UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 6 October 2026
Test Your Knowledge
18 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 18
1 Channelrhodopsin, the protein at the heart of the technique, was discovered in a single-celled green alga.
2 When blue light falls on channelrhodopsin, a channel opens through the protein itself and ions flow into the cell.
3 Only those nerve cells that carry the introduced gene respond to the light.
4 The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine is decided by the Nobel Assembly at Karolinska Institutet.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Channelrhodopsin comes from Chlamydomonas, a single-celled green alga that swims towards light.
Statement 2Correct
The protein is itself the ion channel; blue light opens it and positive ions flow in, creating an electrical impulse.
Statement 3Correct
The light acts only on cells genetically made to carry channelrhodopsin, which is what gives the method its precision.
Statement 4Correct
The Nobel Assembly at Karolinska Institutet decides this prize; the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences decides Physics and Chemistry.
Analysis
Karl Deisseroth, Peter Hegemann and Georg Nagel won the 2026 prize for light-gated ion channels and optogenetics.
Concept note
Nerve cells signal by moving ions such as sodium and potassium across their membranes through protein channels; most channels open in response to a voltage change or a chemical messenger. Hegemann and Nagel found in the early 2000s that the alga Chlamydomonas uses a light-gated channel, and that the protein made any cell it was placed in sensitive to light.
Deisseroth inserted its gene into rat neurons and reported light-triggered nerve signals in 2005; two years later the method worked in living mice. Compared with electrodes (which stimulate every cell near the tip) and drugs (which act slowly and widely), light acts in milliseconds, only where it is shone and only on chosen cell types, and the effect is reversible.
It has been used to map circuits behind memory, fear and reward, and researchers are attempting to use it to restore sight. Indian research funding for such long-horizon work now runs through the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF Act, 2023).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (science and technology, biotechnology); GS3 (research policy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** basic research, cell-specific control, neural circuits, translational science, neuroethics. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the light acts through a separate receptor and messenger; channelrhodopsin is itself the channel. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Medicine prize: Nobel Assembly at Karolinska Institutet; Physics and Chemistry: Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences; Peace: Norwegian Nobel Committee. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should a developing country spend public money on research with no obvious use? |
Question 2 of 18
1 The National Statistics Office was formed by merging the Central Statistics Office and the National Sample Survey Office.
2 The National Household Travel Survey 2025-26 is the first survey of its kind conducted by the National Statistics Office.
3 The National Household Travel Survey recorded every trip made by a household member, including walks of less than one kilometre.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The NSO was created in 2019 under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation by merging the CSO and the NSSO.
Statement 2Correct
MoSPI calls the NHTS, conducted from July 2025 to June 2026, the first-ever such survey.
Statement 3Incorrect
Only trips of more than 1 km were recorded, so short walks are missing from the data.
Analysis
The survey covered about 4.9 lakh households and found two-wheelers to be the main mode for 42.6 per cent of workers who travel to a fixed workplace.
Concept note
MoSPI’s statistical wing was reorganised in 2019, when the Central Statistics Office, which compiled national accounts and indices, and the National Sample Survey Office, which ran household surveys in numbered rounds, were merged into the National Statistics Office. The NSO runs the Periodic Labour Force Survey, the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey and now the NHTS.
The travel survey defines a travel-day as 3:00 AM to 2:59 AM, an overnight trip as more than 24 hours and at least 50 km from home, and the primary mode as the one used for the longest distance. It found students walk most (37.0 per cent), that urban workers spend about Rs 1,044 a month on commuting, and that metro and suburban rail carry 5.0 per cent of urban workers.
The National Urban Transport Policy, 2006 asked cities to plan for moving people rather than vehicles; such data were long missing for that purpose.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (infrastructure, urban transport); GS1 (urbanisation); GS2 (data for policy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** evidence-based planning, modal share, public transport, gender gap in mobility, last-mile connectivity. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading the NHTS as a census of all movement; trips under 1 km were not counted. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NSO = CSO + NSSO (2019), under MoSPI; NHTS: July 2025 to June 2026, first-ever. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why do Indian cities keep building flyovers when most commuters use two-wheelers, buses or their feet? |
Question 3 of 18
1 The European Free Trade Association has four members: Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein.
2 Switzerland, like the other three EFTA states, is part of the European Economic Area.
3 The India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement is India’s first free trade agreement with a European bloc.
4 The India-Switzerland Bilateral Investment Promotion and Protection Agreement of 1997 continues to protect Swiss investments in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
EFTA has four members.
Statement 2Incorrect
Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein are in the European Economic Area, but Swiss voters rejected EEA membership in 1992 and Switzerland relies on bilateral treaties with the EU.
Statement 3Correct
TEPA, in force since 1 October 2025, is India’s first FTA with a European bloc.
Statement 4Incorrect
The 1997 treaty was terminated with effect from 6 April 2017, after India adopted its 2015 Model BIT.
Analysis
During the Swiss President’s state visit, Switzerland said it hoped to conclude a new investment protection agreement quickly.
Concept note
EFTA was founded in 1960 by the Stockholm Convention as an alternative to the European Economic Community; most founders later left to join the EU, leaving four members. TEPA was signed on 10 March 2024 and carries an EFTA commitment to promote USD 100 billion of investment and one million direct jobs in India over 15 years, a first for an Indian trade agreement.
In 2015 India adopted a new Model Bilateral Investment Treaty after arbitral awards such as White Industries (2011) went against it; it then gave notice to terminate older treaties whose initial term had expired, including the one with Switzerland. The 2015 model defines investment narrowly, requires investors to exhaust local remedies before arbitration and protects the State’s right to regulate.
The state visit also produced a Migration and Mobility Partnership MoU and an Agreement on the Exchange of Young Professionals (300 a year from each side, which may rise to 500).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (bilateral agreements, India and Europe); GS3 (investment models, trade). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** investment protection, investor-State dispute settlement, Model BIT 2015, legal mobility pathways, TRIPS flexibilities. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating EFTA as part of the EU, or assuming every EFTA state is in the EEA. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** EFTA: 1960, Stockholm Convention, four members; TEPA signed 10 March 2024, in force 1 October 2025. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India sign investment treaties that let foreign firms take it to international arbitration? |
Question 4 of 18
Statement-I: Under the Viksit Bharat - Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025, works taken up in a village must form part of the Viksit Gram Panchayat Plan approved by the Gram Sabha.
Statement-II: Article 243A of the Constitution provides that a Gram Sabha may exercise such powers and perform such functions at the village level as the Legislature of a State may, by law, provide.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The Rural Development Ministry says every work under VB-G RAM G must come from the Viksit Gram Panchayat Plan approved by the Gram Sabha.
Statement IICorrectDoes not explain Statement I
Article 243A leaves the Gram Sabha’s powers to State law, whereas the planning requirement here comes from a Central Act, Parliament’s own scheme of rural employment.
Analysis
The newly notified Schedule lists 375 permissible works in four pillars, with Water Security the largest at 128 works.
Concept note
Part IX of the Constitution, added by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, made Panchayati Raj institutions constitutional bodies. Article 243 defines the Gram Sabha as the body of all persons on the electoral rolls of a village; Article 243A lets the State Legislature give it powers; Article 243G and the Eleventh Schedule (29 subjects) let States devolve functions to panchayats.
The VB-G RAM G Act, 2025, which replaced the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 and came into force on 1 July 2026, raises the guarantee from 100 to 125 days of wage work per rural household per year. Its Schedule of Permissible Works, notified by the Ministry of Rural Development, expands the list from 266 to 375 works, raises livelihood works from 1.1 to 26 per cent of the total, and creates a separate Disaster Preparedness pillar of 38 works.
Under MGNREGA, social audit by the Gram Sabha (Section 17) was the main check on ghost works and false muster rolls.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Panchayati Raj, welfare schemes); GS3 (employment, rural infrastructure, disaster management). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** bottom-up planning, durable assets, convergence, social audit, demand-driven guarantee. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the Constitution itself lists the Gram Sabha’s powers; Article 243A leaves them to State law. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Gram Sabha: Article 243(b) definition, Article 243A powers; Eleventh Schedule: 29 subjects. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is a longer list of permissible works a gain for workers, or for contractors? |
Question 5 of 18
1 The cheetah was declared extinct in India in 1952.
2 The cheetahs brought to India belong to the Asiatic subspecies, which now survives in the wild only in Iran.
3 Both sites of the project, Kuno National Park and Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary, are in Madhya Pradesh.
4 The project is implemented by the National Tiger Conservation Authority.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The cheetah was declared extinct in India in 1952.
Statement 2Incorrect
The animals came from Namibia, South Africa and Botswana and are African cheetahs; the Asiatic cheetah survives only in Iran.
Statement 3Correct
Kuno is in Sheopur district and Gandhi Sagar in the Mandsaur-Neemuch area, both in Madhya Pradesh.
Statement 4Correct
The NTCA implements the project with the Madhya Pradesh Forest Department and the Wildlife Institute of India.
Analysis
Five cubs born to the Indian-born female KJP21 have taken the population to 60, of which 41 are Indian-born.
Concept note
Project Cheetah began on 17 September 2022, when eight cheetahs from Namibia were released at Kuno; South Africa sent a second group in 2023 and Botswana nine cheetahs (six females and three males) in February 2026. The father of KJP21’s cubs is from Botswana, so the litter begins a third genetic line in India, which matters because a small founder population risks inbreeding.
KJP21 is the third Indian-born female to give birth, after Mukhi and KGP12, which shows a second generation breeding without fresh imports. The project’s problems have included adult deaths from infections and fights, cheetahs straying out of Kuno, competition with leopards and dependence on enclosures and collars.
Its larger purpose is grassland restoration: the open grasslands a cheetah needs also shelter the blackbuck, chinkara, Indian wolf and Great Indian Bustard, a habitat that forest-centred conservation has long neglected.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (biodiversity, species reintroduction); GS1 (distribution of fauna). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** founder effect, genetic diversity, metapopulation, carrying capacity, grassland ecosystems. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Calling the imported animals Asiatic cheetahs; they are African, and the Asiatic form survives only in Iran. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Project Cheetah: 17 September 2022, Kuno (Sheopur, MP); source countries Namibia, South Africa, Botswana; second site Gandhi Sagar. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the success of Project Cheetah be measured in cubs born or in grasslands restored? |
Question 6 of 18
1 The Central Electricity Authority is a statutory body that now functions under the Electricity Act, 2003.
2 Coal India Limited is a Maharatna company under the administrative control of the Ministry of Power.
3 The Electricity Act, 2003 empowers the appropriate Government to direct a generating company to operate and maintain a generating station in extraordinary circumstances.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The CEA, first constituted under the Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948, continues under Section 70 of the Electricity Act, 2003 and sets technical norms, including the coal stock a plant should hold.
Statement 2Incorrect
CIL is under the Ministry of Coal.
Statement 3Correct
Section 11 allows such directions, and the Centre has used it to make imported-coal plants run during shortages.
Analysis
CEA data show 84 of 191 thermal plants with critical stocks even as CIL’s supply to the power sector rose in September.
Concept note
Coal supplies about three-quarters of India’s electricity. Coal mines were nationalised in 1971-73, and Coal India Limited, set up in 1975, produces most of the country’s coal through subsidiaries such as Mahanadi Coalfields and South Eastern Coalfields; it became a Maharatna in 2011.
The CEA advises the Centre on power policy, prepares the National Electricity Plan and monitors fuel stocks at plants; a plant is flagged critical when its stock falls well below the normative level. Stocks fall when demand outruns supply: a weak monsoon cuts hydropower, heat raises cooling demand, and rail logistics limit how fast coal moves from the coalfields of Jharkhand, Odisha and Chhattisgarh.
Remedies include building stocks before peak seasons, first-mile mechanised loading, more rakes, imported-coal blending, battery and pumped storage to shift solar power into the evening peak, and demand-side measures such as time-of-day tariffs.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (infrastructure: energy, resource mobilisation); GS2 (statutory bodies). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** energy security, normative stock, pithead stock, first-mile connectivity, evening peak. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing CIL under the Ministry of Power; it is under the Ministry of Coal, while the CEA advises the Ministry of Power. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CEA: Section 70, Electricity Act 2003; directions to generating companies: Section 11. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** If coal plants are short of coal, should India build more of them? |
Question 7 of 18
Statement-I: Parliament can increase the number of judges of the Supreme Court through an ordinary law, without amending the Constitution.
Statement-II: Article 124(1) of the Constitution provides for a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, not more than seven other judges.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The strength is fixed by the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956, which Parliament has amended several times by simple majority.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
Article 124(1) itself leaves the number of judges to Parliament’s law, which is why no constitutional amendment is needed.
Analysis
An amendment in 2026 raised the sanctioned strength from 34 to 38 including the Chief Justice; three High Court Chief Justices were appointed in October, taking the working strength to 37.
Concept note
The Constitution began with a Chief Justice and seven other judges. The 1956 Act and its amendments raised the number of other judges to 10 (1956), 13 (1960), 17 (1977), 25 (1986), 30 (2008), 33 (2019) and 37 (2026).
Judges are appointed by the President under Article 124(2); since the Second Judges case (1993) and the Third Judges case (1998), appointments follow the recommendation of a collegium of the Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most judges. The 99th Amendment and the National Judicial Appointments Commission Act, 2014 sought to replace the collegium, but the Supreme Court struck both down in 2015 (Fourth Judges case).
The Memorandum of Procedure, agreed between the government and the judiciary, governs the process. A judge holds office until 65 and can be removed only by an order of the President after an address by each House of Parliament, supported by a special majority, on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity (Article 124(4)).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (judiciary, appointments, separation of powers). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** collegium, judicial independence, Memorandum of Procedure, pendency, diversity on the Bench. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Believing the number of judges is written into the Constitution and needs an amendment to change. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 124(1) number by law; 124(2) appointment; 124(4) removal; 124(6) oath. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Would a larger Supreme Court reduce pendency, or should it sit in constitution benches more often? |
Question 8 of 18
2 Under Article 239AA, the Legislative Assembly of Delhi cannot make laws on police and public order.
3 The Supreme Court’s directions in Prakash Singh v. Union of India (2006) include setting up a State Security Commission in every State.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Public order is Entry 1 and police Entry 2 of List II.
Statement 2Correct
Article 239AA(3)(a) excludes Entries 1, 2 and 18 of the State List (public order, police and land) from the Delhi Assembly’s power, so Delhi Police reports to the Union Home Ministry.
Statement 3Correct
State Security Commissions were the first of the seven directions.
Analysis
A Supreme Court Bench hearing a suo motu case on sexual assaults in Delhi-NCR has asked the Delhi Police to set up 24-hour monitoring cells and step up patrolling near educational institutions.
Concept note
The Prakash Singh judgment of 2006 issued seven directions: a State Security Commission to set broad policy and keep the government from exerting unwarranted pressure on the police; selection of the DGP from three senior officers shortlisted by the UPSC, with a minimum tenure of two years; a minimum two-year tenure for key field officers; separation of investigation from law-and-order duties; a Police Establishment Board for transfers and postings; Police Complaints Authorities at State and district levels; and a National Security Commission for the Central police organisations. Compliance remains uneven.
For women’s safety, the Nirbhaya Fund (2013) finances projects such as one-stop centres, the 112 emergency response system and safe-city projects. The Court’s point in the Delhi case is that CCTV helps detect crime after the event but prevents it only when a control room watches the feed continuously and responds.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (federalism, police reform, Delhi’s special status); GS1 (women’s safety). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** preventive policing, community policing, police accountability, Seventh Schedule, Article 239AA. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the Delhi government controls the Delhi Police; it reports to the Union Home Ministry. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** List II Entry 1 public order, Entry 2 police; Article 239AA(3)(a) excludes Entries 1, 2 and 18 for Delhi. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is more surveillance the answer to unsafe public spaces, or more police on foot? |
Question 9 of 18
2 The Census in India is conducted under the Census Act, 1948.
3 The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
4 The superintendence, direction and control of elections to municipalities are vested in the State Election Commission.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Census is Entry 69 of List I.
Statement 2Correct
The Census Act, 1948 and the Census Rules, 1990 govern it.
Statement 3Correct
The Registrar General and Census Commissioner works under the Home Ministry.
Statement 4Correct
Article 243ZA vests municipal elections in the State Election Commission set up under Article 243K, not in the Election Commission of India.
Analysis
The Supreme Court will hear a plea asking whether States may redraw ward boundaries while the Census freeze under Rule 8(iv) of the Census Rules, 1990 is in force.
Concept note
Before each Census, the Census Commissioner asks States to freeze the boundaries of administrative units such as districts, tehsils and towns, because units that change while enumerators are counting produce double counts, omissions and figures that no longer match maps. Ward delimitation for municipalities, however, is a State matter: it is done under State municipal laws, usually by the State government or the State Election Commission, and municipal elections must be held before the expiry of the five-year term (Article 243U).
The two timetables can collide, which is the question now before the Court for Census 2027. Census data also drive delimitation of Lok Sabha and Assembly constituencies, which Article 82 and Article 170 tie to the first Census after 2026 under the 84th and 87th Amendments, and the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Census 2027 will be India’s first digital census and will record caste.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Union-State relations, urban local bodies, elections); GS1 (population and its distribution). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** boundary freeze, data integrity, delimitation, State Election Commission, cooperative federalism. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the Election Commission of India conducts municipal and panchayat elections; State Election Commissions do. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Census: Entry 69, List I; Census Act 1948; SEC: Article 243K (panchayats) and 243ZA (municipalities). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the Census freeze override a State’s duty to hold local elections on time? |
Question 10 of 18
1 It was set up under an Act of Parliament passed in 2021.
2 Its creation led to the dissolution of the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority, which had been constituted in 1998.
3 Its jurisdiction is confined to the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The CAQM Act, 2021 replaced the ordinance under which the Commission was first set up in 2020.
Statement 2Correct
The EPCA, constituted in 1998 under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 on the Supreme Court’s direction, was dissolved.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Commission covers the National Capital Region and adjoining areas of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
Analysis
It has deployed flying squads in 34 districts of Punjab and Haryana, from 1 October to 30 November 2026, to prevent paddy stubble burning.
Concept note
Stubble burning peaks in October and November, when farmers in Punjab and Haryana clear paddy residue quickly to sow wheat; the smoke adds to Delhi’s winter smog, when low wind speeds and falling temperatures trap pollutants near the ground. The window shrank after the Punjab and Haryana groundwater laws of 2009 delayed paddy transplanting to save water, pushing the harvest later.
Responses fall into three groups: in-situ management (machines such as the Happy Seeder and Super Seeder, and bio-decomposers), ex-situ use (straw for biomass power, pellets for co-firing in thermal plants, and compressed biogas), and crop diversification away from paddy. CAQM can issue binding directions and now administers the Graded Response Action Plan (first notified in 2017), a set of measures triggered by Air Quality Index levels.
Its flying squads report daily to a CAQM cell at SAS Nagar, Mohali, and work with the Parali Protection Force and State Pollution Control Boards.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (environmental pollution, agriculture); GS2 (statutory bodies, inter-State coordination). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** crop residue management, in-situ and ex-situ, Graded Response Action Plan, airshed approach. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking CAQM is limited to Delhi; its remit covers adjoining areas of four States. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CAQM Act 2021; EPCA 1998 (dissolved); GRAP (2017) is now administered by CAQM. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should farmers who burn stubble be fined, or paid not to? |
Question 11 of 18
1 The Technology Development Board is a statutory body under the Department of Science and Technology.
2 On the Technology Readiness Level scale, TRL 9 denotes a technology at the stage of basic principles observed.
3 A System-on-Chip integrates a processor, memory and specialised functions on a single chip.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The TDB was constituted in 1996 under the Technology Development Board Act, 1995 and works under the DST, funding companies to commercialise indigenous technology.
Statement 2Incorrect
TRL 1 is basic principles observed; TRL 9 is a system proven in an operational environment.
Statement 3Correct
An SoC packs these functions onto one chip, as in phones and smart cameras.
Analysis
The TDB will provide Rs 130 crore of the Rs 260 crore Project VeerAI, a camera-focused AI vision chip, taking it from TRL 5 to TRL 9.
Concept note
The TDB supports industrial concerns and other agencies that commercialise indigenous technology or adapt imported technology for wider use, through soft loans, equity and, rarely, grants. VeerAI is funded under the Research Development and Innovation (RDI) scheme, which provides long-term, low-cost finance for private research and development in strategic sectors, here as Optional Convertible Debt, a loan the lender may convert into equity.
Technology Readiness Levels, a scale first developed at NASA, run from 1 (basic principles) through laboratory validation (4) and validation in a relevant environment (5), to a prototype demonstrated in an operational setting (7) and a system proven in operation (9). The gap between levels 4 and 7, often called the valley of death, is where most start-ups fail for lack of capital.
India’s semiconductor push includes the India Semiconductor Mission (2021) for fabrication and assembly and the Design Linked Incentive scheme for chip design firms.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (science and technology, indigenisation, industrial policy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** technology sovereignty, valley of death, design-linked incentive, strategic sectors, privacy by design. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading the TRL scale the wrong way round; level 9 is the most mature, not the least. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** TDB Act 1995 (DST); TRL 1 to 9; ISM 2021; DLI scheme for chip design. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India design its own chips for surveillance cameras even if imported ones are cheaper? |
Question 12 of 18
1. Mountain Guardian : United Arab Emirates
2. Dharma Guardian : Japan
3. Nomadic Elephant : Kazakhstan
4. Ajeya Warrior : France
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
Mountain Guardian is the India-UAE mountain warfare exercise, under way at Chaubatia, Uttarakhand.
Pair 2Correct
Dharma Guardian is the India-Japan army exercise.
Pair 3Incorrect
Nomadic Elephant is held with Mongolia; India’s army exercise with Kazakhstan is Prabal Dostyk.
Pair 4Incorrect
Ajeya Warrior is with the United Kingdom; the army exercise with France is Shakti.
Analysis
The India-UAE exercise has 92 personnel in equal numbers, and women officers and combatants from both armies take part.
Concept note
India and the UAE upgraded ties to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in 2017, and the relationship now spans the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (2022), trade settlement in national currencies, energy and defence. Military cooperation includes the army exercise Desert Cyclone, air force participation in Desert Flag in the UAE, and naval cooperation through Zayed Talwar.
Mountain Guardian focuses on high-altitude operations: joint planning, surveillance grids, drone operations, rock climbing and integrated field exercises. India’s Bhairav battalions, raised from 2025 as light commando units, take part from the Indian side.
Joint exercises build interoperability, test doctrine in unfamiliar terrain and signal political closeness; for India, the Gulf matters for energy, about 9 million expatriates and remittances, and the security of sea lanes in the Arabian Sea.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (India and West Asia, defence diplomacy); GS3 (security, interoperability). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** defence diplomacy, interoperability, Comprehensive Strategic Partnership, Gulf diaspora, mountain warfare. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Mixing up partner countries in exercises with similar names, such as Dharma Guardian (Japan) and Mountain Guardian (UAE). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Nomadic Elephant: Mongolia; Ajeya Warrior: UK; Shakti: France; Prabal Dostyk: Kazakhstan. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What does India gain from military exercises with Gulf states? |
Question 13 of 18
1 It is classified as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
2 It is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
3 While hearing a case on power lines in the bird’s habitat, the Supreme Court recognised a right against the adverse effects of climate change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The IUCN Red List classifies the Great Indian Bustard as Critically Endangered.
Statement 2Correct
It is in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the highest level of protection.
Statement 3Correct
In M.K. Ranjitsinh v. Union of India (2024), while revisiting its 2021 directions on overhead power lines in bustard habitat, the Supreme Court held that people have a right against the adverse effects of climate change, drawn from Articles 14 and 21.
Analysis
Captive-bred bustards are now being released into the Desert National Park in Rajasthan, which The Hindu’s editorial calls a turning point for a species of only about 120 wild birds.
Concept note
The Great Indian Bustard is one of the heaviest flying birds and lives in open grasslands and semi-arid scrub, mainly in Rajasthan’s Thar, with small numbers in Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. Its main threats are collisions with overhead power lines, which it cannot see well because its eyes face sideways, the conversion of grasslands into farms and wind and solar parks, and its slow breeding: a female lays usually one egg a season.
A conservation breeding programme, run by the Wildlife Institute of India with the Rajasthan Forest Department, has raised chicks from eggs collected in the wild. The Supreme Court’s 2024 judgment balanced the bird’s protection against India’s renewable energy goals, setting up an expert committee to decide where lines must go underground.
For Mains, the case shows how courts weigh one environmental good against another, and why grasslands, often classed as “wastelands”, need their own protection. The release of captive-bred birds is only a first step; survival in the wild will depend on safe habitat outside protected areas.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (biodiversity, renewable energy); GS2 (judiciary and rights). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** grassland conservation, conservation breeding, power-line mortality, climate rights, green versus green conflict. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the climate-rights judgment came from a climate petition; it arose from the bustard power-lines case. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** GIB: Critically Endangered, Schedule I; Desert National Park, Jaisalmer and Barmer, Rajasthan. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should India balance solar parks in the Thar with protection of the Great Indian Bustard? |
Question 14 of 18
Statement-I: Cancer has so far been made a notifiable disease in India State by State, without a single nationwide notification.
Statement-II: "Public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries" is an entry in the State List of the Seventh Schedule.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The Supreme Court was told that 17 of the 36 States and Union Territories had notified cancer, and it asked the remaining 19 to consider doing so.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
Public health is Entry 6 of the State List, so each State notifies diseases under its own law and orders.
Analysis
A column in The Indian Express argues that the Union Health Ministry should now frame common national guidelines, with a standard minimum dataset, so that State notifications produce comparable data.
Concept note
A notifiable disease is one that doctors, hospitals and laboratories must by law report to public health authorities. The idea is usually linked to infectious diseases, where reporting helps contain outbreaks, but notification is fundamentally about data: snakebite, also non-communicable, was made notifiable at the Centre’s request in 2024.
India’s cancer statistics come mainly from the National Cancer Registry Programme of ICMR, run by the National Centre for Disease Informatics and Research in Bengaluru, through population-based and hospital-based registries. These cover only part of the population, so national figures are partly modelled.
Notification would capture every diagnosis and, linked with registries, show where cancer occurs, who is affected and where patients drop out of treatment. The Concurrent List’s Entry 29 lets Parliament legislate on preventing the spread of infectious diseases between States, but cancer is not infectious, so States lead.
Any national system must protect patient privacy, as cancer data is highly sensitive. An early rise in reported cases would reflect better counting, not a sudden epidemic.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (health, federalism); GS3 (digital public infrastructure). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** notifiable disease, cancer registry, evidence-based planning, data protection, cooperative federalism. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming only communicable diseases can be notifiable. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Public health: Entry 6, State List; inter-State spread of infectious diseases: Entry 29, Concurrent List. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Would mandatory cancer reporting threaten patient privacy, and how would you prevent that? |
Question 15 of 18
1 The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 recognises 21 specified disabilities.
2 The Act provides for reservation of not less than 4 per cent of vacancies in government establishments for persons with benchmark disabilities.
3 The Supreme Court has held accessibility to be a facet of the right to life with dignity under Article 21.
4 The Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities is a constitutional authority.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The 2016 Act lists 21 disabilities, up from 7 under the 1995 Act.
Statement 2Correct
Section 34 provides at least 4 per cent reservation for persons with benchmark disabilities.
Statement 3Correct
In Rajive Raturi v. Union of India (2024), the Court held accessibility to be part of Article 21 and directed the Centre to frame mandatory standards.
Statement 4Incorrect
The Chief Commissioner is a statutory authority under the 2016 Act.
Analysis
An op-ed in The Hindu warns that AI systems used in public services can exclude disabled citizens and calls for disability-bias testing.
Concept note
The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 replaced the Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995 to give effect to the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, which India ratified in 2007. It moved from a welfare approach to a rights approach, adding conditions such as acid attack survivors, autism spectrum disorder, specific learning disabilities and thalassaemia.
Its sections 40 to 46 deal with accessibility of buildings, transport and information and communication technology. In the Rajive Raturi case, the Supreme Court found the accessibility rules framed under the Act to be advisory in effect, contrary to the Act’s intent, and ordered binding standards.
The Chief Commissioner can inquire into complaints and has penalised establishments, including ministries, for inaccessible websites and apps, according to The Hindu op-ed. As artificial intelligence enters recruitment, welfare and health care, Mains answers can link these legal duties to new risks: models that perform worse for disabled users, and services with no human fallback.
Universal design, which builds accessibility in from the start, costs far less than retrofitting.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (vulnerable sections, rights); GS3 (AI); GS4 (inclusion). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** accessibility, universal design, algorithmic bias, human fallback, rights-based approach. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Using the 1995 Act’s count of 7 disabilities for the 2016 Act. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** RPwD Act 2016: 21 disabilities, 4 per cent jobs (Section 34), 5 per cent higher education seats (Section 32). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you make a district’s online services accessible to blind citizens? |
Question 16 of 18
1 An affidavit is a written statement sworn or affirmed before a person authorised to administer oaths, such as a notary or magistrate.
2 The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 does not apply to affidavits presented to any court or officer.
3 A notary who attests an affidavit is required to verify the truth of the facts stated in it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The sworn or affirmed form is what distinguishes an affidavit from a self-declaration.
Statement 2Correct
Like the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 that it replaced, the Adhiniyam excludes affidavits presented to any court or officer from its application.
Statement 3Incorrect
The notary records that the maker swore to the statement but does not check whether it is true.
Analysis
A district commissioner in Assam argues in The Indian Express that authenticated self-declarations with legal consequences for lying should replace affidavits by default.
Concept note
Affidavits are demanded for caste, income, residence and welfare claims, and in many court procedures. The writer of the column traces them to Act XIV of 1848, which let commissioned persons take sworn statements so that the maker need not appear in court.
Today the requirement often sends poor applicants to a typist, a stamp vendor and a notary, costing fees and a day’s work, for an oath that proves only belief, not fact. The column separates four questions: identity of the maker, admissibility, consequences of lying and the truth of the fact.
Law can answer the first three without an oath, and the fourth needs verification anyway. The United States accepts unsworn declarations under penalty of perjury, and Ireland allows electronically signed statements of truth.
The Centre has since 2013 asked departments to accept self-attested copies and self-declarations where possible. For GS2 and GS4, the theme links to citizen-centric administration, ease of living and trust-based governance, as in the Jan Vishwas Act, 2023.
Concerns include fraud if verification is weak and exclusion if authentication depends only on Aadhaar.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (governance, service delivery); GS4 (trust, probity). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** self-declaration, trust-based governance, ease of living, procedural burden, statement of truth. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing self-attestation of a document copy with a sworn affidavit. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Oaths Act, 1969 governs oaths; Notaries Act, 1952 governs notaries. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Would you, as a district officer, drop affidavits for income certificates? How would you check false claims? |
Question 17 of 18
1 The Black Sea Grain Initiative of 2022 was brokered by the United Nations and Türkiye.
2 Russia withdrew from the Black Sea Grain Initiative in 2023.
3 The Indian Prime Minister’s remark to the Russian President that "this is not an era of war" was made on the sidelines of a Shanghai Cooperation Organisation summit.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The initiative was signed in Istanbul in July 2022 with the UN and Türkiye as brokers, letting Ukrainian grain ships move through the Black Sea.
Statement 2Correct
Russia withdrew in July 2023.
Statement 3Correct
The remark was made at the SCO summit in Samarkand, Uzbekistan, in September 2022.
Analysis
The Indian Express urges India, now carrying messages between Moscow and Kyiv, to focus on grain, energy and shipping, where both sides share interests.
Concept note
Russia and Ukraine are among the world’s major exporters of wheat, maize, sunflower oil and fertiliser inputs, so attacks on Black Sea ports and ships threaten food prices across the Global South. The 2022 Black Sea Grain Initiative showed that narrow, practical deals are possible even while a war continues: it set up a Joint Coordination Centre in Istanbul to inspect ships.
India’s position since the war began in February 2022 has been to call for dialogue and diplomacy and to abstain on most UN resolutions condemning Russia, while sending humanitarian aid to Ukraine; its purchases of Russian oil have drawn criticism from the United States. In 2026 Ukraine’s Foreign Minister called India’s proposal the most comprehensive of four Kyiv had received, and External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar said India had gone “beyond advocacy”.
For Mains, a good answer on India as a peacemaker weighs its access to both capitals and its stake in food, fertiliser and energy security against its limited leverage and Western doubts about its neutrality.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (India and the world, multilateral diplomacy); GS3 (food and energy security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** strategic autonomy, issue-based mediation, Global South, food security, even-handed diplomacy. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing "not an era of war" at the G20; it was said at the SCO summit in Samarkand. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** SCO summits: Samarkand 2022; Bishkek hosted the 2026 summit where Mr. Modi met Mr. Putin. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** India lacks leverage over either side. Why should Russia or Ukraine listen to it? |
Question 18 of 18
2 Drinking water is one of the matters listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution.
3 Under Article 262, Parliament may by law provide that the Supreme Court shall not exercise jurisdiction over a dispute on the waters of an inter-State river.
4 The service norm of the Jal Jeevan Mission is 55 litres per capita per day.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Water is Entry 17 of the State List, subject to Entry 56 of the Union List.
Statement 2Correct
Drinking water is item 11 of the Eleventh Schedule, added by the 73rd Amendment.
Statement 3Correct
Article 262(2) allows Parliament to exclude the jurisdiction of all courts, including the Supreme Court, over such disputes.
Statement 4Correct
JJM aims at 55 litres per capita per day of potable water through household taps.
Analysis
A column in The Indian Express argues that India’s water missions offer the Global South a lesson that water security is a governance challenge before an engineering one.
Concept note
Because water is a State subject, central missions such as the Jal Jeevan Mission, Swachh Bharat Mission and Atal Bhujal Yojana work through cooperative federalism: the Centre sets norms and shares funds while States and Panchayats build and run the systems. The writers of the column, a former Jal Shakti Secretary and two researchers, set out four lessons: lead with governance, manage the water resource and the service together, root action in communities such as Pani Samitis, and build for scale.
They cite the “4 Ps” of political leadership, public financing, partnerships and people’s participation. A Mains answer should add the test of outcomes: a tap connection is not the same as a regular, safe supply, and functionality is assessed separately.
Groundwater over-extraction, water quality problems such as fluoride and arsenic, and funding for operation and maintenance remain challenges. Reuse of treated wastewater for industry, a market the writers value at about Rs 73,000 crore a year by 2047, can ease pressure on freshwater sources.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (water resources, irrigation); GS2 (federalism, local government). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** water governance, source sustainability, functionality, community ownership, wastewater reuse. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Saying water is wholly a State subject and forgetting Entry 56 of the Union List and Article 262. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 is the law made under Article 262. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What would you tell an African country that wants to copy the Jal Jeevan Mission? |
Performance
Question-wise Result