UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 10 September 2026
Daily Practice
Test Your Knowledge
15 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
15 MCQs
Explanations
Statistics
Timed
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 15
With reference to the proposed Article 371(K) for Ladakh, discussed at an MHA sub-committee meeting on 9 September 2026, which one of the following is correct?
FACT: The 371-series of “special provisions” currently runs from Article 371A (Nagaland) through 371J (Hyderabad-Karnataka region of Karnataka); the letter K has never been used. The 32nd Constitutional Amendment (1973) for Andhra Pradesh inserted Articles 371D and 371E, not 371K. The letter K is therefore available for a first-time assignment to Union Territory Ladakh under the MHA proposal tabled at the HPC sub-committee meeting chaired by MoS Home Nityanand Rai on 9 September 2026.
ANALYSIS: Option (b) is incorrect because 371K was never previously used; the 32nd Amendment inserted 371D and 371E. Option (c) is wrong; the proposal does not grant statehood, Ladakh remains a UT. Option (d) is wrong; the Hill Councils are local-governance bodies under the 1997 Act, not elected legislatures with legislative power.
ANALYSIS: Option (b) is incorrect because 371K was never previously used; the 32nd Amendment inserted 371D and 371E. Option (c) is wrong; the proposal does not grant statehood, Ladakh remains a UT. Option (d) is wrong; the Hill Councils are local-governance bodies under the 1997 Act, not elected legislatures with legislative power.
📝 Concept Note
Ladakh was constituted as a UT without legislature on 31 October 2019 under the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019. The existing governance rests on two Hill Councils (Leh: 1995; Kargil: 2003).
The Leh Apex Body (LAB) and Kargil Democratic Alliance (KDA) demand statehood, Sixth Schedule, separate PSC and additional parliamentary seats. The 371(K) proposal is described as a “sui generis” middle path that delivers a directly elected assembly with legislative competence on notified subjects while keeping land, security and public order with the Centre.
The next dialogue round is 6 October 2026.
The Leh Apex Body (LAB) and Kargil Democratic Alliance (KDA) demand statehood, Sixth Schedule, separate PSC and additional parliamentary seats. The 371(K) proposal is described as a “sui generis” middle path that delivers a directly elected assembly with legislative competence on notified subjects while keeping land, security and public order with the Centre.
The next dialogue round is 6 October 2026.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (federalism, Special Provisions, Centre-UT relations, tribal rights). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** asymmetric federalism, sui generis UT model, Part XXI, Sixth Schedule, LAB, KDA, statehood agitation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing Article 371 (simple majority amendment) with Article 368 (special majority); the 371 route is constitutionally easier to deliver than statehood or a Sixth Schedule amendment. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** The full 371 series: 371A (Nagaland), 371B (Assam), 371C (Manipur), 371D and 371E (AP/Telangana), 371F (Sikkim), 371G (Mizoram), 371H (Arunachal Pradesh), 371I (Goa), 371J (Karnataka). Letter K is now proposed for Ladakh. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why does the 371(K) route not satisfy the LAB-KDA demand for Sixth Schedule status? |
Question 2 of 15
Consider the following statements about the 22nd edition of Exercise Yudh Abhyas, which opened on 9 September 2026.
1 It is being held simultaneously at Mahajan Field Firing Ranges in Rajasthan and Auli in Uttarakhand, making it the first two-theatre edition.
2 The US contingent is drawn from the 11th Airborne Division and integrates the 3rd Multi-Domain Task Force.
3 Yudh Abhyas is a tri-services exercise between India and the United States.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 It is being held simultaneously at Mahajan Field Firing Ranges in Rajasthan and Auli in Uttarakhand, making it the first two-theatre edition.
2 The US contingent is drawn from the 11th Airborne Division and integrates the 3rd Multi-Domain Task Force.
3 Yudh Abhyas is a tri-services exercise between India and the United States.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
FACT: Yudh Abhyas 22 is indeed the first two-theatre edition, running 9 to 28 September 2026 at Mahajan (Rajasthan, desert) and Auli (Uttarakhand, high-altitude) simultaneously. The US contingent is drawn from the 11th Airborne Division (Arctic Angels, Fort Wainwright Alaska) and integrates the 3rd Multi-Domain Task Force (3MDTF), bringing long-range precision fires, cyber, space and electronic warfare.
ANALYSIS: Statement 3 is incorrect. Yudh Abhyas is an Army-to-Army bilateral exercise, not tri-services.
The India-US tri-services exercise is Tiger Triumph.
ANALYSIS: Statement 3 is incorrect. Yudh Abhyas is an Army-to-Army bilateral exercise, not tri-services.
The India-US tri-services exercise is Tiger Triumph.
📝 Concept Note
Yudh Abhyas began in 2004 and has been annual since 2005, with venues alternating between India and the US. The 21st edition (2025) was held in Alaska. The two-theatre design mirrors India’s dual-front operational posture (Pakistan-western front and PLA-LAC-northern front) and the US Multi-Domain Operations doctrine.
The 3MDTF integration is only possible now because COMCASA (2018) and BECA (2020) have established the communication and geospatial-sharing architecture needed for its long-range fires and cyber cells to operate jointly.
The 3MDTF integration is only possible now because COMCASA (2018) and BECA (2020) have established the communication and geospatial-sharing architecture needed for its long-range fires and cyber cells to operate jointly.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (defence and internal security, military modernisation); GS2 (India-US bilateral relations, strategic partnerships). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Yudh Abhyas, Multi-Domain Task Force, 11th Airborne Division, COMCASA, BECA, iCET, strategic autonomy, dual-front. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating Yudh Abhyas as tri-services or as a QUAD exercise; QUAD naval exercise is Malabar, tri-services exercise is Tiger Triumph. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** India-US foundational agreements sequence: LEMOA (2016), COMCASA (2018), BECA (2020), iCET (2023), Defence Framework (2025). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does the integration of the 3rd MDTF at Yudh Abhyas compromise India’s strategic autonomy? |
Question 3 of 15
Which one of the following best describes MAHASAGAR, as referenced in the context of Rajnath Singh’s visit to Sri Lanka in September 2026?
FACT: SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) was India’s Indian Ocean doctrine announced by PM Modi in Mauritius in 2015. In 2025, it was renamed MAHASAGAR (Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions), extending the frame from the South Asian Indian Ocean neighbourhood to the Pacific and East African littoral with a broader mutual-advancement and coalition logic.
Rajnath Singh’s visit to Colombo (8 to 10 September 2026, first Indian Defence Minister visit in 38 years) operationalises the India-Sri Lanka Defence Cooperation Agreement signed in April 2025. ANALYSIS: Options (a), (b) and (d) are all factually incorrect.
Rajnath Singh’s visit to Colombo (8 to 10 September 2026, first Indian Defence Minister visit in 38 years) operationalises the India-Sri Lanka Defence Cooperation Agreement signed in April 2025. ANALYSIS: Options (a), (b) and (d) are all factually incorrect.
📝 Concept Note
The last Indian Defence Minister to visit Sri Lanka before Rajnath Singh was K. C. Pant in 1988. The visit coincides with the Colombo port call of INS Udaygiri, a Project 17A (Nilgiri-class) stealth frigate built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), Mumbai.
India provided approximately $4 billion in support to Sri Lanka during the 2022 economic crisis. The Hambantota Port is leased to China Merchants Port Holdings for 99 years from 2017.
Sri Lanka’s current leadership: President Anura Kumara Dissanayake (JVP/NPP, sworn 23 September 2024) and PM Harini Amarasuriya.
India provided approximately $4 billion in support to Sri Lanka during the 2022 economic crisis. The Hambantota Port is leased to China Merchants Port Holdings for 99 years from 2017.
Sri Lanka’s current leadership: President Anura Kumara Dissanayake (JVP/NPP, sworn 23 September 2024) and PM Harini Amarasuriya.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (India and its neighbourhood, IOR, bilateral relations). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** MAHASAGAR, Neighbourhood First, SAGAR, Indian Ocean Region, Colombo Security Conclave, defence diplomacy, coastal radar chain. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing SAGAR (2015, India’s IOR doctrine) with the broader "Indo-Pacific" construct (US-led; India participates but has reservations); SAGAR and MAHASAGAR are India’s own formulations. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Katchatheevu Island was ceded by the 1974 India-Sri Lanka Maritime Agreement; sovereignty is settled, but fisheries and the IMBL crossing remain live disputes. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How does the Hambantota port lease affect India’s strategic calculus in Sri Lanka? |
Question 4 of 15
With reference to the ISRO CE20 cryogenic engine hot test conducted on 9 September 2026, consider the following statements.
1 The CE20 was tested at an uprated thrust of 220 kN, a 10 per cent increase over its rated 200 kN, adding approximately 450 to 500 kg to LVM3’s GTO payload capacity.
2 The test also qualified the LOX Tank Pressurisation Module (LTPM), a subsystem specifically needed for the Gaganyaan crewed mission.
3 CE20 is designed by HAL and uses staged-combustion cryogenic cycle.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 The CE20 was tested at an uprated thrust of 220 kN, a 10 per cent increase over its rated 200 kN, adding approximately 450 to 500 kg to LVM3’s GTO payload capacity.
2 The test also qualified the LOX Tank Pressurisation Module (LTPM), a subsystem specifically needed for the Gaganyaan crewed mission.
3 CE20 is designed by HAL and uses staged-combustion cryogenic cycle.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
FACT: The CE20 was tested at 220 kN (up from the rated 200 kN, a 10% increase) at IPRC Mahendragiri, adding approximately 450 to 500 kg to LVM3’s GTO payload; the test also qualified the LOX Tank Pressurisation Module (LTPM), needed for Gaganyaan. ANALYSIS: Statement 3 is incorrect.
CE20 is designed by LPSC (Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre, Valiamala, Kerala), not HAL. HAL is the prime manufacturer, not the designer. CE20 uses a gas-generator cycle, not the more advanced staged-combustion cycle of Russian RD-180 or SpaceX Raptor.
CE20 is designed by LPSC (Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre, Valiamala, Kerala), not HAL. HAL is the prime manufacturer, not the designer. CE20 uses a gas-generator cycle, not the more advanced staged-combustion cycle of Russian RD-180 or SpaceX Raptor.
📝 Concept Note
LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-3), renamed from GSLV Mk-III in 2022, is India’s heaviest operational launcher and the designated crew-launcher for Gaganyaan. Its first stage uses S200 solid boosters; the cryogenic upper stage (C25/C32) uses the CE20 engine with LOX-LH2 propellants.
LVM3 carried Chandrayaan-3 on 14 July 2023 to translunar injection. The uprated C32 upper stage pushes GTO capacity from approximately 4,000 kg to approximately 4,500 kg.
India’s first indigenous cryogenic flight was GSLV-D5 on 5 January 2014 (using CE7.2 engine).
LVM3 carried Chandrayaan-3 on 14 July 2023 to translunar injection. The uprated C32 upper stage pushes GTO capacity from approximately 4,000 kg to approximately 4,500 kg.
India’s first indigenous cryogenic flight was GSLV-D5 on 5 January 2014 (using CE7.2 engine).
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (science and technology, space, indigenisation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** specific impulse, cryogenic upper stage, LPSC, HLVM3, BAS, LOX-LH2, Indian Space Policy 2023, IN-SPACe. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Attributing CE20 design to HAL; HAL manufactures it as prime, but LPSC (Valiamala, Kerala) designs it. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CE20 is an upper-stage engine (C25/C32 stage), not the first stage; LVM3 first stage uses S200 solid boosters. Gaganyaan uses a human-rated LVM3 designated HLVM3. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What is the significance of qualifying the LTPM specifically for the Gaganyaan mission? |
Question 5 of 15
Aadhaar Face Authentication, launched in 2021, is used in Video-based Customer Identification Process (V-CIP) by banks and NBFCs under the regulatory framework of:
FACT: The Reserve Bank of India’s KYC Master Direction, last amended in 2024, explicitly permits Aadhaar face authentication as the biometric verification step in Video-based Customer Identification Process (V-CIP) for banks and NBFCs. This enables paperless, branchless account opening, loan origination and insurance policy issuance with UIDAI-verified identity.
ANALYSIS: SEBI’s KYC RA guidelines cover capital market entities; UIDAI’s circulars govern the auth system itself; IFSCA governs the GIFT City financial entities. The V-CIP regulatory permission comes from RBI for banking entities.
ANALYSIS: SEBI’s KYC RA guidelines cover capital market entities; UIDAI’s circulars govern the auth system itself; IFSCA governs the GIFT City financial entities. The V-CIP regulatory permission comes from RBI for banking entities.
📝 Concept Note
UIDAI released the Aadhaar Face Authentication SDK and Sandbox at Global Fintech Fest 2026 (Jio World Centre, BKC, Mumbai, 8 to 11 September 2026). The SDK integrates UIDAI’s indigenous AI/ML face-match engine directly into Android/iOS apps, collapsing integration time from months to days.
Face auth has crossed 500 crore transactions and is used by approximately 200 entities. UIDAI is a statutory body under the Aadhaar Act, 2016; parent ministry MeitY. K. S. Puttaswamy (2017) affirmed privacy as fundamental right; K. S. Puttaswamy (2018) upheld Aadhaar constitutionality with limits, including that private entities cannot mandate Aadhaar.
Face auth has crossed 500 crore transactions and is used by approximately 200 entities. UIDAI is a statutory body under the Aadhaar Act, 2016; parent ministry MeitY. K. S. Puttaswamy (2017) affirmed privacy as fundamental right; K. S. Puttaswamy (2018) upheld Aadhaar constitutionality with limits, including that private entities cannot mandate Aadhaar.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (e-governance, welfare delivery, institutional design); GS3 (digital economy, cybersecurity, data protection). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** DPI stack, MOSIP, V-CIP, Puttaswamy proportionality, DPDP Act 2023, data fiduciary, liveness detection, financial inclusion. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating UIDAI as set up in 2016; UIDAI was set up in 2009 as an executive body and became statutory under the Aadhaar Act, 2016. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Aadhaar is proof of residence-based identity, NOT proof of citizenship; it cannot substitute for passport or citizenship certificate. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How does the Aadhaar Face Auth SDK advance India’s DPI export narrative at G20-plus forums? |
Question 6 of 15
The Karnataka Aerospace Policy 2026-2031, approved on 9 September 2026, offers which one of the following as its central spatial-policy innovation?
FACT: The central innovation of the Karnataka Aerospace Policy 2026-2031 is the differential subsidy structure: up to 35 per cent capital subsidy in non-focus areas (Belagavi, Hassan, Mysuru, Chitradurga, Vijayapura), raised from 25 per cent under the superseded 2022-2027 policy, versus 30 per cent in Zone 1 (Bengaluru cluster) and 27.5 per cent in Zone 2. This reverses the usual gravity toward the established hub by making non-Bengaluru locations comparatively more attractive for greenfield investment.
ANALYSIS: Karnataka does not have and is not becoming a Defence Industrial Corridor (the two are UP 2018 and TN 2019). HAL is not being relocated.
There is no Rs 5,000 crore cap.
ANALYSIS: Karnataka does not have and is not becoming a Defence Industrial Corridor (the two are UP 2018 and TN 2019). HAL is not being relocated.
There is no Rs 5,000 crore cap.
📝 Concept Note
Karnataka accounts for approximately 65 per cent of India’s aerospace and defence output and approximately 25 per cent of aerospace MSMEs. The policy targets Rs 60,000 crore in investment and 60,000 jobs over five years.
It includes a 40-aircraft HAL programme tie-in and supports MRO cluster formation. India spent approximately USD 2 billion offshore on MRO in 2024.
HAL Tumakuru already produces LCA Tejas Mk-1A and HTT-40 as the decentralisation model. The policy aligns with the Union government’s target of Rs 3 lakh crore in defence production by FY2028-29.
It includes a 40-aircraft HAL programme tie-in and supports MRO cluster formation. India spent approximately USD 2 billion offshore on MRO in 2024.
HAL Tumakuru already produces LCA Tejas Mk-1A and HTT-40 as the decentralisation model. The policy aligns with the Union government’s target of Rs 3 lakh crore in defence production by FY2028-29.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (industrial policy, defence indigenisation, economic geography). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** HAL, decentralisation, spatial Keynesianism, MRO market, Positive Indigenisation Lists, iDEX, capital subsidy, defence production target. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating Karnataka as a notified Defence Industrial Corridor; it is not. The two corridors are UP (2018) and TN (2019). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** HAL Tumakuru is the new facility producing Tejas Mk-1A and HTT-40; it is distinct from HAL’s classical Bengaluru divisions (Aircraft, Engine, Foundry and Forge). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can a differential subsidy alone create an aerospace cluster in Chitradurga or Vijayapura, or does it need to be paired with skilled-workforce development? |
Question 7 of 15
With reference to India’s nuclear doctrine and the 2026 FAS/SIPRI warhead estimates, consider the following statements.
1 India’s No First Use (NFU) doctrine was formalised in the 2003 Nuclear Doctrine, not at the time of the 1998 Pokhran-II tests.
2 The Nuclear Command Authority has a Political Council chaired by the Prime Minister and an Executive Council chaired by the National Security Adviser.
3 SIPRI estimated India at approximately 190 warheads in 2026, ahead of Pakistan’s estimated 170.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 India’s No First Use (NFU) doctrine was formalised in the 2003 Nuclear Doctrine, not at the time of the 1998 Pokhran-II tests.
2 The Nuclear Command Authority has a Political Council chaired by the Prime Minister and an Executive Council chaired by the National Security Adviser.
3 SIPRI estimated India at approximately 190 warheads in 2026, ahead of Pakistan’s estimated 170.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
FACT: All three statements are correct. India’s No First Use doctrine was formalised in the 2003 Draft Nuclear Doctrine (the 1999 draft preceded it and was the basis, but the 2003 statement is the operative official doctrine).
The Nuclear Command Authority has a Political Council chaired by the PM and an Executive Council chaired by the NSA. FAS and SIPRI, in 2026 assessments, place India at approximately 190 warheads (up from ~180 in 2025) and Pakistan at approximately 170. ANALYSIS: All three statements are factually accurate; selecting options that exclude any of them is incorrect.
The Nuclear Command Authority has a Political Council chaired by the PM and an Executive Council chaired by the NSA. FAS and SIPRI, in 2026 assessments, place India at approximately 190 warheads (up from ~180 in 2025) and Pakistan at approximately 170. ANALYSIS: All three statements are factually accurate; selecting options that exclude any of them is incorrect.
📝 Concept Note
India’s approximately 190 warheads span Agni-family IRBMs/MRBMs, K-15 and K-4 SLBMs on Arihant-class SSBNs, and Rafale-integrated air-delivered weapons, with approximately 160 on operational launchers. India’s declared doctrine is Credible Minimum Deterrence with NFU. The global nuclear total (SIPRI 2026) is approximately 12,241 warheads across nine nuclear-armed states.
India holds approximately 730 kg of weapon-grade plutonium, enough theoretically for 140 to 225 warheads.
India holds approximately 730 kg of weapon-grade plutonium, enough theoretically for 140 to 225 warheads.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (internal security, nuclear strategy); GS2 (India’s foreign policy, arms control). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** NFU, Credible Minimum Deterrence, NCA, MIRV, Agni-V, K-4 SLBM, SIPRI, second-strike. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Stating that NFU was declared at Pokhran-II (1998); 1998 established weapons capability; the doctrine was formalised in 1999 (draft) and 2003 (official). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** India’s NFU does not preclude massive retaliation against a nuclear first strike; "no first use" and "massive retaliation" are complementary, not contradictory, doctrinal positions. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does India’s warhead growth to 190 signal a shift away from No First Use? |
Question 8 of 15
Which one of the following statements about Exercise Samudra Laksamana, referenced in the context of INS Mysore’s port call at Lumut, Malaysia on 9 September 2026, is correct?
FACT: Samudra Laksamana is a bilateral India-Royal Malaysian Navy exercise, not trilateral. INS Mysore (D60) is a Delhi-class (Project 15) guided-missile destroyer, commissioned in 1999, displacing approximately 6,700 tonnes; not a Project 17A frigate.
The 2026 edition at Lumut Naval Base is the fourth (prior editions: 2010, 2015, 2024). ANALYSIS: Option (a) is wrong: it is bilateral, not trilateral, and the first edition was in 2010 not 2015.
Option (b) confuses INS Mysore with INS Udaygiri (which is the P-17A ship on port call in Colombo). Option (d) is geographically wrong: the Malacca Strait connects the South China Sea to the Andaman Sea/Indian Ocean, not the Arabian Sea directly.
The 2026 edition at Lumut Naval Base is the fourth (prior editions: 2010, 2015, 2024). ANALYSIS: Option (a) is wrong: it is bilateral, not trilateral, and the first edition was in 2010 not 2015.
Option (b) confuses INS Mysore with INS Udaygiri (which is the P-17A ship on port call in Colombo). Option (d) is geographically wrong: the Malacca Strait connects the South China Sea to the Andaman Sea/Indian Ocean, not the Arabian Sea directly.
📝 Concept Note
Malaysia is a key littoral state on the Malacca Strait, through which approximately 25 per cent of world trade transits. India-Malaysia bilateral: Samudra Laksamana; India-Singapore: SIMBEX (Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise, oldest in the region, since 1994); India-Indonesia: Samudra Shakti.
The 2026 visit coincides with 2026 being the ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation. INS Udaygiri (P-17A) is separately on port call at Colombo simultaneously with Rajnath Singh’s Sri Lanka visit.
The 2026 visit coincides with 2026 being the ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation. INS Udaygiri (P-17A) is separately on port call at Colombo simultaneously with Rajnath Singh’s Sri Lanka visit.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (India’s Act East Policy, maritime security, ASEAN); GS3 (internal security, maritime domain awareness). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Malacca Strait, Act East, ASEAN-India maritime cooperation, bilateral naval exercises, chokepoint security. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing INS Mysore (Delhi-class destroyer, 1999) with INS Udaygiri (Nilgiri-class P-17A frigate, 2025); they are different ships. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** India’s bilateral naval exercises: Malabar (QUAD nations), SIMBEX (Singapore), Samudra Laksamana (Malaysia), Samudra Shakti (Indonesia), Varuna (France), Konkan (UK). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why is the Malacca Strait a critical chokepoint for India’s economic security? |
Question 9 of 15
With reference to the 9th ASEAN-India Ministerial Meeting on Agriculture and Forestry (AIMMAF), held on 9 September 2026 in New Delhi, which one of the following is correct?
FACT: The 9th AIMMAF was co-chaired by Union Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan and Philippines Agriculture Secretary Francisco P. Tiu Laurel, on 9 September 2026 in New Delhi. Ministers welcomed the ASEAN 2045: Our Shared Future vision and the ASEAN Food, Agriculture and Forestry Sectoral Plan 2026-2030.
ANALYSIS: Option (a) incorrectly names the ministers. Option (c) is unverified; the research brief does not assert it was the first on Indian soil.
Option (d) is incorrect: ASEAN is India’s fourth-largest trading partner (approximately USD 130 billion FY2024-25); China, USA and UAE rank higher.
ANALYSIS: Option (a) incorrectly names the ministers. Option (c) is unverified; the research brief does not assert it was the first on Indian soil.
Option (d) is incorrect: ASEAN is India’s fourth-largest trading partner (approximately USD 130 billion FY2024-25); China, USA and UAE rank higher.
📝 Concept Note
The 10th ASEAN-India Agriculture Working Group met on 8 September 2026, one day prior, with 45 delegates from 11 ASEAN-affiliated delegations. 2026 is the ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation. ICAR displayed technologies in NRM, ICT, animal science, fisheries and horticulture.
The meeting advances the agricultural track of the ASEAN-India Comprehensive Strategic Partnership (upgraded at the 2022 Phnom Penh summit). The ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA) review is ongoing; agriculture remains a sensitive sector.
The meeting advances the agricultural track of the ASEAN-India Comprehensive Strategic Partnership (upgraded at the 2022 Phnom Penh summit). The ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA) review is ongoing; agriculture remains a sensitive sector.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (India’s bilateral and multilateral relations, ASEAN, food security); GS3 (agriculture, food security, trade). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** AIMMAF, ASEAN-India Comprehensive Strategic Partnership, AITIGA, ASEAN 2045, food security, natural farming, PGS-India. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing ASEAN as India’s second-largest trading partner; it is fourth. Individually, no single ASEAN state is in India’s top-5 trading partners. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** ASEAN has 10 member states (Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam); the 11th delegation at AIMMAF likely includes a dialogue partner. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How does AIMMAF advance India’s food-security interests in the context of the AITIGA review negotiations? |
Question 10 of 15
India received approximately 648 mm of monsoon rainfall between 1 June and 9 September 2026 against a long-period average of 760.6 mm, a deficit of approximately 15 per cent. Under the India Meteorological Department’s all-India seasonal classification, this 2026 season falls into which category?
FACT: IMD’s all-India seasonal classification for cumulative Southwest Monsoon rainfall is: Normal 96 to 104 per cent of LPA; Below Normal 90 to 96 per cent of LPA (i.e., 4 to 10 per cent below); Above Normal 104 to 110 per cent; Deficient less than 90 per cent of LPA (i.e., more than 10 per cent below); Excess more than 110 per cent. A 15 per cent seasonal shortfall corresponds to 85 per cent of LPA, which falls below the 90 per cent floor of the Below Normal band and therefore lies in the Deficient category.
ANALYSIS: Options (b), (c) and (d) describe incorrect placements against the IMD thresholds.
ANALYSIS: Options (b), (c) and (d) describe incorrect placements against the IMD thresholds.
📝 Concept Note
The Southwest Monsoon (June to September) accounts for approximately 75 per cent of India’s annual rainfall and irrigates approximately 52 per cent of India’s net sown area (un-irrigated, rain-fed). The 15 per cent deficit creates kharif output pressure on pulses, oilseeds and coarse cereals; reservoir-storage stress in the peninsular region; rabi sowing outlook conditional on residual soil moisture; and inflationary risk for CPI food, which the RBI MPC will factor into its October 2026 policy meeting.
IMD uses a separate, wider set of bands for subdivision-level (spatial) reporting; the all-India seasonal band above is what the National Seasonal Rainfall Bulletin uses.
IMD uses a separate, wider set of bands for subdivision-level (spatial) reporting; the all-India seasonal band above is what the National Seasonal Rainfall Bulletin uses.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (agriculture, food security, climate); GS3 (Indian economy, inflation, monetary policy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** LPA, IMD classification, kharif shortfall, food inflation, MPC, soil moisture, rabi sowing. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming IMD’s all-India seasonal band is plus or minus 10 per cent; the actual all-India Normal band is 96 to 104 per cent of LPA, a much tighter range. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** LPA for the Southwest Monsoon is 760.6 mm (current IMD figure). Distinguish IMD’s all-India seasonal categories from its subdivisional (spatial) categories, which use different thresholds. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How does a 15 per cent monsoon deficit, formally a "Deficient" year at the all-India level, affect the RBI’s October 2026 MPC inflation outlook? |
Question 11 of 15
Consider the following statements about World Suicide Prevention Day.
1 It is observed on 10 September each year since 2003, custodied by the International Association for Suicide Prevention (IASP) in partnership with WHO.
2 The 2024-2026 triennial theme is "Changing the Narrative on Suicide", with the 2026 call-to-action "Start the Conversation".
3 India’s Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 criminalised attempted suicide under Section 115.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 It is observed on 10 September each year since 2003, custodied by the International Association for Suicide Prevention (IASP) in partnership with WHO.
2 The 2024-2026 triennial theme is "Changing the Narrative on Suicide", with the 2026 call-to-action "Start the Conversation".
3 India’s Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 criminalised attempted suicide under Section 115.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
FACT: World Suicide Prevention Day has been observed on 10 September each year since 2003 by IASP in partnership with WHO. The 2024-2026 triennial theme is “Changing the Narrative on Suicide”; the 2026 call-to-action is “Start the Conversation”. ANALYSIS: Statement 3 is incorrect and is a critical trap.
The Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 DECRIMINALISED attempted suicide under Section 115; it removed the criminal liability that previously existed under Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code. The Act presumes that a person who attempts suicide is under severe stress and requires care, not prosecution.
The Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 DECRIMINALISED attempted suicide under Section 115; it removed the criminal liability that previously existed under Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code. The Act presumes that a person who attempts suicide is under severe stress and requires care, not prosecution.
📝 Concept Note
India’s NCRB ADSI 2022 data records 1,70,924 suicides, a rate of 12.4 per 100,000, with daily wage earners, students and homemakers disproportionately represented. India’s response pillars: Mental Healthcare Act 2017 (decriminalisation), Tele-MANAS (24x7 helpline, 14416, launched 2022), National Suicide Prevention Strategy 2022 (target 10% reduction by 2030).
WHO SDG target 3.4.2 seeks a one-third reduction in global suicide mortality rate by 2030.
WHO SDG target 3.4.2 seeks a one-third reduction in global suicide mortality rate by 2030.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (welfare schemes, public health, mental health legislation); GS1 (society, social issues, vulnerable groups). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Mental Healthcare Act 2017, Tele-MANAS, NCRB ADSI, SDG 3.4.2, IASP, suicide prevention strategy. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Stating that the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 criminalised suicide; it did the opposite, decriminalising it and creating a presumption of severe stress requiring care. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** The former Section 309 of the erstwhile Indian Penal Code (since replaced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023) imposed criminal liability for attempted suicide; Section 115 of the Mental Healthcare Act 2017 already replaced that with a care-and-treatment presumption. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What is the missing link in India’s suicide prevention architecture: legislation and helplines exist, but the primary-care mental-health workforce does not. |
Question 12 of 15
Which of the following is the correct full expansion and operating cycle of the CE20 engine used in the LVM3 cryogenic upper stage?
FACT: CE20 stands for Cryogenic Engine 20 (the 20 refers to a 20-tonne-force class designation in an earlier naming convention). It uses a gas-generator cycle (pre-burner drives turbopumps, exhaust is dumped overboard rather than fed back to the main chamber).
Baseline rated thrust is 200 kN; the 9 September 2026 test uprated it to 220 kN. It is designed by the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC), Valiamala, Thiruvananthapuram district, Kerala, and manufactured by HAL as prime. ANALYSIS: Options (a), (c) and (d) all contain incorrect cycle, thrust, design agency or location details.
Baseline rated thrust is 200 kN; the 9 September 2026 test uprated it to 220 kN. It is designed by the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC), Valiamala, Thiruvananthapuram district, Kerala, and manufactured by HAL as prime. ANALYSIS: Options (a), (c) and (d) all contain incorrect cycle, thrust, design agency or location details.
📝 Concept Note
The gas-generator cycle is less efficient than a staged-combustion or expander cycle but is simpler to design and develop. RD-180 (Russia) uses staged combustion; SpaceX Merlin uses a gas-generator cycle like CE20.
CE20 propellants: LOX at minus 183 degrees C, LH2 at minus 253 degrees C. Specific impulse approximately 450 seconds in vacuum. The test facility is IPRC (ISRO Propulsion Complex), Mahendragiri, Tirunelveli district, Tamil Nadu, India’s primary cryogenic test facility.
CE20 propellants: LOX at minus 183 degrees C, LH2 at minus 253 degrees C. Specific impulse approximately 450 seconds in vacuum. The test facility is IPRC (ISRO Propulsion Complex), Mahendragiri, Tirunelveli district, Tamil Nadu, India’s primary cryogenic test facility.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (science and technology, space, indigenisation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** gas-generator cycle, LPSC, cryogenic upper stage, specific impulse, IPRC Mahendragiri, LOX-LH2. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Attributing CE20 design to HAL (which manufactures) or to ISRO HQ (which oversees); the design authority is LPSC, a constituent unit of ISRO based in Kerala. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Three engine cycles for cryogenics: gas-generator (CE20), staged-combustion (RD-180, Raptor), expander cycle (LE-5, Vinci). Gas-generator is the simplest, expander cycle the most efficient of the three. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why does India use a gas-generator cycle for CE20 rather than the more efficient staged-combustion cycle? |
Question 13 of 15
With reference to the Aadhaar Face Authentication SDK launched at GFF 2026, consider the following statements.
1 Aadhaar is proof of Indian citizenship and can substitute for a passport for international travel within SAARC.
2 The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies) Act, 2016 is the legal foundation for the authentication system.
3 MOSIP (Modular Open Source Identity Platform) is an open-source Aadhaar-architecture stack incubated at IIIT-Bangalore that has been deployed by countries including Morocco, Philippines and Sri Lanka.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 Aadhaar is proof of Indian citizenship and can substitute for a passport for international travel within SAARC.
2 The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies) Act, 2016 is the legal foundation for the authentication system.
3 MOSIP (Modular Open Source Identity Platform) is an open-source Aadhaar-architecture stack incubated at IIIT-Bangalore that has been deployed by countries including Morocco, Philippines and Sri Lanka.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
FACT: Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Aadhaar Act 2016 is the legal foundation for the authentication system, and UIDAI is the statutory authority created under it under MeitY. MOSIP is an open-source Aadhaar-like national ID stack incubated at IIIT-Bangalore with Gates Foundation support, deployed by Morocco, Philippines, Sri Lanka, Ethiopia and others.
ANALYSIS: Statement 1 is incorrect and is a critical factual trap. Aadhaar is proof of RESIDENCE-based identity, not citizenship.
It cannot substitute for a passport. SAARC travel facilitation (where it exists at all) requires separate country-specific agreements, not Aadhaar.
ANALYSIS: Statement 1 is incorrect and is a critical factual trap. Aadhaar is proof of RESIDENCE-based identity, not citizenship.
It cannot substitute for a passport. SAARC travel facilitation (where it exists at all) requires separate country-specific agreements, not Aadhaar.
📝 Concept Note
UIDAI was set up in 2009 as an executive body under the Planning Commission; it became statutory under the Aadhaar Act, 2016 (parent ministry: MeitY). Approximately 140 crore Aadhaar numbers have been generated.
The K. S. Puttaswamy 2017 judgment affirmed privacy as a fundamental right; K. S. Puttaswamy 2018 upheld Aadhaar with limits including that private entities cannot mandate it for contracts. The DPDP Act 2023 makes UIDAI a Data Fiduciary subject to its obligations.
The K. S. Puttaswamy 2017 judgment affirmed privacy as a fundamental right; K. S. Puttaswamy 2018 upheld Aadhaar with limits including that private entities cannot mandate it for contracts. The DPDP Act 2023 makes UIDAI a Data Fiduciary subject to its obligations.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (e-governance, fundamental rights, Article 21, data protection); GS3 (digital economy, DPI, cybersecurity). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** DPI export, MOSIP, V-CIP, DPDP Act 2023, data fiduciary, Puttaswamy proportionality, financial inclusion. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating Aadhaar as proof of citizenship; it proves residence-based identity only. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Four Puttaswamy tests for privacy limitations: legality (law must exist), legitimate aim, proportionality, procedural safeguards. Aadhaar passed these in 2018 with conditions. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How does India’s MOSIP deployment in Sri Lanka advance both DPI diplomacy and strategic neighbourhood engagement? |
Question 14 of 15
With reference to the Paris International Space Summit (10 September 2026) and the India-France private space agreements, which one of the following is correct?
FACT: At the Paris International Space Summit on 10 September 2026, Safran Space agreed contracts worth over EUR 5 million with Dhruva Space (Indian private space firm) covering inertial navigation units, communication systems, optical payloads and ground stations for the planned SBS-III (Space-Based Surveillance III) 52-satellite constellation, to be deployed from 2027 to 2030. ANALYSIS: Option (a) is wrong; the summit produced private-sector deals, not exclusively government agreements.
Option (c) is wrong: TakeMeToSpace is an Indian company (India’s first orbital data-centre designer), not French; RIDE! France is the French launch provider. Option (d) is wrong; PM Modi addressed the summit remotely.
Option (c) is wrong: TakeMeToSpace is an Indian company (India’s first orbital data-centre designer), not French; RIDE! France is the French launch provider. Option (d) is wrong; PM Modi addressed the summit remotely.
📝 Concept Note
The Paris International Space Summit (inaugural edition) produced 51 announcements aggregating approximately EUR 20 billion. 2026 is the India-France Year of Innovation. The three India-France space deals: (i) RIDE! France to launch 2 satellites for TakeMeToSpace; (ii) Safran Space to Dhruva Space EUR 5 million+ for SBS-III; (iii) broader microsatellite MoU. The CNES-ISRO TRISHNA thermal-infrared Earth-observation satellite is a separate, ongoing programme expected to launch in 2026.
CNES also supports Gaganyaan on crew health monitoring.
CNES also supports Gaganyaan on crew health monitoring.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (space policy, private sector, international technology cooperation); GS2 (India-France bilateral relations). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Indian Space Policy 2023, IN-SPACe, private space sector, SBS-III constellation, TRISHNA, India-France Year of Innovation. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing TakeMeToSpace (Indian orbital data-centre company) with a French firm; it is Indian. RIDE! France is the French launch provider. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Indian Space Policy 2023 mandates IN-SPACe as the single-window regulator for private space; NSIL handles commercial launches; ISRO focuses on strategic and R&D missions. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How do the Paris Space Summit firm-to-firm deals reflect the intent of the Indian Space Policy 2023? |
Question 15 of 15
With reference to Article 371 of the Constitution of India and the Ministry of Home Affairs proposal of 9 September 2026 to insert a new Article 371(K) for Union Territory Ladakh, consider the following statements.
1 The 371-series of "special provisions" sits within Part XXI of the Constitution, which is titled "Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions".
2 The letter K has never previously been used in the 371-series; the existing series runs A through J.
3 Provisions inserted under Article 371 ordinarily require ratification by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures under Article 368 before Parliament can enact them.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 The 371-series of "special provisions" sits within Part XXI of the Constitution, which is titled "Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions".
2 The letter K has never previously been used in the 371-series; the existing series runs A through J.
3 Provisions inserted under Article 371 ordinarily require ratification by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures under Article 368 before Parliament can enact them.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
FACT: Statement 1 is correct: Article 371 and its letter variants (A through J) sit within Part XXI, headed “Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions”. Statement 2 is correct: the existing 371-series covers Article 371A (Nagaland), 371B (Assam), 371C (Manipur), 371D and 371E (Andhra Pradesh and Telangana), 371F (Sikkim), 371G (Mizoram), 371H (Arunachal Pradesh), 371I (Goa) and 371J (Hyderabad-Karnataka region of Karnataka); the letter K has never been used, so the letter is available.
ANALYSIS: Statement 3 is incorrect. Ordinary insertions or amendments of Article 371-series provisions require a simple parliamentary majority under Article 368(2), not the special ratification procedure of Article 368(2) proviso; the ratification requirement applies to a specific list of entrenched provisions (federal-structure clauses, representation in Parliament, and so on), and 371-series provisions are not among them.
ANALYSIS: Statement 3 is incorrect. Ordinary insertions or amendments of Article 371-series provisions require a simple parliamentary majority under Article 368(2), not the special ratification procedure of Article 368(2) proviso; the ratification requirement applies to a specific list of entrenched provisions (federal-structure clauses, representation in Parliament, and so on), and 371-series provisions are not among them.
📝 Concept Note
The 32nd Amendment (1973) inserted Articles 371D and 371E for Andhra Pradesh, addressing regional equity and the University of Andhra Pradesh, respectively; the letter K was not used. The MHA’s new proposal takes the vacant letter K to construct a bespoke provision for Ladakh, giving it a directly elected legislature with legislative competence on notified subjects, while retaining central control on land, security and public order.
The next round with the Leh Apex Body and Kargil Democratic Alliance is scheduled for 6 October 2026.
The next round with the Leh Apex Body and Kargil Democratic Alliance is scheduled for 6 October 2026.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (Constitution of India, federalism, asymmetric federalism, special provisions). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Part XXI, Article 371-series, asymmetric federalism, Sixth Schedule, Union Territory with legislature, sui generis. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Assuming any Article 371 amendment needs the ratification procedure of Article 368(2) proviso; ordinary 371-series changes go through simple majority under Article 368. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 371 originally applied only to Bombay and Gujarat (special responsibilities of the Governor); the letter variants A through J were added over time by successive amendments. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is the proposed 371(K) route for Ladakh preferable to the Sixth Schedule route from the perspective of tribal rights, elected representation and national security? |
–
/ 15
Performance
✓
Correct
0
✗
Incorrect
0
%
Accuracy
0%
⏱
Time Taken
–
Question-wise Result
Daily quiz questions on Telegram
Practice polls with instant explanations, plus every edition and free PDFs
Join Channel