UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 9 September 2026
Daily Practice
Test Your Knowledge
15 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
15 MCQs
Explanations
Statistics
Timed
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 15
With reference to Project Zorawar and the L1 selection reported in September 2026, consider the following statements.
1 Tata Advanced Systems Limited was declared L1 for the Armoured Fighting Vehicle-Indian Light Tank at a contract value of about Rs 20,000 crore.
2 The programme runs under the Buy (Indian - IDDM) category of the Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020.
3 The L1 bidder must develop and demonstrate two operational prototypes within 130 weeks, and the L2 bidder has also been invited to build a prototype.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 Tata Advanced Systems Limited was declared L1 for the Armoured Fighting Vehicle-Indian Light Tank at a contract value of about Rs 20,000 crore.
2 The programme runs under the Buy (Indian - IDDM) category of the Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020.
3 The L1 bidder must develop and demonstrate two operational prototypes within 130 weeks, and the L2 bidder has also been invited to build a prototype.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
FACT: TASL was declared L1 for the AFV-ILT (Project Zorawar) at about Rs 20,000 crore, and must develop and demonstrate two operational prototypes within 130 weeks. Mahindra Defence, as L2, has also been invited to build a prototype under the dual-source resilience model.
ANALYSIS: Statement 2 is incorrect. The programme runs under Make-I of DAP 2020, with up to 70 per cent government funding of prototype design and development; Buy (Indian - IDDM) is a separate off-the-shelf category above Make-I in the DAP order of preference.
ANALYSIS: Statement 2 is incorrect. The programme runs under Make-I of DAP 2020, with up to 70 per cent government funding of prototype design and development; Buy (Indian - IDDM) is a separate off-the-shelf category above Make-I in the DAP order of preference.
📝 Concept Note
The Zorawar is a 25-tonne class light battle tank designed for high-altitude and mountain warfare in Ladakh and along the Line of Actual Control, doctrinally responding to the Chinese ZTQ-15 (Type 15) light tank of about 35 tonnes deployed to Tibet. The trade press describes the award as the first time a private Indian firm will build a battle tank at this scale; read that framing carefully, because Zorawar is a DRDO/CVRDE design whose prototype was built with L&T, and the Arjun MBT was developed by CVRDE and produced at HVF Avadi, now merged into Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (defence indigenisation, procurement, industrial policy); GS2 (public sector reform). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Make-I, dual-source resilience, 25-tonne class, mountain warfare, Positive Indigenisation List. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating Make-I as identical to Buy (Indian - IDDM); Make-I funds prototype design and development up to 70 per cent, Buy (Indian - IDDM) buys off the shelf. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** T-72 Ajeya ~44 t and T-90 Bhishma ~46 t are main battle tanks; the Zorawar 25-tonne class is a light tank, a distinct category. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How does the dual-source resilience model change supplier dynamics through the series production cycle? |
Question 2 of 15
Which one of the following statements about ORV Sagar Manthan, launched on 9 September 2026, is correct?
FACT: ORV Sagar Manthan was launched at Rishi Bankim Shipyard, Kolkata, on 9 September 2026 by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Limited (GRSE), a Defence PSU, for the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR), Goa, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. It is 89.5 metres long, cost about Rs 840 crore, has a 30-year service life, and is being built under the Deep Ocean Mission, serving its survey and exploration objective; commissioning is scheduled for 2028, after which it will progressively replace ORV Sagar Kanya (procured from Germany in 1983, 43 years of service).
ANALYSIS: The manned submersible Matsya-6000 targeting a 6,000-metre dive sits under Vertical 1 of the DOM, a different vertical and a different platform.
ANALYSIS: The manned submersible Matsya-6000 targeting a 6,000-metre dive sits under Vertical 1 of the DOM, a different vertical and a different platform.
📝 Concept Note
The Deep Ocean Mission was approved by the Cabinet in June 2021 with an initial outlay of Rs 4,077 crore. India holds ISA-allocated exploration contracts covering 75,000 sq km in the Central Indian Ocean Basin for polymetallic nodules (1987, renewed 2017) and 10,000 sq km on the Central Indian Ridge for polymetallic sulphides (2016).
The International Seabed Authority is headquartered at Kingston, Jamaica, and operates under UNCLOS.
The International Seabed Authority is headquartered at Kingston, Jamaica, and operates under UNCLOS.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (science and technology, Blue Economy, indigenisation); GS2 (institutional design, public sector reform). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** indigenous scientific hull, Deep Ocean Mission, polymetallic nodules, ISA exploration contract, buy-to-build transition. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Conflating the manned-submersible vertical (Matsya-6000) with the survey and exploration work an ORV does; different verticals, different platforms. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** ORV Sagar Kanya (1983, Germany) is being replaced; ORV Sagar Nidhi (2008) continues in service; CRV Sagar Purvi and Sagar Paschimi are coastal, not ocean, research vessels. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why is a domestically built ORV a strategic upgrade over a chartered foreign vessel, in terms of design flexibility, life-cycle cost and Antarctic-Southern Ocean reach? |
Question 3 of 15
With reference to the AlphaGenome Atlas released by Google DeepMind on 8 September 2026, consider the following statements.
1 It provides molecular-effect predictions for every one of the approximately 9 billion possible single-nucleotide variants in the human genome.
2 The AlphaGenome Variant Impact score is limited to protein-coding regions.
3 The dataset is approximately 1 petabyte in size and is available free for non-commercial research through the DeepMind portal and API.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 It provides molecular-effect predictions for every one of the approximately 9 billion possible single-nucleotide variants in the human genome.
2 The AlphaGenome Variant Impact score is limited to protein-coding regions.
3 The dataset is approximately 1 petabyte in size and is available free for non-commercial research through the DeepMind portal and API.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
FACT: Google DeepMind released AlphaGenome Atlas on 8 September 2026, providing molecular-effect predictions for approximately 9 billion possible SNVs in the human genome. The dataset is approximately 1 petabyte in size (more than 30 times the AlphaFold Database) and is free for non-commercial research via the DeepMind portal, API and Google Antigravity, with commercial access on Google Cloud announced.
ANALYSIS: Statement 2 is incorrect. The AlphaGenome Variant Impact (AVI) score unifies rankings across both coding and non-coding regions, by combining AlphaGenome (functional effect) and AlphaMissense (protein pathogenicity) outputs.
ANALYSIS: Statement 2 is incorrect. The AlphaGenome Variant Impact (AVI) score unifies rankings across both coding and non-coding regions, by combining AlphaGenome (functional effect) and AlphaMissense (protein pathogenicity) outputs.
📝 Concept Note
AlphaFold (2020-21) solved the protein-structure prediction problem for essentially every protein in known biology; AlphaGenome Atlas is the equivalent step for functional genomics. India’s GenomeIndia Project, led by IISc Bengaluru and the Centre for Brain Research, has sequenced whole genomes covering 83 population groups, with the first phase announced in February 2025.
The IndiaAI Mission, approved 7 March 2024, has an outlay of Rs 10,371.92 crore over five years.
The IndiaAI Mission, approved 7 March 2024, has an outlay of Rs 10,371.92 crore over five years.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (biotechnology, AI, indigenisation); GS4 (ethics of predictive genomics); GS2 (data protection, DPDP Act). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** functional genomics, non-coding variants, variant interpretation, interpretive infrastructure, data sovereignty. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating AlphaGenome and AlphaMissense as the same model; AlphaMissense predicts coding-region pathogenicity, AlphaGenome predicts non-coding and regulatory effects. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** DeepMind explicitly notes the Atlas is a research tool, not clinically validated; ICMR’s 2023 AI-in-biomedical-research guidelines require validation and clinical oversight before AI output enters treatment. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India build a domestic mirror of the Atlas for data-sovereignty reasons, or rely on global cloud access? |
Question 4 of 15
The human genome is approximately 3.2 billion base pairs long. The count of approximately 9 billion possible single-nucleotide variants covered by the AlphaGenome Atlas arises because:
FACT: At each of approximately 3.2 billion positions in the human genome, the DNA “letter” can be adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G) or thymine (T). A single-nucleotide variant is a change of one base at one position.
Since a base can be any of three alternative bases (not the one already there), 3.2 billion positions x 3 alternatives ≈ 9.6 billion possible SNVs, giving the ~9 billion figure referenced in the Atlas. ANALYSIS: Options (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect; the ~9 billion figure is a real biological count of possible single-base substitutions.
Since a base can be any of three alternative bases (not the one already there), 3.2 billion positions x 3 alternatives ≈ 9.6 billion possible SNVs, giving the ~9 billion figure referenced in the Atlas. ANALYSIS: Options (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect; the ~9 billion figure is a real biological count of possible single-base substitutions.
📝 Concept Note
The distinction between coding and non-coding variants is central. Coding variants sit inside protein-coding regions and change amino acids or introduce stop codons; non-coding variants affect regulatory regions, splice sites, enhancers, promoters and transcription-factor binding sites.
AlphaMissense (2023) scored coding-region pathogenicity; AlphaGenome Atlas extends the same paradigm to the much larger non-coding space, where most disease-associated variants sit.
AlphaMissense (2023) scored coding-region pathogenicity; AlphaGenome Atlas extends the same paradigm to the much larger non-coding space, where most disease-associated variants sit.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (biotechnology, human genetics, precision medicine). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** single-nucleotide variant, non-coding variant, regulatory sequence, splice site, variant effect prediction. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the human genome as ~3 billion base pairs of only coding DNA; more than 98 per cent is non-coding. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** 3.2 billion positions x 3 alternative bases per position ~= 9 billion possible SNVs; a useful arithmetic to internalise. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why is non-coding variant interpretation the hard problem, and why is a public predictive baseline transformational for the field? |
Question 5 of 15
With reference to Tripura’s zero per cent primary dropout claim for 2025-26, announced by Chief Minister Dr Manik Saha at International Literacy Day 2026, which one of the following is correct?
FACT: The zero-per-cent primary dropout claim for 2025-26, announced on 8 September 2026 at the ULLAS Mela in New Delhi, is based on UDISE+ (Unified District Information System for Education Plus), the Ministry of Education’s authoritative school database. Tripura’s primary dropout was 2.21 per cent in 2013-14, and secondary dropout has fallen from 25.51 per cent (2013-14) to 10.40 per cent (2025-26); the state has announced Balvatikas for all 2,048 primary schools, to open within two years.
ANALYSIS: Options (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect; ASER and NAS measure learning outcomes rather than dropout, Anganwadis are ICDS pre-school centres separate from UDISE+, and Tripura’s primary dropout was 2.21 per cent in 2013-14, not zero.
ANALYSIS: Options (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect; ASER and NAS measure learning outcomes rather than dropout, Anganwadis are ICDS pre-school centres separate from UDISE+, and Tripura’s primary dropout was 2.21 per cent in 2013-14, not zero.
📝 Concept Note
NIPUN Bharat Mission was launched on 5 July 2021 under Samagra Shiksha to deliver Foundational Literacy and Numeracy by end of Grade 3. ULLAS (New India Literacy Programme) is the adult literacy scheme for 2022-27 covering non-literates aged 15 and above.
NEP 2020’s 5+3+3+4 structure comprises Foundational (Balvatika 1 to Grade 2), Preparatory (Grades 3-5), Middle (Grades 6-8) and Secondary (Grades 9-12).
NEP 2020’s 5+3+3+4 structure comprises Foundational (Balvatika 1 to Grade 2), Preparatory (Grades 3-5), Middle (Grades 6-8) and Secondary (Grades 9-12).
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (welfare schemes, education administration); GS1 (society, education). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** UDISE+, foundational literacy and numeracy, Balvatika, 5+3+3+4, PARAKH. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Conflating enrolment retention (UDISE+) with learning outcomes (ASER, NAS, PARAKH); zero dropout is not zero learning gap. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** NIPUN Bharat targets end-of-Grade-3 FLN, not end-of-primary-cycle; the standard is set at Grade 3. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How replicable is Tripura’s zero-dropout model in Uttar Pradesh or Bihar, given the small-state administrative-capacity advantage? |
Question 6 of 15
With reference to the rescue of five juvenile orangutans in Balasore, Odisha on 8 September 2026, consider the following statements.
1 Orangutans are native to Borneo and Sumatra and are not native to India.
2 All three orangutan species are listed on CITES Appendix I and are Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
3 The Wildlife Protection Amendment Act, 2022 introduced Schedule IV to cover species listed under CITES appendices.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 Orangutans are native to Borneo and Sumatra and are not native to India.
2 All three orangutan species are listed on CITES Appendix I and are Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
3 The Wildlife Protection Amendment Act, 2022 introduced Schedule IV to cover species listed under CITES appendices.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
FACT: Orangutans are large arboreal apes of the genus Pongo, native only to Borneo (Indonesia, Malaysia, Brunei) and Sumatra (Indonesia). Three species are recognised, Bornean (Pongo pygmaeus), Sumatran (Pongo abelii) and Tapanuli (Pongo tapanuliensis, described 2017), all Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List and listed on CITES Appendix I. The Wildlife Protection (Amendment) Act, 2022 reduced schedules from six to four and introduced Schedule IV to cover CITES-listed species, requiring declaration to the state Chief Wildlife Warden.
ANALYSIS: All three statements are correct.
ANALYSIS: All three statements are correct.
📝 Concept Note
All five orangutans have been transferred to Nandankanan Zoological Park, Bhubaneswar (established 1960) for quarantine. The WCCB, established 6 June 2007 under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is India’s CITES enforcement authority; CITES was signed 3 March 1973 at Washington DC, and India acceded on 20 July 1976 with entry into force on 18 October 1976.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (biodiversity, wildlife conservation, transboundary crime); GS2 (institutional coordination). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Schedule IV WPA Amendment 2022, CITES Appendix I, exotic-pet trade, transit-node enforcement, WCCB. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing WCCB under the Ministry of Home Affairs; it is under MoEFCC. Also, orangutans are not native to India despite the Balasore rescue. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** CITES Appendix I prohibits commercial international trade; Appendix II regulates it; Appendix III is country-specific listings. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How does India strengthen source-country cooperation with Indonesia and Malaysia under CITES to disrupt trafficking at origin? |
Question 7 of 15
With reference to the commercial flight operated on a 1 per cent Sustainable Aviation Fuel blend on 8 September 2026, which one of the following is correct?
FACT: Akasa Air operated the flight from Mumbai (CSMIA) at 13:05 IST to Goa (Manohar International, GOX) at 14:30 IST on 8 September 2026 with ATF blended at 1 per cent Sustainable Aviation Fuel supplied by Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL), acting on an Akasa-BPCL MoU signed on 14 July 2026. This was not India’s first commercial SAF flight: AirAsia India flew a Pune-Delhi service on indigenously produced SAF on 19 May 2023.
ANALYSIS: India’s indicative SAF targets apply to international departures, at 1 per cent blending by 2027 and 5 per cent by 2030; there is no 2026 mandate. Feedstock for the flight was Indian-sourced; PtL e-fuels are a developmental pathway.
ANALYSIS: India’s indicative SAF targets apply to international departures, at 1 per cent blending by 2027 and 5 per cent by 2030; there is no 2026 mandate. Feedstock for the flight was Indian-sourced; PtL e-fuels are a developmental pathway.
📝 Concept Note
SAF is a drop-in fuel; ASTM D7566 currently permits blends up to 50 per cent. Feedstock pathways include used cooking oil (HEFA), agricultural residues (ATJ or FT), municipal solid waste (FT), algae (developmental) and PtL e-fuels.
Aviation contributes roughly 2-3 per cent of global CO2 emissions. India’s E20 (20 per cent ethanol in petrol) target was achieved in 2025, five years ahead of the 2030 plan.
Aviation contributes roughly 2-3 per cent of global CO2 emissions. India’s E20 (20 per cent ethanol in petrol) target was achieved in 2025, five years ahead of the 2030 plan.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (climate change, energy transition, aviation); GS2 (industrial policy). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** drop-in fuel, HEFA process, CORSIA, RUCO, ReFuelEU Aviation, life-cycle emissions. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Reading a 1 per cent SAF blend as saving 1 per cent of aviation emissions; SAF has non-zero life-cycle emissions. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** ICAO’s CORSIA covers international aviation offsetting; EU’s ReFuelEU Aviation requires 2 per cent SAF from 2025, 6 per cent by 2030, 20 per cent by 2035 and 70 per cent by 2050 at EU airports. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What is the feedstock scale problem for India’s 5-per-cent-by-2030 international-departure target, and how does the RUCO initiative help? |
Question 8 of 15
With reference to Tung Chee-hwa, who died on 8 September 2026, consider the following statements.
1 He was the first Chief Executive of the Hong Kong Special Administrative Region, serving from 1 July 1997 to 12 March 2005.
2 He later served as Vice-Chairman of the Chinese People’s Political Consultative Conference National Committee from 2005 to 2023.
3 Under the Sino-British Joint Declaration of 1984 and the HKSAR Basic Law, the "One Country, Two Systems" arrangement is valid for 50 years from the handover, i.e., until 2047.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 He was the first Chief Executive of the Hong Kong Special Administrative Region, serving from 1 July 1997 to 12 March 2005.
2 He later served as Vice-Chairman of the Chinese People’s Political Consultative Conference National Committee from 2005 to 2023.
3 Under the Sino-British Joint Declaration of 1984 and the HKSAR Basic Law, the "One Country, Two Systems" arrangement is valid for 50 years from the handover, i.e., until 2047.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
FACT: Tung Chee-hwa was inaugural Chief Executive of the HKSAR from 1 July 1997 (the handover from Britain to the People’s Republic of China) to 12 March 2005, when he resigned citing health. He was subsequently Vice-Chairman of the CPPCC National Committee from 2005 to 2023.
The “One Country, Two Systems” framework under the Sino-British Joint Declaration of 1984 and the HKSAR Basic Law is valid for 50 years from the handover, i.e., until 2047. ANALYSIS: All three statements are correct.
The “One Country, Two Systems” framework under the Sino-British Joint Declaration of 1984 and the HKSAR Basic Law is valid for 50 years from the handover, i.e., until 2047. ANALYSIS: All three statements are correct.
📝 Concept Note
Tung Chee-hwa was born on 29 May 1937 in Shanghai and ran the family shipping house Orient Overseas International Limited before politics; the firm was sold to Cosco Shipping Holdings in 2018. His tenure was shaped by the 1997 Asian financial crisis, the 2003 SARS outbreak and mass protests against the Article 23 national security bill in 2003.
Widely-cited assessments describe “One Country, Two Systems” as functionally attenuated after the National Security Law for Hong Kong of 2020.
Widely-cited assessments describe “One Country, Two Systems” as functionally attenuated after the National Security Law for Hong Kong of 2020.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international relations, comparative constitutional design); GS1 (world history, decolonisation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** One Country Two Systems, HKSAR Basic Law, Sino-British Joint Declaration, Article 23, National Security Law 2020. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing the Sino-British Joint Declaration (1984) with the actual handover (1 July 1997); the Declaration is the preparatory treaty, the Basic Law is the SAR’s mini-constitution. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** "One Country, Two Systems" applies until 2047 (50 years from handover); Macau’s parallel Basic Law is valid until 2049 (50 years from 20 December 1999). ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How would you compare Hong Kong’s attenuated autonomy trajectory with Macau’s, and what do both cases signal about post-handover autonomy timelines? |
Question 9 of 15
With reference to Dronathon-2026 announced by the Indian Air Force for the Pokhran range from 14 to 16 September 2026, which one of the following is correct?
FACT: Dronathon-2026 is a three-day IAF-hosted capability-demonstration exercise for indigenous UAS and CUAS at the Pokhran range in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan, from 14 to 16 September 2026, with focus areas of surveillance and reconnaissance, autonomous operations, swarm drone technology and electronic warfare. Participants include Indian defence industry, start-ups and iDEX-style innovators.
ANALYSIS: Options (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect; Dronathon-2026 is an IAF industry-user convergence event, not a joint exercise, and Pokhran is used by all three services for test-range purposes.
ANALYSIS: Options (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect; Dronathon-2026 is an IAF industry-user convergence event, not a joint exercise, and Pokhran is used by all three services for test-range purposes.
📝 Concept Note
Pokhran was the site of Pokhran-I on 18 May 1974 (Smiling Buddha) and Pokhran-II on 11 and 13 May 1998 (Operation Shakti, five tests). Drones and counter-drones have become the pivot technology of contemporary warfare, drawing lessons from Ukraine (2022 onwards), Nagorno-Karabakh (2020) and India’s Operation Sindoor (2025).
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (defence technology, industrial policy); GS2 (public procurement innovation). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** UAS, CUAS, swarm drones, electronic warfare, iDEX, industry-user convergence. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating Dronathon as a formal RFP process; it is a demonstration exercise that lets the IAF pick winners without a formal procurement timeline. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Pokhran-I (18 May 1974) is Smiling Buddha; Pokhran-II (11 and 13 May 1998) is Operation Shakti; 11 May is now National Technology Day. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Are drones better classified as consumables or as capital platforms for procurement purposes, given their loss rates in modern combat? |
Question 10 of 15
Buellia maharajensis, a new species described in September 2026, is:
FACT: Buellia maharajensis is a saxicolous (rock-dwelling) crustose lichen of the family Caliciaceae, described from Mathikettan Shola National Park (Idukki district, Kerala, notified 21 November 2003, area 12.82 sq km) at approximately 1,351 metres, by a team from Maharaja’s College Ernakulam, Kerala Forest Research Institute and CSIR-National Botanical Research Institute, Lucknow. The species was named to mark the 150th anniversary of Maharaja’s College and was described in the journal Taiwania.
ANALYSIS: The broader lichen survey of the park has documented ~250 species, including 60 new to Kerala and 15 new records for India.
ANALYSIS: The broader lichen survey of the park has documented ~250 species, including 60 new to Kerala and 15 new records for India.
📝 Concept Note
Lichens are symbiotic partnerships of a fungus and an alga (or cyanobacterium), used as bioindicators of air quality (especially sulphur dioxide), nitrogen deposition and climate change. Mathikettan Shola is part of the shola-grassland biome of the Western Ghats, one of eight “hottest hotspots” of biodiversity in the world (Myers 2000).
It lies close to Eravikulam NP and Pampadum Shola NP in the Idukki-Munnar cluster.
It lies close to Eravikulam NP and Pampadum Shola NP in the Idukki-Munnar cluster.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (biodiversity, Western Ghats, taxonomic capacity). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** saxicolous crustose lichen, shola-grassland biome, biodiversity hotspot, bioindicator. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating a lichen as a plant; it is a symbiotic partnership of a fungus (mycobiont) and an alga or cyanobacterium (photobiont). ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Mathikettan Shola was notified on 21 November 2003; it is 12.82 sq km, part of the Idukki-Munnar cluster with Eravikulam and Pampadum Shola. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Why are lichens described as bioindicators, and what does a rich lichen flora in a national park tell you about the air-quality regime? |
Question 11 of 15
With reference to India’s contingent for the 20th Asian Games at Aichi-Nagoya, Japan, which one of the following is correct?
FACT: The 20th Asian Games are hosted by Aichi and Nagoya, Japan, from 19 September to 4 October 2026. India is sending 503 athletes, 269 men and 234 women, across 36 disciplines, with over 300 making their Asian Games debut; with 246 support staff and 19 officials the travelling party numbers 768.
Union Minister for Youth Affairs and Sports Dr Mansukh Mandaviya, IOA President Dr P.T. Usha, Secretary (Sports) Hari Ranjan Rao and Chef-de-Mission Sahdev Yadav unveiled the team jersey at the New Delhi send-off on 8 September 2026. ANALYSIS: Options (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect; the 19th (2023) Games were at Hangzhou, and India’s best-ever tally there was 107 medals.
Union Minister for Youth Affairs and Sports Dr Mansukh Mandaviya, IOA President Dr P.T. Usha, Secretary (Sports) Hari Ranjan Rao and Chef-de-Mission Sahdev Yadav unveiled the team jersey at the New Delhi send-off on 8 September 2026. ANALYSIS: Options (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect; the 19th (2023) Games were at Hangzhou, and India’s best-ever tally there was 107 medals.
📝 Concept Note
India’s pathway to the Aichi-Nagoya campaign runs through the TOPS (Target Olympic Podium Scheme) support programme, the Khelo India Games and reformed NADA processes. The IOA operates under IOC recognition and Sports Ministry oversight, with recent governance reforms following IOC direction.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (sports governance, IOA structure); GS1 (society, sports culture as soft power). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** TOPS, Khelo India, Asian Games, soft power, sports diplomacy. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing Hangzhou 2023 (19th Asiad, 107 medals) with Aichi-Nagoya 2026 (20th Asiad, current); different editions and different tallies. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** The 19th Asiad at Hangzhou ran 23 September to 8 October 2023; the 20th at Aichi-Nagoya runs 19 September to 4 October 2026. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does a 107-medal tally at Hangzhou 2023 signal a durable pipeline, or is it a peak dependent on host-country venue advantages? |
Question 12 of 15
The International Day to Protect Education from Attack, observed on 9 September each year:
FACT: The UN International Day to Protect Education from Attack was proclaimed by a UN General Assembly resolution on 28 May 2020 at the proposal of Qatar, and has been observed on 9 September each year since 2020. The 2026 theme is “Can Education Survive Attack? The Resilience of Human Communities.” UNESCO is opening an installation, “The Crossing,” at its Paris headquarters from 9 to 14 September 2026.
ANALYSIS: The Global Coalition to Protect Education from Attack publishes the biennial “Education Under Attack” report but is not itself the proclaiming body.
ANALYSIS: The Global Coalition to Protect Education from Attack publishes the biennial “Education Under Attack” report but is not itself the proclaiming body.
📝 Concept Note
The GCPEA’s biennial reports have documented over 11,000 attacks on education globally in the past decade, affecting schools, students and educators in conflict zones from Ukraine to Sudan to Palestine to Myanmar to Afghanistan. The observance aligns with SDG 4 (Quality Education for All).
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS2 (international organisations, education administration); GS1 (society, conflict impacts). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** GCPEA, Safe Schools Declaration, SDG 4, conflict-affected education. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Attributing the proclamation to UNESCO or WHO; it is a UN General Assembly proclamation from 28 May 2020. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** The Safe Schools Declaration (2015) is an intergovernmental commitment on protecting schools during armed conflict. India has NOT endorsed it; 123 states had done so as of February 2026. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What lessons does the GCPEA’s "Education Under Attack" report offer for India’s conflict-affected regions? |
Question 13 of 15
With reference to India’s deep-sea exploration rights and the Deep Ocean Mission, consider the following statements.
1 India was the first country to be granted "pioneer investor" status by the United Nations, in 1987, and holds an exclusive area of 75,000 sq km in the Central Indian Ocean Basin for polymetallic nodules.
2 The International Seabed Authority is headquartered at Kingston, Jamaica, and regulates mineral activity in the international seabed area under UNCLOS.
3 The Deep Ocean Mission was approved by the Union Cabinet in June 2021 with an initial outlay of about Rs 4,077 crore.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 India was the first country to be granted "pioneer investor" status by the United Nations, in 1987, and holds an exclusive area of 75,000 sq km in the Central Indian Ocean Basin for polymetallic nodules.
2 The International Seabed Authority is headquartered at Kingston, Jamaica, and regulates mineral activity in the international seabed area under UNCLOS.
3 The Deep Ocean Mission was approved by the Union Cabinet in June 2021 with an initial outlay of about Rs 4,077 crore.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
FACT: India was the first country granted pioneer investor status, in 1987, and was allotted an exclusive exploration area in the Central Indian Ocean Basin, half of which was relinquished, leaving 75,000 sq km for polymetallic nodules; the contract has been extended by the International Seabed Authority. The ISA, headquartered at Kingston, Jamaica, is the UNCLOS body that organises and controls mineral-related activity in the Area, the seabed beyond national jurisdiction.
The Deep Ocean Mission was approved by the Union Cabinet in June 2021 with an initial outlay of about Rs 4,077 crore over five years. ANALYSIS: All three statements are correct.
The Deep Ocean Mission was approved by the Union Cabinet in June 2021 with an initial outlay of about Rs 4,077 crore over five years. ANALYSIS: All three statements are correct.
📝 Concept Note
The Central Indian Ocean Basin nodule field is estimated at about 380 million tonnes of resource, carrying manganese, nickel, copper and cobalt. India also holds a polymetallic sulphides exploration contract on the Central Indian Ridge and South West Indian Ridge, signed in 2016.
Matsya-6000, the manned submersible targeting a 6,000-metre dive, sits under Vertical 1 of the Deep Ocean Mission; ORV Sagar Manthan serves the mission’s survey and exploration objective.
Matsya-6000, the manned submersible targeting a 6,000-metre dive, sits under Vertical 1 of the Deep Ocean Mission; ORV Sagar Manthan serves the mission’s survey and exploration objective.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (Blue Economy, critical minerals, marine resources); GS2 (treaty bodies, UNCLOS). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** pioneer investor, the Area, polymetallic nodules, polymetallic sulphides, UNCLOS Part XI, ISA exploration contract. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Treating the ISA as a UN specialised agency; it is an autonomous body established by UNCLOS and the 1994 Implementing Agreement. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Nodules lie on abyssal plains, sulphides at hydrothermal vents on mid-ocean ridges, cobalt-rich crusts on seamounts; three deposit types, three geological settings. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India press for a deep-sea mining moratorium on precautionary grounds, or secure its contracts first, given its critical-minerals import dependence? |
Question 14 of 15
With reference to the foundation and legal status of Aligarh Muslim University, which one of the following is correct?
FACT: The Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental (MAO) College at Aligarh was founded by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan in 1875. It was incorporated as Aligarh Muslim University by the Aligarh Muslim University Act, 1920 (Act XL of 1920), which is dated 14 September 1920 and came into force on 1 December 1920.
The Supreme Court’s 2024 Constitution Bench in AMU v. Naresh Agarwal reconsidered the university’s minority-institution status under Article 30, revisiting the older Azeez Basha judgment of 1967 that had held AMU was not a minority institution. ANALYSIS: Options (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect.
The Supreme Court’s 2024 Constitution Bench in AMU v. Naresh Agarwal reconsidered the university’s minority-institution status under Article 30, revisiting the older Azeez Basha judgment of 1967 that had held AMU was not a minority institution. ANALYSIS: Options (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect.
📝 Concept Note
Article 30(1) of the Constitution provides that all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. The 2024 judgment held that AMU’s establishment by a statute does not by itself defeat its minority character, and remanded questions of establishment and administration to a regular Bench.
Sir Syed Ahmad Khan (1817-1898) was also a Judge, a reformer, and the author of Asbab-e-Baghawat-e-Hind (Causes of the Indian Revolt).
Sir Syed Ahmad Khan (1817-1898) was also a Judge, a reformer, and the author of Asbab-e-Baghawat-e-Hind (Causes of the Indian Revolt).
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS1 (modern Indian history, education); GS2 (fundamental rights, Article 30, minority institutions). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** minority educational institution, Article 30, Azeez Basha, MAO College. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Placing AMU’s foundation in 1875 (that was MAO College); the university itself dates to the 1920 Act, in force from 1 December 1920. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Article 30 governs minority educational institutions; St Stephen’s College (Delhi), St Xavier’s College (Mumbai) and Jamia Millia Islamia have all been the subject of minority-status jurisprudence. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** How does the 2024 AMU judgment shift the doctrinal test for minority-institution status of statutorily-established universities? |
Question 15 of 15
Dr Verghese Kurien, whose death anniversary falls on 9 September, is best associated with which of the following?
FACT: Dr Verghese Kurien (1921-2012), the “Father of the White Revolution”, is associated with Operation Flood, the world’s largest dairy development programme, and the Amul cooperative’s three-tier Anand Pattern (village cooperatives, district unions, state federation). He founded the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) in 1965, headquartered at Anand, Gujarat.
Under his leadership India became the world’s largest producer of milk by 1998. He received the Padma Shri (1965), Padma Bhushan (1966), Padma Vibhushan (1999), Ramon Magsaysay Award (1963) and World Food Prize (1989).
ANALYSIS: The Green Revolution is associated with Dr M.S. Swaminathan; the Blue Revolution with fisheries; the Yellow Revolution with edible oilseeds.
Under his leadership India became the world’s largest producer of milk by 1998. He received the Padma Shri (1965), Padma Bhushan (1966), Padma Vibhushan (1999), Ramon Magsaysay Award (1963) and World Food Prize (1989).
ANALYSIS: The Green Revolution is associated with Dr M.S. Swaminathan; the Blue Revolution with fisheries; the Yellow Revolution with edible oilseeds.
📝 Concept Note
Kurien passed away on 9 September 2012, aged 90. Amul (Anand Milk Union Limited) was founded in 1946 in response to the exploitative Polson Dairy monopoly in Kaira district, Gujarat, with Tribhuvandas Patel as the founding chairman and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and Morarji Desai as political sponsors.
Kurien joined Amul in 1949 and led it from 1950.
Kurien joined Amul in 1949 and led it from 1950.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | ** GS3 (agriculture, cooperative sector, food security); GS1 (post-Independence history). ** |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ** Operation Flood, Anand Pattern, cooperative dairying, NDDB. ** |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | ** Confusing the Green Revolution (Swaminathan) with the White Revolution (Kurien); or attributing the Blue Revolution to Kurien. ** |
| 📌 Exam Tip | ** Amul was founded in 1946; NDDB in 1965; Operation Flood ran in three phases from 1970 to 1996. ** |
| 🎤 Interview | ** What made the Anand Pattern replicable in dairying, and why has it struggled to scale in other rural sectors? |
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