UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 27 September 2026
Test Your Knowledge
16 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 16
1 An amendment to the UN Charter comes into force only after ratification by two-thirds of the members of the United Nations, including all the permanent members of the Security Council.
2 The Security Council has been enlarged once, from eleven to fifteen members, through an amendment that came into force in 1965.
3 The Intergovernmental Negotiations on Security Council reform are conducted in the General Assembly.
4 The G4 comprises India, Brazil, Germany and South Africa.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Under Article 108, an amendment must be adopted by two-thirds of the General Assembly and ratified by two-thirds of the members, including all five permanent members, which gives each of them a veto at the ratification stage.
Statement 2Correct
Amendments adopted in 1963 came into force in 1965 and raised the Council from 11 to 15 members by adding four elected seats.
Statement 3Correct
The Intergovernmental Negotiations (IGN) began in the General Assembly in 2009 under decision 62/557.
Statement 4Incorrect
The G4 comprises India, Brazil, Germany and Japan.
Analysis
At the 81st General Assembly in September 2026, Russia backed India and Brazil for permanent seats while opposing seats for Germany and Japan, and Mauritius backed India’s candidature and the positions of the G4 and L.69.
Concept note
The Security Council has five permanent members with the veto (China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States) and ten members elected for two-year terms, five each year, by a two-thirds vote of the General Assembly. Its composition reflects 1945 and was changed only once, when decolonisation had multiplied UN membership: the 1963 amendments, in force from 1965, raised elected seats from six to ten.
Reform is debated on five issues: categories of membership, the veto, regional representation, the size of an enlarged Council and its working methods, and the relationship with the General Assembly. The obstacle is procedural as much as political.
Article 108 requires a two-thirds vote in the Assembly and ratification by two-thirds of member states including all five permanent members, so any one of them can block a change. India has served eight terms as an elected member, the latest in 2021-22, and is a candidate for 2028-29.
It seeks a permanent seat with the G4 and, among developing countries, through the L.69 group.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international institutions, India’s foreign policy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** representative multilateralism, Article 108, IGN, expansion in both categories, veto restraint. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing South Africa in the G4; Africa’s claim runs through the Common African Position. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Only enlargement: 1963 amendment, in force 1965, 11 to 15 members. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India accept a permanent seat without the veto? |
Question 2 of 16
1. G4 : Its members support one another’s bids for permanent seats.
2. Uniting for Consensus : It seeks an increase in the number of permanent members.
3. Ezulwini Consensus : It seeks at least two permanent seats with the veto for Africa.
4. L.69 : It is a group of developed countries opposed to any change in the veto.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Facts
Pair 1Correct
India, Brazil, Germany and Japan formed the G4 in 2004 and support each other’s candidatures.
Pair 2Incorrect
Uniting for Consensus, whose members include Italy, Pakistan, Argentina, Mexico and the Republic of Korea, opposes new permanent members and prefers more elected seats, including longer terms.
Pair 3Correct
The Ezulwini Consensus of 2005, the Common African Position, seeks at least two permanent seats with all the prerogatives of permanent members, including the veto, plus more non-permanent seats.
Pair 4Incorrect
L.69 is a cross-regional group of developing countries from Asia, Africa, Latin America, the Caribbean and the Pacific, named after draft resolution A/61/L.69; India is a member.
Analysis
Mauritius told the 81st General Assembly in September 2026 that it supports the positions of both the G4 and L.69.
Concept note
Reform talks are shaped by blocs whose positions often cancel one another. The G4 seeks expansion in both the permanent and non-permanent categories and has offered to forgo the veto for a period after admission.
The L.69 group of developing countries, which includes India, broadly supports expansion in both categories with fair representation for Africa, Asia, Latin America and small island States. The African Union’s Committee of Ten negotiates on the basis of the Ezulwini Consensus and the Sirte Declaration (2005), which ask for two permanent and five non-permanent seats for Africa and the veto for new permanent members as long as it exists.
Uniting for Consensus, sometimes called the “Coffee Club”, argues that new permanent seats would entrench privilege and instead proposes longer-term, re-electable seats. Because Article 108 needs two-thirds of the membership, no bloc can succeed alone, and the permanent five, whose ratification is required, also differ: China has not backed India’s bid, while Russia now backs India and Brazil but opposes Germany and Japan.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (UN reform, India’s multilateral diplomacy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** expansion in both categories, Common African Position, Coffee Club, veto moratorium. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating L.69 as a developed-country group; it is a Global South coalition that includes India. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** G4 (2004); Ezulwini Consensus (2005); L.69 named after a 2007 draft resolution. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is aligning with both the G4 and L.69 a strength or a contradiction for India? |
Question 3 of 16
Statement-I: A coastal State bordering a strait used for international navigation, such as the Strait of Hormuz, may not suspend the transit passage of foreign ships through it.
Statement-II: The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea gives all ships and aircraft the right of transit passage through straits used for international navigation between one part of the high seas or an exclusive economic zone and another.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement IICorrect
Part III of UNCLOS (Article 38) grants all ships and aircraft the right of transit passage, meaning continuous and expeditious transit, through straits used for international navigation between parts of the high seas or EEZs.
Statement ICorrect
And follows from it: Article 44 provides that States bordering straits shall not hamper transit passage and that there shall be no suspension of it. This is stronger than innocent passage in the territorial sea, which a coastal State may suspend temporarily for security reasons.
Analysis
India told the UN General Assembly in September 2026 that attacks on commercial shipping and seafarers in the Gulf, the Red Sea and the Black Sea were “simply unacceptable” and that international law must be scrupulously observed.
Concept note
UNCLOS, adopted in 1982 and in force since 1994, divides the sea into zones with different rights. In the territorial sea (up to 12 nautical miles), foreign ships enjoy innocent passage, which must not be prejudicial to peace, good order or security, and which the coastal State may temporarily suspend in specified areas for security.
Straits used for international navigation have a special regime: transit passage, which applies to ships and aircraft, including submarines in their normal mode, and cannot be suspended, because closing a strait would sever international routes. The Strait of Hormuz, between Iran and Oman, links the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and carries a large share of seaborne oil and LNG.
Iran has signed but not ratified UNCLOS and has argued that transit passage binds only parties, a view most States reject as contrary to customary law. For India, which imports most of its crude oil and much of its LNG through the Gulf, freedom of navigation in these straits is a core interest, which is why it pairs diplomacy with measures such as naval escort missions and a domestic war-risk insurance pool.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international law, India’s interests in West Asia); GS3 (energy security, maritime security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** freedom of navigation, transit passage, chokepoints, sea lines of communication. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing transit passage (cannot be suspended) with innocent passage (can be suspended temporarily). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Territorial sea 12 nm; contiguous zone 24 nm; EEZ 200 nm; transit passage is in Part III of UNCLOS. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should India protect its seafarers when shipping lanes become war zones? |
Question 4 of 16
1 Protection and Indemnity (P&I) insurance covers a shipowner’s liabilities to third parties, such as for pollution, collision and injury to crew.
2 The International Group of P&I Clubs is an intergovernmental body functioning under the International Maritime Organization.
3 Hull and machinery insurance covers the shipowner’s liability to third parties for oil pollution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
P&I cover protects the shipowner against third-party liabilities such as pollution, collision damage, wreck removal, cargo claims and crew injury or death.
Statement 2Incorrect
The International Group is an association of 13 mutual, shipowner-owned P&I clubs, mostly based in Europe, which together insure about 90 per cent of the world’s large ships; it is not an intergovernmental or IMO body.
Statement 3Incorrect
Hull and machinery insurance covers physical loss of or damage to the ship itself; third-party pollution liability falls under P&I.
Analysis
India’s Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool, launched in May 2026 with capacity of USD 1.5 billion and sovereign backing of USD 1.4 billion, covers hull and machinery, war-risk cargo in high-risk areas and P&I, reducing dependence on foreign clubs.
Concept note
Marine insurance has three main parts. Hull and machinery (H&M) insurance covers damage to or loss of the vessel.
Cargo insurance protects the owners of goods. Protection and Indemnity (P&I) covers liabilities to others: pollution clean-up, collisions, damage to ports, wreck removal, and injury, illness or death of crew and passengers.
War-risk insurance is separate, covering losses from war, piracy, mines and seizure, and is often withdrawn or repriced when a conflict flares in a high-risk area. P&I is dominated by mutual clubs owned by shipowners; the 13 members of the International Group pool large claims and buy reinsurance together.
For a country like India, where 95 per cent of trade by value moves by sea, dependence on foreign clubs means an outflow of premiums (USD 45 to 60 million a year in P&I, according to the Government) and exposure to decisions taken abroad. The Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool was approved on 18 April 2026 and launched on 12 May 2026: policies are issued by domestic insurers, claims up to USD 100 million come from pool reserves, and larger claims draw on a sovereign guarantee.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (infrastructure: ports and shipping; insurance); GS2 (maritime security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** P&I clubs, war-risk cover, sovereign guarantee, maritime sovereignty, supply-chain resilience. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the P&I clubs are an IMO body; they are private mutual associations. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** BMIP: approved 18 April 2026, launched 12 May 2026, USD 1.5 billion capacity. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why should a government guarantee insurance for private shipping? |
Question 5 of 16
1. Garuda : France 2. Cope India : United States 3. Pitch Black : Australia 4. Tarang Shakti : India
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Facts
All four pairs are correct. Garuda is the bilateral air exercise of the Indian Air Force and the French Air and Space Force. Cope India is the bilateral air exercise with the United States Air Force.
Pitch Black is a multinational air exercise hosted by the Royal Australian Air Force, usually from Darwin, in which the IAF participates. Tarang Shakti is the multinational air exercise hosted by the Indian Air Force, first held in 2024.
Analysis
Tarang Shakti 2026 opened at Jodhpur in September 2026, with Australia, the United States, the UAE, France, Germany, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh participating.
Concept note
Military exercises test interoperability, the ability of forces to plan and operate together, and signal political closeness. Air exercises are usually named by the host.
Garuda (with France) began in 2003, Cope India (with the US) in 2004, and the IAF has since taken part in multinational exercises abroad such as Red Flag (United States), Pitch Black (Australia) and Desert Knight. Tarang Shakti marked a shift: for the first time India hosted a large multinational air exercise, inviting partners to fly alongside the IAF.
The 2024 edition was held in two phases, at Sulur in Tamil Nadu (6-14 August) and at Jodhpur (29 August to 14 September). The 2026 edition, themed “Power in Partnership”, brings aircraft such as the F-35, Rafale, F-16, A400M and KC-30A, and adds a seminar and an industrial tour to showcase India’s aerospace and defence industry.
Such exercises also support defence diplomacy under India’s outreach to the Indo-Pacific and the Gulf.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (security forces, defence technology); GS2 (defence diplomacy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** interoperability, defence diplomacy, multilateral exercises, aerospace ecosystem. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing Red Flag or Pitch Black in the wrong country; Red Flag is American, Pitch Black Australian. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Tarang Shakti: IAF-hosted multinational exercise; first edition 2024 (Sulur and Jodhpur). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What does India gain by hosting rather than attending multinational exercises? |
Question 6 of 16
1 It brings together the defence ministers of ASEAN member states and eight dialogue partners.
2 India is one of its Plus countries.
3 Its Experts' Working Groups are confined to maritime security.
4 The ASEAN Regional Forum is the defence ministers' component of the ADMM-Plus.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The ADMM-Plus comprises ASEAN defence ministers and eight partners: Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, the Republic of Korea, Russia and the United States.
Statement 2Correct
India has been a Plus member since the first meeting in Hanoi in 2010.
Statement 3Incorrect
Its Experts’ Working Groups cover maritime security, counter-terrorism, humanitarian assistance and disaster relief, peacekeeping, military medicine, humanitarian mine action and cyber security.
Statement 4Incorrect
The ASEAN Regional Forum, set up in 1994, is a separate security dialogue at the level of foreign ministers.
Analysis
INS Sahyadri and INS Kulish took part in an ADMM-Plus maritime security activity at Subic Bay, the Philippines, in September 2026, hosted by the Philippine Navy and co-chaired by Japan.
Concept note
ASEAN sits at the centre of several overlapping security forums, and Prelims regularly tests which is which. The ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF, 1994) is a broad foreign-ministers-level dialogue with 27 participants.
The East Asia Summit (2005) is a leaders-led forum. The ADMM began in 2006 among ASEAN defence ministers; the ADMM-Plus, launched in 2010, extended it to eight dialogue partners and gave it a practical side through Experts’ Working Groups (EWGs), each co-chaired by an ASEAN member and a Plus country for a three-year cycle.
EWGs run tabletop and field exercises, such as the maritime security activity in the Philippines, where navies practised search and rescue, casualty evacuation and assistance to grounded vessels. India has co-chaired EWGs, including on humanitarian mine action and military medicine.
For India, the ADMM-Plus supports the Act East Policy and MAHASAGAR, the maritime vision announced in Mauritius in March 2025, and offers a setting where it works alongside both the United States and China.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (regional groupings, Act East Policy); GS3 (maritime security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** ASEAN centrality, defence diplomacy, practical cooperation, Act East, MAHASAGAR. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the ARF as a defence ministers' forum; it is at foreign-minister level. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** ADMM (2006); ADMM-Plus (2010, eight partners); ARF (1994); EAS (2005). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How does India balance its partnerships in ASEAN-led forums where both the US and China sit? |
Question 7 of 16
Statement-I: For the same tank volume, a locomotive can carry far more natural gas as liquefied natural gas (LNG) than as compressed natural gas (CNG).
Statement-II: Cooling natural gas to about minus 162 degrees Celsius reduces it to about one six-hundredth of its volume at atmospheric pressure, a much greater reduction than compression achieves.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement IICorrect
Natural gas, mainly methane, liquefies at about minus 162 degrees Celsius at atmospheric pressure and occupies about 1/600th of its gaseous volume; compression to about 200-250 bar, as in CNG, reduces it to roughly 1/200th to 1/250th.
Statement ICorrect
Because of this: LNG stores more energy per unit of tank volume than CNG, which is why it suits heavy vehicles and trains that need range.
Analysis
India’s first LNG-diesel dual-fuel DEMU, formally flagged off from Sabarmati in September 2026, carries about 2,200 litres of LNG in a cryogenic tank on each power car, enough for about a day’s running, and can replace up to about 40 per cent of its diesel.
Concept note
Natural gas is a cleaner-burning fossil fuel than diesel: it emits less carbon dioxide per unit of energy and almost no sulphur oxides or particulates. Its problem as a transport fuel is bulk.
It can be stored as CNG, compressed in heavy cylinders to about 200-250 bar, which works for cars, buses and autorickshaws on short urban routes, or as LNG, cooled into a liquid in insulated cryogenic tanks, which suits trucks, ships and trains that must run long distances. India imports LNG through terminals such as Dahej and Hazira in Gujarat.
Indian Railways ran its first CNG-diesel dual-fuel DEMU on the Rewari-Rohtak section in 2015; the LNG-diesel version in Gujarat uses two converted 1,400 HP driving power cars. Dual-fuel engines inject a small amount of diesel to ignite a gas-air mixture, so they can fall back to diesel when gas runs out.
The Railways’ main decarbonisation path remains electrification and a target of becoming a net-zero carbon emitter by 2030, with gas and hydrogen serving non-electrified or special routes.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (infrastructure: railways; energy; environment). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** dual-fuel, energy density, cryogenic storage, net-zero Railways 2030, transition fuels. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking CNG is a liquid; it is compressed gas, while LNG is a cryogenic liquid. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** LNG: about minus 162 degrees Celsius, about 1/600th volume; first CNG DEMU: Rewari-Rohtak, 2015. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is natural gas a bridge fuel or a detour for Indian transport? |
Question 8 of 16
1 The dugong is listed in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
2 The dugong is a herbivore that feeds mainly on seagrass.
3 India’s first Dugong Conservation Reserve was notified in the Gulf of Kachchh.
4 The dugong is classified as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The dugong has the highest legal protection in India under Schedule I.
Statement 2Correct
It is the only herbivorous marine mammal in Indian waters and grazes on seagrass meadows, hence the name “sea cow”.
Statement 3Incorrect
The first Dugong Conservation Reserve was notified by Tamil Nadu in Palk Bay in 2022.
Statement 4Correct
The species is Vulnerable globally on the IUCN Red List.
Analysis
A national workshop hosted by the Fishery Survey of India in September 2026 drafted recommendations for a 2027-2032 marine mammal science and conservation roadmap, with a focus on reducing bycatch.
Concept note
Dugongs survive in India in a few pockets: the Gulf of Mannar and Palk Bay in Tamil Nadu, the Gulf of Kachchh in Gujarat, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They depend entirely on seagrass meadows, which are damaged by bottom trawling, siltation and coastal development, and they drown when caught in gill nets.
Their slow breeding, a single calf every few years, makes even small losses serious. Tamil Nadu notified the Dugong Conservation Reserve in Palk Bay, covering about 448 sq km, in 2022.
Other marine mammals in Indian waters include the Irrawaddy dolphin (Chilika lake), the Indo-Pacific finless porpoise, the Indian Ocean humpback dolphin and large whales such as the blue whale. India’s national aquatic animal, the Gangetic river dolphin, lives in freshwater.
Conservation now focuses on bycatch reduction devices and gear changes, stranding networks that rescue and record animals, and citizen science, such as the BNHS app Jalchar, which lets fishers report sightings with GPS locations.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (biodiversity, conservation, fisheries); GS1 (geography of India’s coasts). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** bycatch, seagrass meadows, stranding networks, community stewardship, blue economy. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the dugong reserve in the Gulf of Kachchh or Gulf of Mannar; it is in Palk Bay. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Dugong: Schedule I, IUCN Vulnerable, Palk Bay reserve (2022). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How can fishers become partners rather than suspects in marine conservation? |
Question 9 of 16
Facts
According to the Archaeological Survey of India, the Modhera Sun Temple was built in 1026-27 CE during the reign of Bhima I of the Chaulukya (Solanki) dynasty of Gujarat. The Paramaras ruled Malwa, the Gurjara-Pratiharas ruled from Kannauj, and the Eastern Gangas of Odisha built the Konark Sun Temple in the 13th century under Narasimhadeva I.
Analysis
In Mann Ki Baat in September 2026, the Prime Minister recalled a thousand years since the attacks of 1026 on Somnath and Modhera and noted that Modhera now runs on solar energy.
Concept note
The Modhera Sun Temple stands on the bank of the Pushpavati river in Mehsana district. It has three parts on one axis: the Gudhamandapa, the shrine hall with the sanctum; the Sabhamandapa, an open assembly hall with richly carved pillars; and the Surya Kund, a stepped tank lined with small shrines.
It is a fine example of the Maru-Gurjara (Solanki) style, which also produced Rani ki Vav at Patan. The temple was planned so that the rising sun lit the sanctum at the equinoxes.
An inscription dated Vikram Samvat 1083 (1026-27 CE), set upside down in a wall of the sanctum, is read by historians as evidence of destruction and rebuilding soon after Mahmud of Ghazni’s raid on Gujarat in 1026. India’s other great Sun temples are Konark in Odisha (Eastern Ganga, 13th century) and Martand in Kashmir (8th century, Lalitaditya Muktapida of the Karkota dynasty).
Modhera was declared India’s first round-the-clock solar-powered village in 2022.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (Indian art and architecture, medieval history). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Maru-Gurjara style, heritage conservation, living heritage and renewable energy. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Attributing Modhera to the Eastern Gangas, who built Konark. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Modhera: Bhima I, Chaulukya, 1026-27 CE, Pushpavati river, Surya Kund. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How can heritage sites like Modhera combine conservation with local development? |
Question 10 of 16
1 He founded the Atmiya Sabha in Calcutta.
2 He published Mirat-ul-Akhbar, a newspaper in Persian.
3 He founded the Tattvabodhini Sabha.
4 He died in Calcutta after returning from England.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
He founded the Atmiya Sabha in Calcutta in 1815 (some accounts give 1814), and the Brahmo Sabha in 1828.
Statement 2Correct
Mirat-ul-Akhbar was his Persian weekly, alongside the Bengali Sambad Kaumudi.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Tattvabodhini Sabha (1839) was founded by Debendranath Tagore.
Statement 4Incorrect
He died at Stapleton, near Bristol, England, on 27 September 1833, and is buried in Bristol.
Analysis
27 September is his death anniversary.
Concept note
Ram Mohan Roy (1772-1833), often called the father of the Indian Renaissance, combined a critique of idolatry and ritual, drawn from the Upanishads and a rationalist reading of religion, with social reform. He campaigned against sati, supporting Lord William Bentinck’s Bengal Sati Regulation of 1829, and against polygamy, and argued for women’s property rights.
He supported English and scientific education, backing the Hindu College (1817) and founding the Vedanta College. He opposed the 1823 press ordinance restricting newspapers, an early defence of press freedom.
The Mughal emperor Akbar II gave him the title “Raja” and sent him to England to seek a higher allowance; there he also testified on Indian affairs before parliamentary bodies. After his death, the Brahmo movement was carried forward by Debendranath Tagore, whose Tattvabodhini Sabha and journal Tattvabodhini Patrika revived it, and later by Keshab Chandra Sen, whose break in 1866 led to the Brahmo Samaj of India.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (socio-religious reform movements, modern Indian history). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Indian Renaissance, rationalism, social reform, press freedom, women’s rights. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Crediting Ram Mohan Roy with the Tattvabodhini Sabha, which was Debendranath Tagore’s. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Atmiya Sabha 1815; Brahmo Sabha 1828; Sati Regulation 1829; died Bristol, 1833. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Which of Ram Mohan Roy’s causes is still unfinished today? |
Question 11 of 16
1 The Aravalli range is geologically older than the Himalayas.
2 Guru Shikhar, the highest peak of the Aravallis, is in Mount Abu.
3 Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, State governments may make rules to prevent illegal mining, transportation and storage of minerals.
4 Rajasthan is the only producer of wollastonite in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Aravallis are Proterozoic fold mountains, among the oldest on Earth, while the Himalayas are young fold mountains of the Cenozoic era.
Statement 2Correct
Guru Shikhar (1,722 m) at Mount Abu, Rajasthan, is the highest point.
Statement 3Correct
Section 23C of the MMDR Act empowers State governments to make rules to prevent illegal mining, transportation and storage.
Statement 4Correct
Wollastonite is mined only in Rajasthan, in districts such as Sirohi, Udaipur and Dungarpur.
Analysis
An Indian Express column in September 2026 argued that enforcement against illegal quarrying, not caps on legal leases, will decide the range’s future, while a Supreme Court-appointed committee prepares a scientific definition of the Aravallis.
Concept note
The Aravallis run about 670 km from near Palanpur in Gujarat through Rajasthan and Haryana to the Delhi Ridge. They check the eastward spread of the Thar, recharge groundwater, and form wildlife corridors for leopards, hyenas and sloth bears.
Mining has been restricted in parts of the range since the Environment Ministry’s 1992 notification for Alwar and Gurgaon and a long series of Supreme Court orders in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India. In November 2025 the Court accepted a height-based definition of an Aravalli hill (100 metres above local relief), but after protests that it would exclude much of the range, it kept that judgment in abeyance on 29 December 2025 and ordered a fresh expert committee, which must now report by 30 November 2026.
Minor minerals such as building stone are regulated by the States, which is why illegal stone quarrying is primarily a State enforcement problem. Wollastonite, a calcium silicate used in ceramics, paints and plastics, is one of Rajasthan’s distinctive minerals; the State also produces zinc and lead from Zawar and rock phosphate from Jhamar Kotra.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (physical geography, mineral distribution); GS3 (conservation, mining governance). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** illegal mining, cumulative impact assessment, no-go zones, silicosis, enforcement. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the Centre regulates building-stone quarrying; minor minerals are with the States. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Guru Shikhar 1,722 m; Section 23C MMDR Act; wollastonite: Rajasthan only. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should all mining in the Aravallis be banned? |
Question 12 of 16
1. Union Ministers 2. Judges of the Supreme Court 3. Members of Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Facts
Only Ministers, Union and State, take an oath of secrecy under the Third Schedule, undertaking not to reveal any matter that comes under their consideration except as required for the discharge of their duties. Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, the CAG, and Members of Parliament and State legislatures take oaths or affirmations of allegiance to the Constitution and of faithful performance of duty, but no oath of secrecy.
Analysis
In an Indian Express column in September 2026, former Election Commissioner Ashok Lavasa discussed what public servants should do when the duty of confidentiality conflicts with allegiance to the Constitution.
Concept note
The Third Schedule sets out forms of oaths or affirmations for Union Ministers (office and secrecy), candidates for Parliament, Members of Parliament, judges of the Supreme Court and the Comptroller and Auditor-General, State Ministers (office and secrecy), candidates for and members of State legislatures, and High Court judges. The oaths of the President (Article 60), the Vice-President (Article 69) and the Governor (Article 159) are in those Articles, not in the Schedule.
The Ministers’ oath of office includes the promise to “do right to all manner of people in accordance with the Constitution and the law, without fear or favour, affection or ill-will”, which judges also swear. Civil servants do not take a Third Schedule oath; their duty of confidentiality comes from laws and service rules, such as the Official Secrets Act, 1923 and the conduct rules, while the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014 provides a statutory route for public-interest disclosures.
In ethics answers, the distinction matters: a constitutional oath binds a Minister personally, while a civil servant’s obligations flow from statute and rules.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Constitution: Third Schedule, executive); GS4 (probity, confidentiality, conscience). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** oath of secrecy, allegiance to the Constitution, confidentiality, whistleblowing, crisis of conscience. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming judges or MPs take an oath of secrecy. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Oath of secrecy: Ministers only; President, Vice-President and Governor oaths are in Articles 60, 69 and 159. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can a civil servant leak information in the public interest and still be ethical? |
Question 13 of 16
1 Maharashtra’s Employment Guarantee Act was enacted after the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005.
2 The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was renamed after Mahatma Gandhi in 2009.
3 The Viksit Bharat-Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025 provides a guarantee of 125 days of wage employment.
4 Marathwada lies on the windward side of the Western Ghats.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
The Maharashtra Employment Guarantee Act was enacted in 1977 and came into force on 26 January 1979; the scheme itself began by government resolution during the 1972 drought.
Statement 2Correct
NREGA became MGNREGA in 2009.
Statement 3Correct
The VB-G RAM G Act, 2025, which replaced MGNREGA from 1 July 2026, guarantees 125 days of wage employment a year to eligible rural households.
Statement 4Incorrect
Marathwada lies in the rain shadow, on the leeward side of the Western Ghats, which makes it drought-prone.
Analysis
An Indian Express column in September 2026 recalled how the 1972 drought produced the Employment Guarantee Scheme, as Maharashtra declared 265 talukas drought-affected.
Concept note
Maharashtra’s Employment Guarantee Scheme grew out of the drought of 1970-73, when three failed monsoons left most rural households without work. The idea, credited to V.S. Page, Chairman of the Legislative Council, was that the State would guarantee unskilled manual work on public works to any rural adult who asked for it, self-targeting the needy and building assets such as bunds, wells, tanks and roads.
It was funded partly by special levies, including a professions tax. The 1977 Act made the guarantee a legal right in the State.
Its design shaped the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005, which offered 100 days of work per rural household a year, with Gram Sabha planning and social audits; it was renamed MGNREGA in 2009. In 2025 Parliament passed the VB-G RAM G Act, which replaced MGNREGA from 1 July 2026, raised the guarantee to 125 days, and changed the Centre-State funding pattern for most States to 60:40.
In drought years, States typically relax work norms and add labour-intensive water conservation works under the guarantee.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (welfare schemes, right to work); GS3 (drought management); GS1 (geography of Maharashtra). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** self-targeting, right to work, durable assets, drought-proofing, social audit. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the national guarantee came first; Maharashtra’s EGS preceded it by three decades. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** EGS 1972; Maharashtra Act 1977 (in force 1979); NREGA 2005; MGNREGA 2009; VB-G RAM G from 1 July 2026. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is an employment guarantee the right response to drought, or only a stopgap? |
Question 14 of 16
Statement-I: The Chief Election Commissioner can overrule the other Election Commissioners on any matter before the Election Commission.
Statement-II: In T.N. Seshan v. Union of India (1995), the Supreme Court held that the Chief Election Commissioner is first among equals and that the Commission decides by majority where its members differ.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement IIncorrect
In a multi-member Election Commission, the Chief Election Commissioner does not have an overriding vote; where members differ, the matter is decided by majority.
Statement IICorrect
A Constitution Bench in T.N. Seshan v. Union of India (1995) upheld the multi-member Commission, described the CEC as first among equals and upheld decision by majority. The CEC does have one distinct protection: under Article 324(5), the CEC can be removed only in the manner of a Supreme Court judge.
Analysis
Former Election Commissioner Ashok Lavasa, who recorded dissents in 2019, wrote in September 2026 on conscience and public office, as two sitting Election Commissioners’ recorded objections became a public controversy.
Concept note
Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission, consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners as the President may fix. The Commission was single-member for most of its history; two Election Commissioners were appointed in October 1989 and removed in January 1990, and the multi-member Commission became permanent in October 1993.
When T.N. Seshan, then CEC, challenged the arrangement, the Supreme Court in 1995 upheld it, holding that the CEC and the Election Commissioners have similar powers and conditions of service and that decisions are taken unanimously as far as possible and otherwise by majority. The CEC’s special position lies in removal: under Article 324(5), the CEC can be removed only like a Supreme Court judge, while other Election Commissioners can be removed only on the CEC’s recommendation.
A recorded dissent is therefore part of the design of a collegial body. Appointments are now governed by the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (constitutional bodies, Election Commission); GS4 (dissent, institutional integrity). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** collegial functioning, first among equals, majority decision, institutional independence. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the CEC as the Commission’s boss with an overriding vote. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 324(5): CEC removable like a Supreme Court judge; T.N. Seshan (1995): majority decisions. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should dissent within a constitutional body be made public? |
Question 15 of 16
1 In Vavilov’s scheme of centres of origin, the Indian (Hindustan) centre is associated with rice and sugarcane.
2 The centre of origin of the potato lies in the Andean region of South America.
3 A crop’s centre of diversity is always the same as its centre of origin.
4 The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act, 2001 allows a farmer to save, use, exchange and sell farm-saved seed of a protected variety, but not as branded seed.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Vavilov’s Indian (Hindustan) centre, with its Indo-Malayan sub-centre, is the home of rice and sugarcane, among other crops.
Statement 2Correct
The potato was domesticated in the Andes, in the region of present-day Peru, and reached India only after the voyages of Columbus.
Statement 3Incorrect
Molecular studies show that a centre of diversity is not always a crop’s centre of origin; some crops were domesticated in several places or diversified far from where they began.
Statement 4Correct
Section 39 of the PPV&FR Act protects a farmer’s right to save, use, sow, re-sow, exchange, share or sell farm produce including seed of a protected variety, provided it is not sold as branded seed.
Analysis
A column in The Hindu in September 2026 marked a century since Vavilov’s 1926 paper “Studies on the origin of cultivated plants”.
Concept note
Nikolai Vavilov (1887-1943) mapped where crops were first domesticated by collecting varieties and wild relatives across the world. His centres grew in number as his work advanced: five in the 1926 paper, eight in the scheme of the mid-1930s that textbooks use (Chinese; Indian with an Indo-Malayan sub-centre; Central Asian; Near Eastern; Mediterranean; Abyssinian; South Mexican and Central American; South American with Chiloe and Brazilian-Paraguayan sub-centres).
The idea underpins the modern conservation of plant genetic resources. Diversity is conserved in situ, on farms and in protected areas, and ex situ in gene banks such as India’s National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources in New Delhi and the Svalbard Global Seed Vault in Norway, opened in 2008.
The FAO’s International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (2001) creates a Multilateral System of access and benefit-sharing for key crops and recognises farmers’ rights in Article 9. India’s Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act, 2001 is unusual in protecting both breeders and farmers, including the farmer’s right to register a farmers’ variety.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (biodiversity, seeds, IPR in agriculture); GS1 (world distribution of crops). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** centres of diversity, crop wild relatives, in situ and ex situ conservation, farmers' rights, benefit-sharing. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing the potato’s origin in India or Europe; it is Andean. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Vavilov: five centres in 1926, eight in the 1935 scheme; PPV&FR Act, 2001; Plant Treaty, 2001 (Article 9, farmers' rights). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should a company that breeds from a farmer-conserved landrace share its profits with the community? |
Question 16 of 16
1 The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed only on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity, through an address passed by a special majority in each House of Parliament.
2 A notice of motion for such removal must be signed by at least 100 members of the Lok Sabha or 50 members of the Rajya Sabha.
3 An Election Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
4 The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 bars courts from entertaining civil or criminal proceedings against a present or former Commissioner for acts done in the discharge of official duty.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 324(5) makes the CEC removable only in like manner and on the like grounds as a Supreme Court judge, that is, on proved misbehaviour or incapacity (Article 124(4)), by an address of each House supported by a majority of its total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting.
Statement 2Correct
The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, which governs the procedure, requires a notice signed by at least 100 Lok Sabha or 50 Rajya Sabha members.
Statement 3Correct
The proviso to Article 324(5) protects Election Commissioners and Regional Commissioners from removal except on the CEC’s recommendation.
Statement 4Correct
Section 16 of the 2023 Act bars civil or criminal proceedings against a person who is or was a CEC or EC for acts, things or words done or spoken in the discharge of official duty.
Analysis
A Hindu explainer in September 2026 noted that Section 16 does not mention arrest, investigation or police custody and cannot simply be called a blanket immunity from arrest.
Concept note
Security of tenure and immunity are different protections. Tenure decides who can remove a Commissioner and how: the CEC shares the Supreme Court judge’s procedure, in which the Speaker or Chairman may admit a notice, a three-member committee (a Supreme Court judge, a High Court Chief Justice and a distinguished jurist) inquires, and both Houses must pass the address by special majority in the same session before the President orders removal.
No CEC has been removed this way. Election Commissioners have weaker protection, since their removal depends on the CEC’s recommendation; in 2009 CEC N. Gopalaswami recommended the removal of Election Commissioner Navin Chawla, and the Government did not act on it.
The Law Commission’s 255th Report (2015) recommended equal protection for all Commissioners. Immunity is a separate question: Section 16 of the 2023 Act shields official acts from court proceedings, covering former Commissioners too, but it is tied to official duty.
Appointments under the same Act are made by the President on the recommendation of a Selection Committee of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Cabinet Minister.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (constitutional bodies, Election Commission, Parliament’s removal powers). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** security of tenure, special majority, collegial functioning, statutory immunity, independence of the Election Commission. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the President can remove the CEC without a parliamentary address. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 324(5); Article 124(4); Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 (100 LS / 50 RS); Section 16 of the 2023 Act. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should Election Commissioners have the same protection as the CEC? |
Performance
Question-wise Result