Daily Current Affairs Quiz
Daily Quiz -- May 15, 2026
Daily Practice
Test Your Knowledge
15 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
15 MCQs
Explanations
Statistics
Timed
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Question 1 of 15
With reference to India’s Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR), consider the following statements:
1 India currently operates three underground rock-cavern SPR facilities at Visakhapatnam, Mangaluru, and Padur.
2 India is a full member of the International Energy Agency (IEA) and is therefore obligated to maintain 90 days of net import cover in strategic reserves.
3 Under the ISPRL-ADNOC MoU signed in May 2026, ADNOC will store crude oil at India’s Chandikhol and Visakhapatnam Phase II facilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 India currently operates three underground rock-cavern SPR facilities at Visakhapatnam, Mangaluru, and Padur.
2 India is a full member of the International Energy Agency (IEA) and is therefore obligated to maintain 90 days of net import cover in strategic reserves.
3 Under the ISPRL-ADNOC MoU signed in May 2026, ADNOC will store crude oil at India’s Chandikhol and Visakhapatnam Phase II facilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: India’s three operational SPR caverns are at Visakhapatnam (1.33 MMT), Mangaluru (1.5 MMT), and Padur (2.5 MMT). Statement 2 is incorrect: India is an IEA Associate Member (since 2017), NOT a full member; the 90-day reserve obligation applies to full IEA members only.
Statement 3 is correct: the May 2026 ISPRL-ADNOC MoU provides for ADNOC crude storage at Chandikhol (Odisha) and Visakhapatnam Phase II – both Phase II expansion sites.
Statement 3 is correct: the May 2026 ISPRL-ADNOC MoU provides for ADNOC crude storage at Chandikhol (Odisha) and Visakhapatnam Phase II – both Phase II expansion sites.
📝 Concept Note
Strategic Petroleum Reserves are a critical energy security mechanism. India’s current three SPR caverns hold approximately 5.33 MMT – about 9-10 days of net import cover.
The Phase II expansion targets Chandikhol (Odisha) and additional capacity at Padur. The ADNOC storage-sharing model was already operational with Saudi Aramco (Padur cavern) and now extends to ADNOC. The stored crude remains ADNOC’s commercial asset in normal times; in an emergency, India retains a portion.
India holds IEA Associate status (since 2017 under PM Modi); full IEA membership requires OECD membership – India is not an OECD member.
The Phase II expansion targets Chandikhol (Odisha) and additional capacity at Padur. The ADNOC storage-sharing model was already operational with Saudi Aramco (Padur cavern) and now extends to ADNOC. The stored crude remains ADNOC’s commercial asset in normal times; in an emergency, India retains a portion.
India holds IEA Associate status (since 2017 under PM Modi); full IEA membership requires OECD membership – India is not an OECD member.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2 (India-UAE CEPA, bilateral relations). |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | confusing IEA Associate and full membership; India is NOT a full IEA member. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | India’s SPR capacity = 5.33 MMT at 3 locations; Phase II = Chandikhol + Padur expansion. |
| 🎤 Interview | "How can India achieve energy security given its heavy oil import dependence?" |
Question 2 of 15
Which of the following correctly describes the theme of India’s 2026 BRICS Chairship?
India’s 2026 BRICS Chairship theme is “Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability” – an acronym that spells “BRICS.” The BRICS Foreign Ministers’ Meeting was hosted at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi on May 14-15, 2026. The BRICS Leaders’ Summit is scheduled for September 12-13, 2026 in New Delhi.
📝 Concept Note
BRICS has expanded from 5 to 10 full members with Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and UAE joining from January 1, 2024. India has chaired BRICS four times: 2012 (New Delhi Summit), 2016 (Goa Summit), 2021 (virtual), and 2026.
The BRICS Leaders’ Summit being held in New Delhi in September 2026 makes it a high-priority diplomatic event. The “BRICS” acronym in India’s 2026 theme is deliberate – B (Building), R (Resilience), I (Innovation), C (Cooperation), S (Sustainability).
The BRICS Leaders’ Summit being held in New Delhi in September 2026 makes it a high-priority diplomatic event. The “BRICS” acronym in India’s 2026 theme is deliberate – B (Building), R (Resilience), I (Innovation), C (Cooperation), S (Sustainability).
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS3 (New Development Bank, de-dollarisation). |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | confusing India’s 2021 BRICS Chair theme with 2026. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | memorise India’s BRICS chairship years -- 2012, 2016, 2021, 2026. |
| 🎤 Interview | "How can India use its 2026 BRICS chairship to advance the Global South agenda while managing tensions with China?" |
Question 3 of 15
The India-Oman Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA), which came into force from June 1, 2026, is significant because:
1. It is the first CEPA signed by India with any country in the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC).
2. It gives India duty-free access covering approximately 98 per cent of Oman’s tariff lines.
3. It raises the intra-corporate transferee ceiling for Indian professionals from 20 per cent to 50 per cent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. It is the first CEPA signed by India with any country in the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC).
2. It gives India duty-free access covering approximately 98 per cent of Oman’s tariff lines.
3. It raises the intra-corporate transferee ceiling for Indian professionals from 20 per cent to 50 per cent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: The India-UAE CEPA (May 1, 2022) was India’s FIRST CEPA with a GCC country; the India-Oman CEPA (June 1, 2026) is the SECOND. Statement 2 is correct: India secures duty-free access on 98.08% of Oman’s tariff lines, covering 99.38% of India’s export value. Statement 3 is correct: The CEPA raises the intra-corporate transferee ceiling from 20% to 50% for Indian professionals in Oman.
📝 Concept Note
India’s FTA landscape: India-ASEAN (2010), India-S.Korea CEPA (2010), India-Japan CEPA (2011), India-Singapore CECA (2005), India-Mauritius CECPA (2021), India-UAE CEPA (May 2022, first GCC), India-Australia ECTA (Dec 2022), India-EFTA TEPA (Oct 2025), India-Oman CEPA (June 2026, second GCC). The bilateral CEPA approach with GCC nations has emerged as India’s strategy while the India-GCC bloc FTA (under negotiation since 2004) remains stalled.
Oman is significant for its position flanking the Strait of Hormuz (Musandam Peninsula) and as a traditional mediator between Iran and Western powers.
Oman is significant for its position flanking the Strait of Hormuz (Musandam Peninsula) and as a traditional mediator between Iran and Western powers.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | calling India-Oman CEPA the "first GCC CEPA" -- India-UAE CEPA (2022) was first. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | India-UAE CEPA = May 1, 2022; India-Oman CEPA = June 1, 2026. |
| 🎤 Interview | "How do bilateral CEPAs with GCC nations serve India’s energy security and diaspora interests?" |
Question 4 of 15
With reference to the Ahmedabad-Dholera Semi High-Speed Rail approved in May 2026,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The project is classified as "semi high-speed" because its operational speed is 200 kmph.
2. The implementing agency is the National High-Speed Rail Corporation (NHSRCL), which also implements the Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train.
3. Dholera Special Investment Region (DSIR) is India’s first greenfield smart city under the Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor (DMIC).
Select the correct answer:
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The project is classified as "semi high-speed" because its operational speed is 200 kmph.
2. The implementing agency is the National High-Speed Rail Corporation (NHSRCL), which also implements the Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train.
3. Dholera Special Investment Region (DSIR) is India’s first greenfield smart city under the Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor (DMIC).
Select the correct answer:
All three statements are correct. Statement 1: The Ahmedabad-Dholera corridor is classified as semi high-speed with an operational speed of 200 kmph (design speed 220 kmph).
Statement 2: NHSRCL is the implementing agency for both this project and the Mumbai-Ahmedabad MAHSR. Statement 3: Dholera SIR is indeed India’s first and largest greenfield smart city under the DMIC framework, notified under the Gujarat SIR Act, 2009.
Statement 2: NHSRCL is the implementing agency for both this project and the Mumbai-Ahmedabad MAHSR. Statement 3: Dholera SIR is indeed India’s first and largest greenfield smart city under the DMIC framework, notified under the Gujarat SIR Act, 2009.
📝 Concept Note
The Rs 20,667 crore project will be India’s first purpose-built semi high-speed rail infrastructure. Unlike Vande Bharat (which runs on conventional track upgraded for 160 kmph), the Dholera line will use ballastless track designed for 200 kmph.
NHSRCL was set up in 2016 with 50% GoI, 25% Gujarat, 25% Maharashtra shareholding. Dholera SIR (920 sq km, twice Mumbai’s island city) houses the Tata Electronics semiconductor fab (under ISM).
Lothal – Harappan port city – lies within the Dholera boundary, adding heritage tourism significance.
NHSRCL was set up in 2016 with 50% GoI, 25% Gujarat, 25% Maharashtra shareholding. Dholera SIR (920 sq km, twice Mumbai’s island city) houses the Tata Electronics semiconductor fab (under ISM).
Lothal – Harappan port city – lies within the Dholera boundary, adding heritage tourism significance.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | assuming Vande Bharat already operates at 200 kmph -- Vande Bharat’s maximum is 160 kmph. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | semi high-speed = 160-220 kmph; high-speed (bullet train) = 300+ kmph. |
| 🎤 Interview | "How does transport connectivity determine the success of greenfield industrial nodes like Dholera?" |
Question 5 of 15
Consider the following about Puducherry’s constitutional status:
1. Article 239A (inserted by the 14th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962) permits Parliament to create a legislature and council of ministers for Puducherry.
2. The Puducherry Legislative Assembly has 33 members -- 30 elected and 3 nominated by the Centre.
3. The Lt. Governor of Puducherry has the same discretionary powers as the Governor of a State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Article 239A (inserted by the 14th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962) permits Parliament to create a legislature and council of ministers for Puducherry.
2. The Puducherry Legislative Assembly has 33 members -- 30 elected and 3 nominated by the Centre.
3. The Lt. Governor of Puducherry has the same discretionary powers as the Governor of a State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: Article 239A (14th CA, 1962) enables Parliament to create a legislature and CoM for Puducherry. Statement 2 is correct: The Assembly has 33 members (30 elected + 3 nominated); majority mark is 16 on elected seats.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Lt. Governor of a UT like Puducherry has WIDER powers than a State Governor – the LG can act on their own judgment in specified matters and can reserve Bills for the President, unlike State Governors who generally must act on CoM advice under Article 163.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Lt. Governor of a UT like Puducherry has WIDER powers than a State Governor – the LG can act on their own judgment in specified matters and can reserve Bills for the President, unlike State Governors who generally must act on CoM advice under Article 163.
📝 Concept Note
The three UTs with legislature are Puducherry (Article 239A), Delhi/NCT (Article 239AA – 69th CA 1991), and J&K (Article 239AA – 104th CA 2019, post bifurcation). The Lt. Governor in Puducherry occupies a more powerful position vis-a-vis the elected government than a Governor does in a state.
Puducherry’s four non-contiguous communes (Puducherry in TN, Karaikal in TN, Mahe in Kerala, Yanam in AP) are a unique geographical feature. N. Rangasamy’s fifth term makes him one of the longest-serving CMs in Indian political history for a UT.
Puducherry’s four non-contiguous communes (Puducherry in TN, Karaikal in TN, Mahe in Kerala, Yanam in AP) are a unique geographical feature. N. Rangasamy’s fifth term makes him one of the longest-serving CMs in Indian political history for a UT.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | thinking LG has same powers as a Governor -- LG of UT with legislature has MORE discretionary power. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | 14th CA (1962) for Puducherry; 69th CA (1991) for Delhi; 104th CA (2019) for J&K. |
| 🎤 Interview | "The Lt. Governor vs elected government conflicts in UTs with legislature -- what do they reveal about Indian federalism?" |
Question 6 of 15
With reference to the Reserve Bank of India’s revised framework on outward remittances issued in May 2026, which of the following is correct?
Option C is correct. RBI removed the prior approval requirement for tie-up arrangements between AD Category-I banks and non-bank entities.
However, the AD banks remain fully responsible for FEMA compliance, KYC, AML/CFT, cybersecurity, and consumer protection. Option A is wrong – non-banks still need to partner with AD-I banks.
Option B is wrong – AD banks retain full compliance liability. Option D is wrong – the LRS limit remains USD 250,000; it was not changed by this framework.
However, the AD banks remain fully responsible for FEMA compliance, KYC, AML/CFT, cybersecurity, and consumer protection. Option A is wrong – non-banks still need to partner with AD-I banks.
Option B is wrong – AD banks retain full compliance liability. Option D is wrong – the LRS limit remains USD 250,000; it was not changed by this framework.
📝 Concept Note
FEMA 1999 replaced FERA 1973. Under FEMA, current account transactions (including LRS remittances for education, travel, medical, gifts) are permissible within limits.
The LRS limit has been USD 250,000 per individual per financial year since 2015. The May 2026 reform removes the prior-approval barrier for commercial tie-ups between regulated AD banks and fintech platforms – making it faster for new remittance apps to enter the market while keeping the regulated bank as the responsible entity.
The LRS limit has been USD 250,000 per individual per financial year since 2015. The May 2026 reform removes the prior-approval barrier for commercial tie-ups between regulated AD banks and fintech platforms – making it faster for new remittance apps to enter the market while keeping the regulated bank as the responsible entity.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | thinking non-banks can directly conduct forex transactions -- they cannot; only AD-category entities can. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | FEMA 1999 = civil law (vs FERA 1973 = criminal law); LRS cap = USD 250,000/year. |
| 🎤 Interview | "How should RBI balance financial innovation in fintech with forex regulation and AML concerns?" |
Question 7 of 15
ASML, headquartered in Eindhoven, Netherlands, is strategically important for India’s semiconductor mission because it is the world’s only manufacturer of which critical equipment?
ASML is the world’s only manufacturer of EUV (Extreme Ultraviolet) lithography machines, which use 13.5 nm wavelength light to print transistor patterns on chips at process nodes below 7 nm (5 nm, 3 nm, 2 nm). No advanced chip fab (TSMC, Samsung, Intel) can produce leading- edge chips without ASML’s EUV machines.
Option A is wrong – ASML makes chipmaking equipment, not chips. Option C is wrong – silicon wafers are made by Shin-Etsu, Sumco (Japan).
Option D is wrong – ARM Holdings (UK) leads in chip design IP.
Option A is wrong – ASML makes chipmaking equipment, not chips. Option C is wrong – silicon wafers are made by Shin-Etsu, Sumco (Japan).
Option D is wrong – ARM Holdings (UK) leads in chip design IP.
📝 Concept Note
PM Modi’s visit to the Netherlands (May 15-17, 2026) has a strong semiconductor diplomacy dimension. The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM), launched February 2024 with Rs 76,000 crore outlay, aims to build domestic fab capacity.
India’s initial fabs (Tata-PSMC, CG Power-Renesas) will use older process nodes (28-40 nm) that use DUV (Deep Ultraviolet) machines – also made by ASML. EUV machines cost USD 150-200 million each and require Dutch government export clearance. Access to ASML’s technology represents a geoeconomic leverage point for India in its semiconductor ambitions.
India’s initial fabs (Tata-PSMC, CG Power-Renesas) will use older process nodes (28-40 nm) that use DUV (Deep Ultraviolet) machines – also made by ASML. EUV machines cost USD 150-200 million each and require Dutch government export clearance. Access to ASML’s technology represents a geoeconomic leverage point for India in its semiconductor ambitions.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | thinking ASML makes chips -- it makes the machines that make chips. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | EUV = Extreme Ultraviolet = ASML monopoly = sub-7 nm chips; India Semiconductor Mission = Rs 76,000 crore = MeitY. |
| 🎤 Interview | "Can India build a competitive semiconductor industry without access to cutting-edge EUV lithography?" |
Question 8 of 15
With reference to the International Day of Families (May 15),
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It was established by UN General Assembly Resolution 47/237 and first observed in 1994.
2. The 2026 theme is "Families, Inequalities and Child Wellbeing." 3. India’s NFHS-5 (2019-21) recorded the country’s Total Fertility Rate at 2.0, which is below the replacement level of 2.1.
Select the correct answer:
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It was established by UN General Assembly Resolution 47/237 and first observed in 1994.
2. The 2026 theme is "Families, Inequalities and Child Wellbeing." 3. India’s NFHS-5 (2019-21) recorded the country’s Total Fertility Rate at 2.0, which is below the replacement level of 2.1.
Select the correct answer:
All three statements are correct. Statement 1: International Day of Families was established by UNGA Resolution 47/237 (February 1993) and first observed on May 15, 1994.
Statement 2: The 2026 theme is “Families, Inequalities and Child Wellbeing.” Statement 3: NFHS-5 (2019-21) recorded India’s TFR at 2.0, below the replacement level of 2.1 – the first time India’s national TFR has fallen to or below replacement level.
Statement 2: The 2026 theme is “Families, Inequalities and Child Wellbeing.” Statement 3: NFHS-5 (2019-21) recorded India’s TFR at 2.0, below the replacement level of 2.1 – the first time India’s national TFR has fallen to or below replacement level.
📝 Concept Note
India’s declining TFR (from 3.4 in NFHS-1 to 2.0 in NFHS-5) represents a major demographic transition. However, 5 large states (UP, Bihar, Jharkhand, Meghalaya, Manipur) still have TFR above 2.1, while most southern and western states are well below.
The NFHS-5 child malnutrition data presents a paradox: despite low fertility, India has high stunting (35.5%) and anaemia in under-5s (67.1%). Poshan Abhiyaan (launched March 8, 2018) targets reduction in stunting, wasting, anaemia and low birth weight.
NIPUN Bharat (July 2021) targets foundational literacy by Grade 3.
The NFHS-5 child malnutrition data presents a paradox: despite low fertility, India has high stunting (35.5%) and anaemia in under-5s (67.1%). Poshan Abhiyaan (launched March 8, 2018) targets reduction in stunting, wasting, anaemia and low birth weight.
NIPUN Bharat (July 2021) targets foundational literacy by Grade 3.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | confusing TFR with birth rate; TFR is the average children per woman over her lifetime. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | India’s TFR = 2.0 (NFHS-5); replacement level = 2.1; SDG 3 links health outcomes to family wellbeing. |
| 🎤 Interview | "India has achieved below-replacement TFR but child malnutrition remains high -- how do you explain this paradox?" |
Question 9 of 15
N. Rangasamy’s All India N.R. Congress (AINRC) was founded in which year, after he split from which parent party?
N. Rangasamy founded the All India N.R. Congress (AINRC) in 2011 after splitting from the Indian National Congress. AINRC stands for “All India N.R. Congress” – the initials NR stand for N. Rangasamy.
The party formed an alliance with the BJP for the 2021 and 2026 Puducherry elections. His first two terms (2001-06, 2006-08) were under the Congress banner before he founded his own party.
The party formed an alliance with the BJP for the 2021 and 2026 Puducherry elections. His first two terms (2001-06, 2006-08) were under the Congress banner before he founded his own party.
📝 Concept Note
Puducherry politics is shaped by its unique status as a UT with legislature under Article 239A (14th CA, 1962). The Congress-DMK alliance has historically been strong in Puducherry, while the AINRC-BJP alliance has been competitive since 2016.
Rangasamy’s fifth term as CM (2026) makes him the longest-serving Puducherry CM. The UT’s four non-contiguous communes across TN, Kerala, and AP make it administratively unusual. French is still an official language alongside Tamil, Telugu, Malayalam, and English.
Rangasamy’s fifth term as CM (2026) makes him the longest-serving Puducherry CM. The UT’s four non-contiguous communes across TN, Kerala, and AP make it administratively unusual. French is still an official language alongside Tamil, Telugu, Malayalam, and English.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | conflating AINRC with similarly named Tamil Nadu parties. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | Article 239A (14th CA 1962) = Puducherry legislature; AINRC founded 2011 by Rangasamy. |
| 🎤 Interview | "What are the constitutional challenges of governing a non-contiguous Union Territory with legislature like Puducherry?" |
Question 10 of 15
Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS),
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. LRS allows resident individuals to remit up to USD 250,000 per financial year for permissible current and capital account transactions.
2. LRS applies to companies and corporate bodies in addition to individuals.
3. Tax Collected at Source (TCS) at 20 per cent applies to LRS remittances above Rs 7 lakh per year for purposes other than education and medical treatment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. LRS allows resident individuals to remit up to USD 250,000 per financial year for permissible current and capital account transactions.
2. LRS applies to companies and corporate bodies in addition to individuals.
3. Tax Collected at Source (TCS) at 20 per cent applies to LRS remittances above Rs 7 lakh per year for purposes other than education and medical treatment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: LRS allows resident individuals to remit up to USD 250,000 per financial year. Statement 2 is incorrect: LRS applies ONLY to resident INDIVIDUALS – not to companies, corporates, or partnership firms.
Companies have separate channels under ODI rules. Statement 3 is correct: Budget 2023 introduced TCS at 20% on LRS remittances above Rs 7 lakh per year for non-education, non-medical purposes (effective October 1, 2023).
Companies have separate channels under ODI rules. Statement 3 is correct: Budget 2023 introduced TCS at 20% on LRS remittances above Rs 7 lakh per year for non-education, non-medical purposes (effective October 1, 2023).
📝 Concept Note
LRS was introduced by RBI in 2004 to allow individual residents to freely remit funds abroad for permissible purposes. The USD 250,000 annual limit has been stable since 2015.
LRS cannot be used for remittances to countries under FATF’s high-risk list. The May 2026 RBI reform removes prior approval for non-bank fintech platforms to partner with AD-I banks for LRS remittances.
Companies use different FEMA provisions (ODI – Overseas Direct Investment rules) for foreign remittances.
LRS cannot be used for remittances to countries under FATF’s high-risk list. The May 2026 RBI reform removes prior approval for non-bank fintech platforms to partner with AD-I banks for LRS remittances.
Companies use different FEMA provisions (ODI – Overseas Direct Investment rules) for foreign remittances.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | thinking LRS applies to companies -- it applies ONLY to resident individuals. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | LRS = resident individuals only; USD 250,000/year; TCS 20% on non-edu/medical LRS above Rs 7 lakh. |
| 🎤 Interview | "Should the LRS limit be revised upward in the context of India’s growing outbound education and investment needs?" |
Question 11 of 15
The New Development Bank (NDB), often called the "BRICS Bank," was established by an agreement at which BRICS Summit?
The New Development Bank was established by the Agreement on the New Development Bank signed at the 6th BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, Brazil, in July 2014 – often called the “Treaty of Fortaleza.” The NDB became operational in 2016. The Ufa Summit (2015) established a separate BRICS financial mechanism – the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA).
The NDB’s first president was K.V. Kamath (India). Its current president is Dilma Rousseff (Brazil, since 2023).
HQ is in Shanghai.
The NDB’s first president was K.V. Kamath (India). Its current president is Dilma Rousseff (Brazil, since 2023).
HQ is in Shanghai.
📝 Concept Note
The NDB has USD 100 billion authorised capital; each founding BRICS member (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) subscribed USD 10 billion. Since 2021, new members have joined: Bangladesh, UAE, Uruguay, Egypt.
India is the NDB’s largest borrower (metro rail, water, renewables). BRICS also has the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) – a USD 100 billion liquidity support pool, separate from NDB. BRICS FM Meeting (May 14-15, 2026) discussed expanding NDB membership and capitalisation.
India is the NDB’s largest borrower (metro rail, water, renewables). BRICS also has the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) – a USD 100 billion liquidity support pool, separate from NDB. BRICS FM Meeting (May 14-15, 2026) discussed expanding NDB membership and capitalisation.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | confusing NDB (development bank) with CRA (liquidity facility) -- they are different BRICS financial mechanisms. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | NDB = 6th BRICS Summit, Fortaleza, 2014; CRA = 7th BRICS Summit, Ufa, 2015; NDB HQ = Shanghai; first president = K.V. Kamath (India). |
| 🎤 Interview | "How has the New Development Bank evolved from being a political statement into a functional multilateral lender?" |
Question 12 of 15
Which of the following constitutional provision is the primary basis for the Centre’s authority to mandate NEET-UG as a single national entrance test, overriding State-level medical admission processes?
The Centre’s authority to mandate NEET and override State-level medical admission processes rests primarily on Entry 66 of the Union List (Seventh Schedule, Article 246) – “Coordination and determination of standards in institutions for higher education or research and scientific and technical institutions.” While Entry 25 of the Concurrent List covers “education” generally, Entry 66 (Union List) is the specific head the Supreme Court and Parliament have relied on to uphold the NEET regime.
📝 Concept Note
The NEET-UG debate between Centre and States (especially Tamil Nadu, which has sought exemption) turns on this constitutional conflict. Tamil Nadu passed a Bill to exempt the State from NEET; the President withheld assent.
NEET is mandated under Section 14 of the National Medical Commission (NMC) Act, 2019 (which replaced the IMC Act 1956). The Supreme Court in Christian Medical College, Vellore (2020) upheld NEET as valid under Articles 14, 19, and 21.
NEET-UG 2026 (cancelled May 12 due to paper leak) affects ~23 lakh candidates – world’s largest single medical exam.
NEET is mandated under Section 14 of the National Medical Commission (NMC) Act, 2019 (which replaced the IMC Act 1956). The Supreme Court in Christian Medical College, Vellore (2020) upheld NEET as valid under Articles 14, 19, and 21.
NEET-UG 2026 (cancelled May 12 due to paper leak) affects ~23 lakh candidates – world’s largest single medical exam.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | using Entry 25 (Concurrent List/education) as the basis for NEET validity -- the stronger basis is Entry 66 (Union List/standards in higher education). |
| 📌 Exam Tip | Union List = 97 entries; Concurrent List = 52 entries; State List = 61 entries. |
| 🎤 Interview | "The tension between State autonomy in education and Centre’s coordination role is epitomised by the NEET debate -- how should India resolve it?" |
Question 13 of 15
India became an Associate Member of the International Energy Agency (IEA) in which year?
India became an IEA Associate Member in 2017 under PM Narendra Modi. India is not a full IEA member because full membership requires OECD membership, and India is not a member of the OECD. As an Associate Member, India participates in IEA meetings and energy data sharing but is not obligated to hold 90 days of oil import cover as full members are.
The ISPRL-ADNOC deal (May 2026) is part of India’s effort to increase its strategic reserves toward IEA-recommended levels.
The ISPRL-ADNOC deal (May 2026) is part of India’s effort to increase its strategic reserves toward IEA-recommended levels.
📝 Concept Note
IEA was founded in 1974 (after the 1973 Arab Oil Embargo) under the OECD framework. Full IEA members must hold emergency oil stocks equivalent to 90 days of net imports; India’s current SPR is about 9-10 days of cover – far below this threshold.
India participates in IEA’s energy data programmes and clean energy transitions work. Other IEA Associate Members include China (2015), Indonesia (2015), Thailand (2015), Brazil (2016), Morocco (2016).
IEA HQ: Paris.
India participates in IEA’s energy data programmes and clean energy transitions work. Other IEA Associate Members include China (2015), Indonesia (2015), Thailand (2015), Brazil (2016), Morocco (2016).
IEA HQ: Paris.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | calling India an IEA "Observer" -- India is an "Associate Member" (a different status). |
| 📌 Exam Tip | India = IEA Associate (2017); NOT full member; 90-day reserve obligation = full members only. |
| 🎤 Interview | "Should India seek full IEA membership as part of its energy security strategy?" |
Question 14 of 15
With reference to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971 as amended in 2021, which of the following is correct?
Under the MTP (Amendment) Act, 2021: up to 20 weeks, one medical practitioner’s opinion is sufficient. Between 20-24 weeks, two medical practitioners’ opinions are needed, and only for specified vulnerable categories (rape survivors, minors, differently abled women, contraceptive failure).
Beyond 24 weeks, a State-level Medical Board must grant clearance (for substantial foetal abnormality). The 2021 amendment extended the limit for vulnerable categories from 20 to 24 weeks – it did not remove the limit.
The Supreme Court has repeatedly overridden Medical Boards on case-by-case petitions.
Beyond 24 weeks, a State-level Medical Board must grant clearance (for substantial foetal abnormality). The 2021 amendment extended the limit for vulnerable categories from 20 to 24 weeks – it did not remove the limit.
The Supreme Court has repeatedly overridden Medical Boards on case-by-case petitions.
📝 Concept Note
The MTP Act, 1971 was a progressive law for its time. The 2021 amendment was a major reform expanding access for rape survivors and minors from 20 to 24 weeks.
However, civil society and legal scholars argue that the Medical Board gateway for beyond-24-week cases disproportionately burdens poor women and those without court access. The Supreme Court’s progressive interpretation of Article 21 (Suchita Srivastava 2009; X v. Union of India 2023) has extended reproductive autonomy as a fundamental right – but the statutory framework has not caught up.
However, civil society and legal scholars argue that the Medical Board gateway for beyond-24-week cases disproportionately burdens poor women and those without court access. The Supreme Court’s progressive interpretation of Article 21 (Suchita Srivastava 2009; X v. Union of India 2023) has extended reproductive autonomy as a fundamental right – but the statutory framework has not caught up.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | thinking the 2021 amendment removed all gestational limits -- it extended the limit to 24 weeks for vulnerable categories; beyond 24 weeks = Medical Board. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | MTP Act 1971; MTP Amendment 2021; up to 20w = 1 RMP; 20-24w = 2 RMPs (vulnerable); beyond 24w = Medical Board. |
| 🎤 Interview | "Should Parliament align the MTP Act with Supreme Court jurisprudence on Article 21 reproductive autonomy?" |
Question 15 of 15
Wayanad’s community "climate calendar," highlighted in Down to Earth, represents a model for climate-adaptive agriculture because it:
The Wayanad climate calendar’s distinctive feature is the integration of Traditional Ecological Knowledge (TEK) from Adivasi communities (Paniya, Kurichiyan – flowering plants, bird calls as seasonal indicators) with scientific IMD sub-district forecasts, local rain gauge data, and delivery through Gram Panchayat-Kudumbashree networks. Option A is wrong – TEK is central, not removed.
Option C is wrong – it is a community initiative, not an ICAR/NICRA programme. Option D is wrong – moon-phase planting is one input, not the exclusive basis.
Option C is wrong – it is a community initiative, not an ICAR/NICRA programme. Option D is wrong – moon-phase planting is one input, not the exclusive basis.
📝 Concept Note
Wayanad faced catastrophic landslides in July 2024 (200+ deaths) driven by record rainfall – illustrating the high climate stakes for this highland district. The calendar is distributed monthly in Malayalam through Kudumbashree networks.
Kerala’s institutional advantage (73rd Amendment devolution, People’s Planning Campaign since 1996, ATMA extension network) enables this model. TEK is protected under Convention on Biological Diversity Article 8(j) and the Nagoya Protocol.
The editorial raises the question of whether this model can be scaled via NMSA, NICRA, or ATMA in other climate-vulnerable states.
Kerala’s institutional advantage (73rd Amendment devolution, People’s Planning Campaign since 1996, ATMA extension network) enables this model. TEK is protected under Convention on Biological Diversity Article 8(j) and the Nagoya Protocol.
The editorial raises the question of whether this model can be scaled via NMSA, NICRA, or ATMA in other climate-vulnerable states.
🎯 Concept Kit — tap to expand
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | confusing TEK with superstition -- TEK is empirically validated local ecological knowledge, protected under international law (CBD). |
| 📌 Exam Tip | Wayanad = Western Ghats highland; Kudumbashree = Kerala women’s SHG; 73rd Amendment = local governance empowerment. |
| 🎤 Interview | "How can India systematically integrate Traditional Ecological Knowledge into national climate adaptation programmes?" |
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