a legislator. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does the pleasure doctrine leave Governors too dependent on the Union government? |
Question 7 of 10
1 It is a Centrally sponsored scheme aligned with the National Education Policy 2020.
2 It covers non-literate persons aged 15 and above.
3 It aims to provide foundational literacy and numeracy along with lifelong learning.
4 Lakshadweep’s declaration of full literacy under it followed learners clearing the Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Assessment Test (FLNAT).
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
ULLAS is a Centrally sponsored scheme aligned with NEP 2020.
Statement 2Correct
It is meant for non-literate persons aged 15 and above.
Statement 3Correct
It aims to provide foundational literacy, numeracy and lifelong learning.
Statement 4Correct
All eligible learners in Lakshadweep cleared the FLNAT before the Union Territory was declared 100 per cent literate.
So all four are correct; ‘Only one’, ‘Only two’ and ‘Only three’ each reject a true statement.
Analysis
An initial survey identified 1,113 adult non-literates across the islands; the status rests on a test, not on a self-declaration.
Concept note
ULLAS is the adult literacy scheme in the news. Its full name is Nav Bharat Saaksharta Karyakram.
It is a Centrally sponsored scheme aligned with the National Education Policy 2020, and it aims to give foundational literacy, numeracy and lifelong learning to non-literate persons aged 15 and above. The method matters for the exam.
In Lakshadweep, literacy was not self-declared: an initial survey identified 1,113 adult non-literates across the islands, and all eligible learners then cleared the Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Assessment Test (FLNAT). Teachers and supervisors volunteered to run doorstep and home-based assessments for learners who were unable or hesitant to attend examination centres.
Only after the FLNAT results did the Administrator declare Lakshadweep a 100 per cent literate Union Territory, at Kavaratti, achieving full literacy status under ULLAS. The sequence to remember is a survey, teaching, a test and then a declaration.
A Mains answer on adult education can use it to show how a numerical target is turned into a verifiable outcome, and why assessment by test is more credible than a count of enrolments. For Prelims, the four tags go together: Centrally sponsored, aged 15 and above, NEP 2020 and FLNAT.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (education, welfare schemes, Union Territories); GS1 (literacy as a social indicator). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** adult literacy; foundational literacy and numeracy; lifelong learning; outcome-based assessment. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Taking a literacy declaration as self-reported; in Lakshadweep it followed the FLNAT results. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** ULLAS = Nav Bharat Saaksharta Karyakram; age 15 and above; Centrally sponsored; NEP 2020; FLNAT. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you keep newly literate adults from losing the skill? |
Question 8 of 10
1 C3S is implemented by ECMWF and uses ERA5 as its data source.
2 September 2026 was 1.63°C warmer than the 1850-1900 pre-industrial average.
3 The anomaly of 0.82°C reported for September 2026 is measured against the 1850-1900 pre-industrial average.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
C3S is implemented by ECMWF, and its data source is ERA5.
Statement 2Correct
Against the 1850-1900 pre-industrial average, September 2026 was 1.63°C warmer.
Statement 3Incorrect
The 0.82°C is against the 1991-2020 average for the month, not against pre-industrial levels. Options (b), (c) and (d) are wrong because each includes Statement 3, and (b) also drops Statement 1.
Analysis
September 2026 was the second-warmest September on record, 0.11°C cooler than September 2023, and the 12-month average returned to 1.50°C above pre-industrial; that figure is a 12-month average, not a single month.
Concept note
Climate figures mean little without their baselines, and the Copernicus bulletin uses two reference periods plus a running average. The anomaly against the 1991-2020 average compares a month with the recent climate: September 2026 was 0.82°C above it.
The anomaly against 1850-1900, the pre-industrial reference, measures warming since then: September 2026 was 1.63°C above it, the second consecutive month more than 1.5°C above the pre-industrial level. A 12-month running average smooths out single months: for October 2025 to September 2026 it was 1.50°C above pre-industrial, which Copernicus calls a return to that level for the first time since October 2025.
A single warm month above 1.5°C is therefore not the same as a long-term average above it. The Copernicus Climate Change Service (C3S), implemented by ECMWF, draws these numbers from ERA5.
September 2026’s average surface air temperature was 16.27°C, making it the second-warmest September on record, 0.11°C cooler than September 2023. The extra-polar ocean surface reached a record high for September, as an exceptionally strong El Niño continued to develop in the tropical Pacific.
In Europe it was the third-warmest September, and January to September 2026 ranks second, behind 2024.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (climate change, environment); GS1 (climatology, El Niño). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** baselines; pre-industrial level; 12-month average; El Niño; ERA5. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading the 0.82°C as warming over pre-industrial levels; it is measured against 1991-2020. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 0.82°C vs 1991-2020; 1.63°C vs 1850-1900; 1.50°C is a 12-month average. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you explain the difference between a warm month and a warming trend to a farmer? |
Question 9 of 10
Statement-I: Under the Clinical Establishments (Central Government) Rules, 2012, clinical establishments must display their rates in English only.
Statement-II: The Union Health Ministry’s letter recognises that health is a State subject and that enforcement of the display of hospital rates rests with the States and Union Territories.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement IIncorrect
In States and UTs where the Clinical Establishments (Registration and Regulation) Act, 2010 applies, the Rules require the rates for each service and facility to be displayed at a conspicuous place in the local language as well as in English.
Statement IICorrect
The Union Health Ministry’s letter recognises that health is a State subject and that enforcement rests with the States and UTs, so the Centre can only urge. Options (a) and (b) are wrong because
Statement IIncorrect
Option (c) is wrong because it reverses both verdicts.
Analysis
The Union Health Secretary wrote to the Chief Secretaries of all States and UTs, and also asked them to encourage the display of package rates for foreign patients on Medical or Ayush Visas.
Concept note
Price transparency in hospitals rests on a central law that applies only where it has been adopted. The Clinical Establishments (Registration and Regulation) Act, 2010, with the Clinical Establishments (Central Government) Rules, 2012, requires establishments in the States and UTs where the Act applies to display the rates for each service and facility at a conspicuous place, in the local language as well as in English.
Where the Act does not apply, establishments are regulated under the State or UT’s own framework. The Union Health Ministry’s advisory reflects this division of powers: the letter recognises health as a State subject (hospitals and dispensaries are entry 6 of the State List), so the Centre can urge but the States must act.
The letter, from the Union Health Secretary to all Chief Secretaries, also asks them to encourage the display of package rates for foreign patients who travel to India on Medical or Ayush Visas. Visible prices let patients plan their spending and reduce billing disputes.
For the exam, keep three layers apart: the 2010 Act, the 2012 Rules made under it, and the States’ role in enforcement. A question that makes the Centre the enforcer, or English the only language, is the usual trap.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (health, federalism, governance and transparency); GS3 (health services). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** price transparency; patient rights; cooperative federalism; regulation of clinical establishments. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the Centre can enforce the advisory everywhere; the Act applies only where adopted, and enforcement lies with the States and UTs. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Clinical Establishments Act 2010; Rules 2012; rates at a conspicuous place, in the local language and English. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should hospital prices be capped, or only displayed? |
Question 10 of 10
1 It was launched in 2021.
2 It brings data from ministries, States and Union Territories onto a common GIS-based platform.
3 It covers 58 Central Ministries and Departments and all 36 States and Union Territories.
4 Power transmission is one of its seven infrastructure engines.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The plan was launched in October 2021 and completes five years in October 2026.
Statement 2Correct
It puts data from ministries, States and UTs on a common GIS-based platform.
Statement 3Correct
It covers 58 Central Ministries and Departments and all 36 States and UTs.
Statement 4Incorrect
The seven engines are roads, railways, ports, waterways, airports, mass transport and logistics infrastructure; power transmission is not one of them.
So three are correct; ‘Only one’ and ‘Only two’ reject true statements, and ‘All four’ accepts Statement 4.
Analysis
The PM GatiShakti Public platform gives access to 230 approved datasets, and the platform holds over 23,493 data layers.
Concept note
PM GatiShakti is a planning platform rather than a construction scheme. It brings the data of ministries, States and Union Territories onto a common GIS-based platform, so that projects in different sectors can be planned against the same layers of data.
It covers 58 Central Ministries and Departments and all 36 States and UTs. Its seven infrastructure engines are roads, railways, ports, waterways, airports, mass transport and logistics infrastructure.
The platform holds over 23,493 data layers, and the PM GatiShakti Public platform gives access to 230 approved datasets. The plan was launched in October 2021, so October 2026 marks five years, as a PIB background note pointed out.
For Mains, the idea is integrated, multimodal planning across ministries and levels of government, which is also why the plan needs the States on board. The related Integrated Transport and Logistics Authority was the subject of our 7 October deep dive.
For Prelims, learn the seven engines exactly, since a plausible but absent sector, such as power or telecom, is the usual trap. Also keep the counts straight: 58 is the number of Central Ministries and Departments, and 36 is the number of States and UTs.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (infrastructure, logistics); GS2 (cooperative federalism, e-governance). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** integrated planning; multimodal connectivity; GIS-based planning; whole-of-government approach. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Adding power or telecom to the seven engines; they are roads, railways, ports, waterways, airports, mass transport and logistics infrastructure. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Launched in 2021; 58 Ministries and Departments; 36 States and UTs; seven engines. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How can a shared data platform reduce delays in infrastructure projects? |
Performance
Question-wise Result