UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 26 September 2026
Test Your Knowledge
17 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 17
1 It was adopted by the UN General Assembly and opened for signature at a ceremony in Hanoi.
2 It enters into force on the ninetieth day after the deposit of the fortieth instrument of ratification, acceptance, approval or accession.
3 For the purposes of international cooperation, it defines "serious crime" by reference to a maximum penalty of at least four years' deprivation of liberty.
4 It requires each State Party to designate a point of contact available 24 hours a day, seven days a week.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The General Assembly adopted the Convention by resolution 79/243 on 24 December 2024, and it opened for signature in Hanoi, Viet Nam, on 25 October 2025, hence the name “Hanoi Convention”.
Statement 2Correct
Article 65 provides for entry into force on the ninetieth day after the fortieth instrument is deposited.
Statement 3Correct
Article 2(h) defines serious crime as an offence punishable by a maximum deprivation of liberty of at least four years, so e-evidence can be shared for offences beyond cybercrime.
Statement 4Correct
Article 41 creates the 24/7 network of contact points, with a register kept by the UN Secretary-General.
Analysis
India signed the Convention in New York on 25 September 2026; with only three Parties (Qatar, Azerbaijan and Viet Nam) so far, entry into force remains distant.
Concept note
Cybercrime crosses borders by design: a fraud may be committed from one country, routed through servers in a second and hit victims in a third, while the evidence sits with a service provider in a fourth. Traditional mutual legal assistance treaties (MLATs) are slow, so States have sought faster channels for electronic evidence.
The Council of Europe’s Budapest Convention (2001) was the first such treaty, but India never joined it, objecting that it was drafted without developing countries and that some cross-border access provisions affect sovereignty. In 2019 the UN General Assembly created an Ad Hoc Committee (resolution 74/247) to negotiate a global treaty, and the resulting Convention was adopted in December 2024.
It has 68 articles: offences such as illegal access, interception, data and system interference, computer-related fraud, online child sexual abuse material, grooming and non-consensual sharing of intimate images; procedural powers such as expedited preservation and production orders, subject to safeguards (Article 24); and cooperation through extradition, mutual legal assistance and a 24/7 network. Articles 5 and 6 protect sovereignty and human rights.
In India, the IT Act, 2000, the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 and the I4C under the Home Ministry form the domestic framework.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international treaties); GS3 (cyber security, internal security). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** electronic evidence, expedited preservation, 24/7 network, digital sovereignty, safeguards. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing the UN Convention with the Budapest Convention, to which India is not a party. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Adopted 24 December 2024 (resolution 79/243); opened in Hanoi on 25 October 2025; 40 ratifications needed. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does a global cybercrime treaty risk legitimising surveillance by governments? |
Question 2 of 17
Statement-I: A World Trade Organization member that is neither the complainant nor the respondent in a dispute may make written submissions to the panel and be heard by it.
Statement-II: A panel or Appellate Body report adopted by the Dispute Settlement Body is binding on all WTO members, whether or not they were parties to the dispute.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
Under Article 10 of the Dispute Settlement Understanding, a member with a substantial interest in a matter may become a third party, receive the parties’ first submissions, make written submissions and be heard by the panel.
Statement IIIncorrect
An adopted report binds the parties to the dispute; it does not create obligations for other members, and WTO rulings are not formally binding precedent, although panels follow earlier reasoning in practice.
Analysis
On 25 September 2026 the Dispute Settlement Body set up a panel on Russia’s complaint against the EU’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (DS639); India and 17 other members reserved third-party rights to follow and shape the case.
Concept note
The WTO’s Dispute Settlement Understanding (DSU) sets out a staged process: consultations (Article 4), then a request for a panel, which the Dispute Settlement Body (DSB), made up of all members, establishes by “negative consensus”, so a respondent can delay a panel at the first meeting but not block it at the second. Panels report within months, and reports can be appealed to the Appellate Body on points of law.
The Appellate Body has been unable to hear appeals since December 2019, when it lost its quorum after the United States blocked appointments; an appeal therefore leaves a dispute unresolved (“appeal into the void”). Some members, including the EU, have created the Multi-Party Interim Appeal Arbitration Arrangement (MPIA) under Article 25 of the DSU as a stopgap; India has not joined.
In the CBAM dispute, Russia claims breaches of GATT Articles I, II, III, X and XI and of the Subsidies Agreement, while the EU is expected to defend its measure as consistent with WTO rules, with the general exceptions of GATT Article XX in the background. India objects to CBAM as a unilateral measure contrary to common but differentiated responsibilities.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (WTO, international institutions); GS3 (trade and climate). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** third-party rights, negative consensus, Appellate Body impasse, MPIA, carbon leakage. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking an adopted WTO report binds every member; it binds the parties to the dispute. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** DSU Article 10 governs third parties; Article 25 is the basis of the MPIA. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is the WTO still useful for India if its appeals body cannot function? |
Question 3 of 17
1 Only the Central Government can declare an area to be a "disturbed area" under the Act.
2 No prosecution can be instituted against any person for anything done under the Act except with the previous sanction of the Central Government.
3 In Naga People’s Movement of Human Rights v. Union of India, the Supreme Court struck down the Act as violative of Article 21.
4 The power of the Central Government to declare an area disturbed formed part of the Act as originally enacted in 1958.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
Under Section 3, the Governor of a State, the Administrator of a Union Territory or the Central Government may make the declaration.
Statement 2Correct
Section 6 bars prosecution, suit or other legal proceeding without the previous sanction of the Central Government.
Statement 3Incorrect
A Constitution Bench upheld the Act in 1997, while requiring periodic review of declarations and adherence to the Army’s “Do’s and Don’ts”.
Statement 4Incorrect
The Centre’s power to declare an area disturbed was added by an amendment in 1972.
Analysis
On 25 September 2026 the Home Ministry extended “disturbed area” declarations from 1 October 2026 for six months in Manipur (except 13 police stations), nine districts and 21 police station areas of Nagaland, and parts of Arunachal Pradesh.
Concept note
AFSPA grew out of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Ordinance of 1942 and was enacted in 1958 for the Naga Hills. Section 4 lets officers in a disturbed area use force, even causing death, against persons acting against prohibitory orders, destroy arms dumps, arrest without warrant and search without warrant; Section 5 requires arrested persons to be handed over to the police with the least possible delay.
Constitutionally, “public order” and “police” are State subjects, but Entry 2A of the Union List, added by the 42nd Amendment (1976), allows deployment of Union armed forces in aid of civil power, and Article 355 obliges the Union to protect States against internal disturbance. In EEVFAM v. Union of India (2016) the Supreme Court held there is no absolute immunity for excessive force.
The Justice B.P. Jeevan Reddy Committee (2005) and the Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2007) recommended repealing AFSPA and moving its essential provisions into the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act. AFSPA has been withdrawn from Tripura (2015) and Meghalaya (2018); Jammu and Kashmir has a separate Act of 1990.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (internal security, security forces); GS2 (fundamental rights, Centre-State relations). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** disturbed area, aid to civil power, prior sanction, minimum force, periodic review. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Believing only the Centre can declare a disturbed area; the Governor can too. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 3 (declaration), Section 4 (powers), Section 6 (sanction); Naga People’s Movement (1997), EEVFAM (2016). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can AFSPA be reconciled with accountability in a constitutional democracy? |
Question 4 of 17
1 The Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel headed by Madhav Gadgil recommended that the entire Western Ghats be treated as ecologically sensitive.
2 The draft notifications of Ecologically Sensitive Areas in the Western Ghats have been issued under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
3 The Western Ghats extend over six States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Gadgil Panel (2011) recommended treating the whole range as ecologically sensitive, graded into three zones.
Statement 2Incorrect
Ecologically Sensitive Areas are notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, not the Wild Life (Protection) Act.
Statement 3Correct
The Ghats run through Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
Analysis
The Karnataka Assembly has rejected the Kasturirangan Report “in its present form”, objecting to 2012 satellite data and the rule that includes a whole village if a fifth of it is sensitive; Karnataka holds the largest share of the proposed ESA.
Concept note
The Western Ghats, older than the Himalayas, run about 1,600 km parallel to India’s west coast and feed the major peninsular rivers, including the Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri. They were inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2012 and, with Sri Lanka, form one of the world’s biodiversity hotspots.
In 2010 the Environment Ministry set up the Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel under ecologist Madhav Gadgil; its 2011 report proposed treating the entire range as ecologically sensitive and was criticised by States as too restrictive. A High-Level Working Group under K. Kasturirangan (2013) confined the Ecologically Sensitive Area to the natural landscape, about 37 per cent of the Ghats.
The Centre issued interim directions in 2013 barring mining, quarrying, red-category industries and large construction in the identified area, and has issued repeated draft notifications covering about 56,825 sq km across six States, none of them final. ESAs are notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
They are distinct from Eco-Sensitive Zones around national parks and sanctuaries, which the Supreme Court has required as buffers.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (conservation, disaster management); GS2 (Centre-State relations); GS1 (physical geography). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** ecologically sensitive area, ground-truthing, cultural and natural landscape, payment for ecosystem services. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the draft ESA follows the Gadgil Report; it follows the narrower Kasturirangan Report. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Gadgil 2011 (whole range, three zones); Kasturirangan 2013 (about 37 per cent); ESA under the EP Act, 1986. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you win the trust of Ghats villagers who fear an ESA notification? |
Question 5 of 17
1 It was operationalised by a decision of the Cabinet Committee on Security in 2003.
2 It retains the option of nuclear retaliation in the event of a major attack against India or Indian forces with biological or chemical weapons.
3 The Political Council of the Nuclear Command Authority is chaired by the National Security Adviser.
4 India has signed but not ratified the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The Cabinet Committee on Security operationalised the doctrine on 4 January 2003, building on the 1999 Draft Nuclear Doctrine of the National Security Advisory Board.
Statement 2Correct
The doctrine keeps the option of nuclear retaliation against a major biological or chemical attack, so India’s No First Use is not unconditional.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Political Council, the sole body that can authorise nuclear use, is chaired by the Prime Minister; the Executive Council is chaired by the National Security Adviser.
Statement 4Incorrect
India has not signed the CTBT, although it observes a voluntary moratorium on testing.
Analysis
A Hindu op-ed argues for reviewing the doctrine in light of China-Pakistan alignment, tactical nuclear weapons and new technologies, without abandoning No First Use.
Concept note
India tested nuclear devices in 1974 (Pokhran-I) and in May 1998 (Pokhran-II), after which it declared itself a nuclear weapons state. The National Security Advisory Board released a Draft Nuclear Doctrine in 1999, and the Cabinet Committee on Security adopted the operative doctrine on 4 January 2003.
Its principles are credible minimum deterrence; No First Use, meaning nuclear weapons will be used only in retaliation against a nuclear attack on Indian territory or on Indian forces anywhere; massive retaliation designed to inflict unacceptable damage; authorisation of retaliation only by the civilian political leadership through the Nuclear Command Authority; no use against non-nuclear weapon states; the biological and chemical weapons exception; strict export controls, participation in talks on a Fissile Material Cut-off Treaty and a moratorium on testing; and commitment to a nuclear-weapon-free world. The Strategic Forces Command manages the arsenal.
India remains outside the NPT, the CTBT and the Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons, but secured a waiver from the Nuclear Suppliers Group in 2008 on the strength of its record.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (security, defence technology); GS2 (disarmament, India-China-Pakistan relations). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** credible minimum deterrence, No First Use, second-strike capability, nuclear triad, strategic stability. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the NSA heads the Political Council; the Prime Minister does. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CCS, 4 January 2003; the biological and chemical weapons exception to No First Use. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India drop No First Use given Pakistan’s tactical nuclear weapons? |
Question 6 of 17
1 Lotteries organised by the Government of India or the Government of a State are included in the Union List.
2 Betting and gambling are included in the Concurrent List.
3 The Supreme Court has treated gambling, including lotteries, as res extra commercium, outside the protection of the freedom of trade under Article 19(1)(g).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Entry 40 of List I covers “lotteries organised by the Government of India or the Government of a State”, which is why Parliament enacted the Lotteries (Regulation) Act, 1998.
Statement 2Incorrect
Betting and gambling are Entry 34 of List II, the State List; since the 101st Amendment (2016), they are taxed under GST.
Statement 3Correct
The Court has held gambling to be res extra commercium, and in B.R. Enterprises v. State of U.P. (1999) applied the principle to State lotteries.
Analysis
A Lead in The Hindu argues that Section 5 of the 1998 Act should be amended so that a State can exclude other States’ lotteries without abandoning its own, and that multi-State lotteries be allowed by agreement.
Concept note
The Seventh Schedule splits gambling between two lists. State-run lotteries are a Union subject (Entry 40, List I), so Parliament regulates how States may run them, while other betting and gambling is a State subject (Entry 34, List II), which is why States have their own public gambling laws and why online betting has been regulated both by States and, from 2025, by the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act.
The Lotteries (Regulation) Act, 1998 lets a State organise a lottery subject to conditions in Section 4, such as the State itself conducting draws and crediting proceeds to its public account. In B.R. Enterprises (1999), the Supreme Court upheld the Act and held that a State may prohibit the sale of other States’ lotteries only if it runs none of its own.
Tamil Nadu (2003) and Karnataka (2007) chose total prohibition. Kerala runs a departmental lottery; its operating surplus to the State was about Rs 1,203 crore in 2023-24, according to an RTI reply from the Directorate of State Lotteries.
Lottery tickets attract GST at 40 per cent after the 2025 rate rationalisation. The doctrine of res extra commercium means States need not justify a ban as a reasonable restriction on trade.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Seventh Schedule, federalism, judiciary); GS3 (State finances); GS4 (paternalism). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** res extra commercium, public-operator model, destination-State consent, regressive revenue. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating all gambling as a State subject; State-run lotteries are in the Union List. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Entry 40 List I (lotteries); Entry 34 List II (betting and gambling); B.R. Enterprises (1999). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should a welfare state raise revenue from lotteries that burden the poor? |
Question 7 of 17
1 A person who is, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist is eligible for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.
2 A person who is, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist is eligible for appointment as a judge of a High Court.
3 The Constitution defines the term "distinguished jurist".
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Article 124(3)(c) makes a distinguished jurist, in the opinion of the President, eligible for the Supreme Court, alongside five years as a High Court judge or ten years as a High Court advocate.
Statement 2Incorrect
Article 217(2) requires ten years in a judicial office or as an advocate of a High Court; there is no jurist route for High Courts.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Constitution does not define the term, which is one reason the route has never been used.
Analysis
Justice Ujjal Bhuyan’s recent regret that no distinguished jurist has ever been appointed prompted a Hindustan Times op-ed arguing that law academics are undervalued by both the judiciary and the executive.
Concept note
Article 124(2) provides that Supreme Court judges are appointed by the President after consultation with such judges as the President deems necessary, and the Chief Justice of India must be consulted for appointments other than his own. Through the Second Judges case (1993) and the Third Judges opinion (1998), the Supreme Court read “consultation” to mean concurrence and created the collegium, the CJI and four senior-most judges for Supreme Court appointments.
Parliament’s attempt to replace it with the National Judicial Appointments Commission (99th Amendment, 2014) was struck down in 2015. The Memorandum of Procedure guides the process.
Article 124(3) sets three routes to the Supreme Court, and direct appointment from the Bar has become common since S.M. Sikri in 1964, but the third route, the distinguished jurist, has never been used. The Constituent Assembly, aware of Felix Frankfurter’s appointment to the US Supreme Court from Harvard Law School, intended it to bring legal scholars to the bench.
Judges retire at 65 and can be removed only through the process in Article 124(4).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (judiciary, appointments, constitutional provisions). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** collegium, diversity on the bench, legal scholarship, Memorandum of Procedure. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming the jurist route also exists for High Court judges; it exists only for the Supreme Court. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 124(3): 5 years HC judge, 10 years HC advocate, or distinguished jurist; Article 217(2) for High Courts. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should an eminent law professor be appointed directly to the Supreme Court? |
Question 8 of 17
Statement-I: Any one of the five permanent members of the UN Security Council can prevent a candidate from being appointed Secretary-General of the United Nations.
Statement-II: The Secretary-General is appointed by the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council, and the recommendation is a non-procedural decision requiring the concurring votes of the permanent members.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
A permanent member’s negative vote in the Security Council blocks a candidate.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
Under Article 97 the General Assembly appoints the Secretary-General on the Security Council’s recommendation, and because that recommendation is a substantive decision under Article 27(3), each permanent member effectively holds a veto over the choice.
Analysis
The Hindu notes that the 81st General Assembly is Antonio Guterres’s last session as Secretary-General, and that the selection of his successor, whose term begins on 1 January 2027, will shape UN reform for a decade.
Concept note
The Secretary-General is the UN’s “chief administrative officer” (Article 97) and may bring to the Security Council’s attention any matter that threatens international peace and security (Article 99). The Charter does not fix the term; a five-year term renewable once has become the convention since a 1946 General Assembly resolution.
Selection was long an opaque process of straw polls in the Security Council. In 2015 the General Assembly (resolution 69/321) made it more transparent: candidates are formally nominated with letters, publish their vision statements and appear in public dialogues with members, and the 2016 race that chose Antonio Guterres, a former Prime Minister of Portugal and UN High Commissioner for Refugees, was the first under these rules.
There are calls for the first woman Secretary-General and for regional rotation. The General Assembly, where each of the 193 members has one vote (Article 18), elects the ten non-permanent members of the Security Council for two-year terms.
India has served eight terms, the latest in 2021-22, and is a candidate for 2028-29.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (UN structure, India’s multilateral diplomacy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** legitimacy crisis, veto, Charter reform, transparent selection, Global South voice. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the General Assembly alone chooses the Secretary-General; the Security Council must recommend first. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 97 (appointment), Article 99 (SG’s power to alert the Council), Article 108 (Charter amendment). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What should India look for in the next UN Secretary-General? |
Question 9 of 17
1 The inflation target is set by the Central Board of Directors of the Reserve Bank of India.
2 The Monetary Policy Committee has six members, three of whom are external members appointed by the Central Government.
3 In the event of an equality of votes in the Monetary Policy Committee, the Governor has a second or casting vote.
4 The Reserve Bank must report to the Central Government if it fails to meet the inflation target for three consecutive quarters.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Incorrect
Under Section 45ZA of the RBI Act, 1934, the Central Government sets the inflation target in consultation with the RBI, once every five years; it is now 4 per cent CPI inflation with a band of 2 to 6 per cent for 2026-31.
Statement 2Correct
The MPC comprises the Governor, a Deputy Governor, one RBI officer and three external members appointed by the Centre for four years.
Statement 3Correct
Decisions are by majority, and the Governor has a casting vote in a tie.
Statement 4Correct
Failure means inflation outside the band for three consecutive quarters, after which the RBI must explain the reasons and remedial action.
Analysis
With agencies raising 2026-27 growth forecasts to about 7 per cent and S&P Global expecting inflation of 5.1 per cent and a 25 basis point hike, the Indian Express argues the MPC should lean towards tighter policy.
Concept note
The Urjit Patel Committee (2014) recommended flexible inflation targeting with CPI as the nominal anchor. The Monetary Policy Framework Agreement between the Government and the RBI (2015) and the Finance Act, 2016, which amended the RBI Act, 1934, gave it statutory form.
The Act makes price stability, “while keeping in mind the objective of growth”, the primary objective of monetary policy. The Government notifies the target every five years; the 4 per cent target with a 2 to 6 per cent band has been retained since 2016 and was renewed for 2026-31.
The MPC meets at least four times a year, and its resolution and minutes are published. The repo rate, the rate at which the RBI lends to banks against government securities, is the main tool; the Standing Deposit Facility forms the floor and the Marginal Standing Facility the ceiling of the liquidity corridor.
Monetary policy affects demand with a lag, so food-price shocks from a poor monsoon are better met with supply measures, while the MPC watches whether they feed into core inflation and expectations.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (monetary policy, inflation, growth). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** flexible inflation targeting, anchoring expectations, supply shock, core inflation, policy lag. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the RBI sets its own inflation target; the Government sets it in consultation with the RBI. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Section 45ZA (target), 45ZB (MPC), 45ZN (failure to meet target) of the RBI Act, 1934. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the RBI raise rates when inflation comes mainly from food? |
Question 10 of 17
1 The export policy for agricultural commodities such as wheat is notified by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade under the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992.
2 Buffer stock norms for the Central Pool are the same for every quarter of the year.
3 Under the Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic), the Food Corporation of India sells foodgrains in the open market to moderate prices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The DGFT amends the export policy of a product, which may be “free”, “restricted” or “prohibited”, under the 1992 Act; wheat moved from prohibited to free on 24 August 2026.
Statement 2Incorrect
Norms differ by quarter (1 January, 1 April, 1 July and 1 October); for 1 October they are about 20.5 MT of wheat and 10.3 MT of rice.
Statement 3Correct
OMSS (Domestic) sales of wheat and rice add supply to cool market prices.
Analysis
Two columns argue for rules over reflexes: the Indian Express piece warns against free wheat exports before the El Nino-exposed rabi crop, and the Economic Times piece argues for open rice exports with a minimum export price and trigger-based stock release.
Concept note
India’s food management rests on procurement at the minimum support price by the Food Corporation of India (FCI) and State agencies, storage in the Central Pool, and distribution under the National Food Security Act, 2013, which entitles about two-thirds of the population to subsidised grain. Buffer norms, last revised in 2015, specify minimum stocks at the start of each quarter and include a strategic reserve; stocks above the norm are costly to hold and can be sold through the Open Market Sale Scheme or allocated for other uses, including ethanol.
Export policy is a separate lever: the DGFT can ban exports, restrict them by quota or licence, set a minimum export price, or leave them free, and the Finance Ministry can impose export duties. India banned wheat exports in May 2022 after a March heatwave cut output, and restricted rice exports in 2022 and 2023 before relaxing the curbs in 2024.
Critics say such swings hurt farmers and damage India’s reputation as a reliable supplier; supporters say food security at home must come first.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (food security, PDS, agricultural trade); GS2 (NFSA). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** buffer norms, minimum export price, OMSS, policy predictability, El Nino risk. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating buffer norms as a single annual figure; they vary by quarter. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** DGFT under the FTDR Act, 1992; the wheat buffer norm is highest on 1 July, just after procurement. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How should India balance export opportunity with food security in an El Nino year? |
Question 11 of 17
Facts
India is not a member of APEC; it has sought membership, but APEC has not admitted new members since its moratorium on expansion. Peru, Russia and Papua New Guinea are among its 21 member economies, and the tempting distractor is Russia, which many assume sits outside an “Asia-Pacific” economic forum.
Analysis
The Hindustan Times notes that Presidents Xi Jinping and Donald Trump are expected to meet again at the APEC summit in Shenzhen in November, after their Washington summit that extended the US-China trade truce.
Concept note
APEC was founded in 1989 at Australia’s initiative as a forum to promote trade and investment liberalisation around the Pacific Rim. Its members are called “economies” rather than countries, which allows Chinese Taipei and Hong Kong, China to take part alongside the People’s Republic of China.
It works by consensus and voluntary, non-binding commitments, and its Bogor Goals (1994) aimed at free and open trade and investment. There are 21 members, including the United States, Canada, Mexico, Chile, Peru, Russia, China, Japan, South Korea, Australia, New Zealand, Papua New Guinea and seven ASEAN members.
A moratorium on new members was imposed in 1997 and has been extended since, which has kept India, which applied in the 1990s, outside despite support from several members. India engages the Asia-Pacific through the East Asia Summit, ASEAN-led forums, the Quad and the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity.
The US-China summit context matters because APEC meetings are among the few regular venues where their leaders meet.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (regional groupings affecting India’s interests). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** open regionalism, voluntary commitments, Indo-Pacific architecture, membership moratorium. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming India is in APEC because it is in the East Asia Summit and the Quad. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** APEC: 21 economies, founded 1989; India is not a member. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India still seek APEC membership? |
Question 12 of 17
1 The Indian Ports Act, 2025 replaced the Indian Ports Act, 1908.
2 A port need not be a major port to be classified as a mega port.
3 Paradip Port is located near the mouth of the Mahanadi on the Bay of Bengal.
4 The Indian Ports Act, 2025 provides for a Maritime State Development Council chaired by the Union Minister in charge of ports.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
The 2025 Act repealed the colonial-era Indian Ports Act, 1908.
Statement 2Correct
Mundra, a non-major port, was among the four ports notified as mega ports, and the classification does not change a port’s major or non-major status.
Statement 3Correct
Paradip, in Odisha’s Jagatsinghpur district, lies near the Mahanadi’s mouth on the Bay of Bengal and is the only mega port on the east coast.
Statement 4Correct
The Act creates a Maritime State Development Council, chaired by the Union Minister for Ports, Shipping and Waterways, to coordinate the Centre and coastal States.
Analysis
On 25 September 2026 the Centre notified Deendayal, Jawaharlal Nehru, Paradip and Mundra as India’s first mega ports under Section 73, against thresholds of 150 million tonnes a year for bulk ports or 7.5 million TEU for container ports.
Concept note
Ports are divided by the Constitution: major ports are a Union subject (Entry 27, List I), while other ports fall under the Concurrent List (Entry 31, List III), subject to Union law. The twelve major ports, including Deendayal (Kandla), Mumbai, Jawaharlal Nehru, Mormugao, New Mangalore, Cochin, V.O. Chidambaranar (Tuticorin), Chennai, Kamarajar (Ennore), Visakhapatnam, Paradip and Syama Prasad Mookerjee (Kolkata, with Haldia), are governed as Major Port Authorities under the Major Port Authorities Act, 2021, while non-major ports are run by State Maritime Boards and private concessionaires.
The Indian Ports Act, 2025, one of a set of maritime laws passed in 2025 with the Merchant Shipping Act and the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, updated the 1908 framework, created the Maritime State Development Council and required State Maritime Boards, and aligned port rules with conventions such as MARPOL. The mega port category, based on throughput rather than ownership, identifies India’s highest-volume gateways; Mundra, operated by Adani Ports, is India’s largest private port.
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| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (infrastructure, ports); GS1 (location of ports); GS2 (Centre-State coordination). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** port-led development, Sagarmala, throughput-based classification, cooperative federalism. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming mega port status makes Mundra a major port; it remains a non-major port. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Major ports: Entry 27, List I; other ports: Entry 31, List III; Indian Ports Act, 2025 replaced the 1908 Act. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India designate ports by throughput or by ownership for policy support? |
Question 13 of 17
1 The Management Effectiveness Evaluation of Tiger Reserves uses a framework adapted from the IUCN World Commission on Protected Areas.
2 The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body constituted under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
3 The Management Effectiveness Evaluation is the method used to estimate the number of tigers in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
MEE-TR adapts the IUCN-WCPA framework, assessing context, planning, inputs, processes, outputs and outcomes.
Statement 2Correct
The NTCA was constituted under Section 38L of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, inserted by the 2006 amendment.
Statement 3Incorrect
The MEE evaluates how well a reserve is managed; tiger numbers come from the separate All India Tiger Estimation, conducted every four years.
Analysis
The sixth cycle of MEE-TR, launched on 25 September 2026, will cover all 58 tiger reserves and adds solid waste management as a new criterion.
Concept note
Project Tiger was launched in 1973 with nine reserves, and India now has 58 tiger reserves covering over 85,000 sq km, according to the Environment Ministry. The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2006, following the Tiger Task Force report of 2005, gave Project Tiger statutory backing by creating the National Tiger Conservation Authority, chaired by the Union Environment Minister, and required each reserve to have a core or critical tiger habitat and a buffer zone, with a Tiger Conservation Plan.
Management Effectiveness Evaluation began in 2006 and has run every four years (2006, 2010, 2014, 2018, 2022), with ratings that help prioritise funds and staff; independent teams assess each reserve. The All India Tiger Estimation, conducted by the NTCA with the Wildlife Institute of India using camera traps and field surveys, is a separate exercise that estimates tiger numbers.
Other recent developments include new reserves notified in 2024 and 2025 and the Global Tiger Forum’s work on tiger-range cooperation. Management quality matters because the future of tigers increasingly depends on corridors and on coexistence with people outside reserves.
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| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (biodiversity conservation, protected areas). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** management effectiveness, core and buffer, landscape connectivity, human-wildlife coexistence. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing the MEE (management quality) with the All India Tiger Estimation (numbers). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NTCA under Section 38L of the WPA (2006 amendment); MEE uses the IUCN-WCPA framework. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is counting tigers a better measure of success than evaluating how reserves are managed? |
Question 14 of 17
1 Ways and Means Advances are temporary advances from the Reserve Bank of India to the Government to meet mismatches between receipts and payments.
2 Treasury Bills are short-term instruments issued with maturities of less than one year.
3 Sovereign Green Bonds are issued by the Government of India, and their proceeds are meant for eligible green projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
WMA are a temporary facility to bridge timing gaps, not a source of financing; the RBI sets the limit in consultation with the Government, fixed at Rs 50,000 crore for the second half of 2026-27.
Statement 2Correct
Treasury Bills are issued in 91-, 182- and 364-day tenors.
Statement 3Correct
Sovereign Green Bonds are issued by the Government, through the RBI as its debt manager, under a sovereign green bonds framework, with proceeds allocated to eligible green projects.
Analysis
The borrowing calendar released on 25 September 2026 provides for Rs 7,86,000 crore of dated securities in October-March, including Rs 15,000 crore of Sovereign Green Bonds, and puts full-year dated borrowing below the Budget Estimate.
Concept note
The Government finances its fiscal deficit mainly through market borrowing in dated securities (long-term bonds) and Treasury Bills (short-term), supplemented by small savings and other sources. The RBI manages the Government’s debt under the RBI Act, 1934, and announces a half-yearly borrowing calendar with the Finance Ministry, listing auction sizes and maturities so that markets can plan.
Dated securities run from 2 to 50 years; the 10-year bond is the benchmark whose yield reflects market expectations of inflation and fiscal policy. Ways and Means Advances cover temporary mismatches, and if the Government exceeds the WMA limit it moves into overdraft.
Since the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management framework and the 1997 agreement ending automatic monetisation through ad hoc Treasury Bills, the RBI does not buy government securities in the primary market except in exceptional cases. Sovereign Green Bonds were first issued in January 2023 under a framework approved in November 2022; their proceeds go to public projects in renewable energy, clean transport, climate adaptation and similar areas.
Green bonds help deepen a market for climate finance.
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| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (government budgeting, public debt, climate finance). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** market borrowing, crowding out, yield curve, green finance, cash management. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating Ways and Means Advances as borrowing to finance the deficit; they bridge timing gaps. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** T-Bills: 91, 182 and 364 days; SGrBs first issued in 2023. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why might the Government borrow less than budgeted in a year of strong growth? |
Question 15 of 17
Statement-I: The WHO Pandemic Agreement, adopted by the World Health Assembly in 2025, has not yet been opened for signature.
Statement-II: The Agreement opens for signature only after the annex on the Pathogen Access and Benefit-Sharing system is adopted, and that annex is still under negotiation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Facts
Statement ICorrect
The Agreement was adopted in May 2025, but it cannot yet be signed.
Statement IICorrectExplains Statement I
The Agreement ties its opening for signature to the adoption of the Pathogen Access and Benefit-Sharing (PABS) annex, which an intergovernmental working group is still negotiating.
Analysis
At the UN High-Level Meeting on pandemic prevention, preparedness and response on 25 September 2026, India said the Agreement’s credibility depends on a fair PABS system and that the political declaration should not prejudge those talks.
Concept note
COVID-19 exposed gaps in the global health architecture: slow information sharing, unequal access to vaccines and weak surveillance. Two tracks followed.
First, the International Health Regulations (2005), the binding rules on reporting and responding to public health risks, were amended in 2024, adding a “pandemic emergency” category and stronger equity provisions; the amendments entered into force in 2025. Second, WHO members negotiated a new Pandemic Agreement, adopted by the World Health Assembly in May 2025, covering prevention, One Health, research and development, technology transfer, supply chains and equitable access.
Its most contested element, the Pathogen Access and Benefit-Sharing system, was left to an annex: countries that share pathogen samples and genetic sequences should, in return, receive a share of the resulting vaccines, diagnostics and treatments. Developing countries, including India, insist that benefit sharing be firm and predictable; pharmaceutical industries and some developed countries prefer voluntary arrangements.
India also promotes digital public infrastructure, such as its CoWIN vaccination platform, as a global public good.
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| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international institutions, health diplomacy); GS3 (biotechnology, disaster management). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** pathogen access and benefit sharing, vaccine equity, One Health, global public good. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Thinking the Pandemic Agreement replaced the International Health Regulations; they coexist. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Pandemic Agreement adopted in May 2025; IHR amendments adopted in 2024. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why should a country share pathogen samples if it cannot be sure of getting vaccines? |
Question 16 of 17
1 He campaigned for the legislation that became the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856.
2 He wrote the Bengali primer Barnaparichay.
3 He founded the Brahmo Samaj.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Facts
Statement 1Correct
Vidyasagar’s scholarly argument from the shastras and his petitions to the government led to the Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act of 1856.
Statement 2Correct
His primer Barnaparichay (1855) simplified the Bengali alphabet and is still used.
Statement 3Incorrect
The Brahmo Samaj (initially the Brahmo Sabha, 1828) was founded by Raja Rammohan Roy.
Analysis
26 September 2026 marks Vidyasagar’s birth anniversary; he was born on 26 September 1820 at Birsingha in present-day Paschim Medinipur.
Concept note
Ishwar Chandra Bandyopadhyay received the title “Vidyasagar” (ocean of learning) for his Sanskrit scholarship and became principal of Sanskrit College, Calcutta, where he opened admission to non-Brahmin students and modernised the curriculum. His social reform combined tradition and reason: he argued from Hindu texts that widow remarriage was permitted, gathered petitions, and saw the Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act passed in July 1856; he later helped arrange such marriages, including his own son’s. He opposed polygamy and child marriage, and as a school inspector promoted girls’ schools across Bengal, supporting John Elliot Drinkwater Bethune’s school for girls.
His Bengali primers and textbooks shaped modern Bengali prose. He is often contrasted with Raja Rammohan Roy, whose campaign contributed to the abolition of sati under Lord William Bentinck’s Regulation XVII of 1829, and with the Brahmo Samaj, which Rammohan founded.
Later reformers such as Jyotirao Phule and Pandita Ramabai carried women’s education and widows’ welfare further in western India. Vidyasagar died on 29 July 1891.
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| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (modern Indian history, social reform movements). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** social reform, women’s education, widow remarriage, Bengal Renaissance. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Crediting Vidyasagar with the abolition of sati or with founding the Brahmo Samaj; both belong to Rammohan Roy. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Widow Remarriage Act 1856 (Vidyasagar); Sati Regulation 1829 (Bentinck, Rammohan Roy). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Which of Vidyasagar’s methods would work for social reform today? |
Question 17 of 17
Facts
The Travel and Tourism Development Index (TTDI) is published by the World Economic Forum; it succeeded the WEF’s Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Index. UN Tourism is the tempting distractor, since it is the UN agency for tourism and observes World Tourism Day, but it does not publish this index.
Analysis
In the TTDI 2026, released on 25 September 2026, India rose nine places to 31st of 110 economies (39th of 119 in 2024), with Japan ranked first; the WEF flagged gaps in tourist services and infrastructure, environmental sustainability and workforce skills.
Concept note
The World Economic Forum, a Geneva-based non-profit foundation, publishes several indices that recur in Prelims, including the Global Gender Gap Report, the Global Risks Report, the Energy Transition Index and the Future of Jobs Report, as well as the TTDI, which it publishes every two years. The TTDI measures the factors and policies that enable sustainable and resilient tourism development, grouped into dimensions covering the enabling environment, travel and tourism policy, infrastructure and services, travel and tourism resources (natural, cultural and non-leisure) and sustainability.
It does not rank countries by arrivals or receipts. India’s strengths lie in cultural and natural resources, price competitiveness and air connectivity; its weaknesses in tourist services, sustainability and labour market indicators.
UN Tourism, formerly the UN World Tourism Organization, is based in Madrid; World Tourism Day on 27 September marks the adoption of its statutes in 1970. In India, the Ministry of Tourism runs schemes such as Swadesh Darshan 2.0 and PRASHAD, and tourism’s share of GDP is measured through the Tourism Satellite Account.
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| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (tourism, services economy); GS1 (cultural heritage). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** destination competitiveness, tourist infrastructure, sustainable tourism, cultural resources. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Attributing the TTDI to UN Tourism or the WTTC; it is a WEF index. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** WEF indices: Global Gender Gap, Global Risks, Energy Transition, TTDI. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why does India rank high on heritage but lower on tourist services? |
Performance
Question-wise Result