UPSC Prelims Practice
Current Affairs Quiz 8 April 2026
Test Your Knowledge
25 questions based on today’s current affairs & editorials
Choose number of questions
Question 1 of 25
Facts
GeM is administered by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the MSME Ministry (which administers MSME-related schemes). GeM was launched in August 2016 and recorded its highest-ever single-year GMV of ₹5 lakh crore in FY26, with MSEs capturing 68% of orders by volume.
Analysis
This is a standard trap, MSME Ministry is the stakeholder that benefits, but Commerce Ministry is the administering authority.
Concept note
GeM (Government e-Marketplace) was launched in August 2016 as a digital procurement platform replacing the Directorate General of Supplies and Disposals (DGS&D) paper-based system. It operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
The Public Procurement Policy for MSEs, 2012, a separate instrument, mandates that 25% of all Central Government procurement come from MSEs, with a minimum 4% earmarked for SC/ST-owned MSEs. GeM is the platform through which this mandate is operationalised.
As of FY26: 11 lakh+ MSEs registered, cumulative GMV ₹18.4 lakh crore, women-led MSE procurement ₹28,000 crore+ (28% YoY growth), state procurement growth 38.3% YoY. GeM is considered part of India’s Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) alongside UPI, Aadhaar, and ONDC.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2, e-Governance, transparency in procurement, MSME policy; GS3, Digital economy, public procurement reform. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | GeM, GMV, public procurement, MSE mandate, Digital Public Infrastructure. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Attributing GeM to the MSME Ministry, the MSME Ministry is a primary beneficiary, but the platform is under Ministry of Commerce and Industry. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC 2023 tested GeM; know launch year (2016), administering ministry (Commerce), and the 25% MSE procurement mandate from the 2012 policy. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Can a government e-marketplace genuinely build supply-side capacity for MSEs, or does it merely formalise existing procurement patterns? |
Question 2 of 25
Facts
Article 3 of the Constitution grants Parliament the power to: (a) form a new state by separation of territory, union of states, or uniting parts of states; (b) increase or diminish the area of any state; (c) alter the boundary of any state; and (d) alter the name of any state. Article 2 deals with admission or establishment of new states (territories outside India). Article 4 provides that laws made under Articles 2 and 3 are not constitutional amendments.
Analysis
The AP Reorganisation Amendment Act 2026 designating Amaravati as sole capital flows from Parliament’s powers under this framework.
Concept note
Article 3 requires that any Bill to form or alter a state be introduced in Parliament only on the recommendation of the President, and the President must refer it to the State Legislature for its opinion within a specified time. However, Parliament is NOT bound by the State Legislature’s opinion, it is required to seek the opinion, not to follow it.
This asymmetry reflects Union supremacy in reorganisation matters. The SR Bommai case (1994) clarified limits on use of Article 356 but did not dilute Article 3 powers.
States in India are not “indestructible”, unlike in the US, Indian states can be reorganised, bifurcated, or merged by simple parliamentary majority plus Presidential assent. The AP Reorganisation Act, 2014 was enacted under Article 3 to bifurcate AP into residuary AP and Telangana.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2, Indian federalism, Centre-State relations, state reorganisation; GS1, Linguistic reorganisation, States Reorganisation Act 1956. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | Article 3, state reorganisation, asymmetric federalism, Union supremacy, SR Bommai. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Confusing Article 2 (admission of new states from outside India, e.g., hypothetically, a foreign territory) with Article 3 (reorganisation of existing Indian territory). |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC 2015 tested Article 3; know that Parliament’s power to reorganise states is not a constitutional amendment, it is a simple majority bill, not requiring Special Majority (Article 368). |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does Parliament’s unconstrained power to reorganise states undermine federal principles, or is it necessary for national unity? |
Question 3 of 25
1 Annex I of MARPOL deals specifically with the prevention of pollution by oil from ships.
2 India ratified MARPOL Annexes I and II in 1983.
3 MARPOL is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Facts
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. MARPOL Annex I deals with prevention of pollution by oil. India ratified Annexes I and II in 1983.
Statement 3Incorrect
MARPOL is administered by the International Maritime Organization (IMO), not UNEP. The IMO is a UN specialised agency headquartered in London.
Analysis
Confusing IMO and UNEP is a common trap, both deal with environmental aspects but IMO is the principal body for international shipping regulation.
Concept note
MARPOL (International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships) was adopted in 1973 under the IMO and modified by the 1978 Protocol, hence formally called MARPOL 73/78. It has six annexes: Annex I (oil), Annex II (noxious liquid substances), Annex III (harmful substances in packaged form), Annex IV (sewage), Annex V (garbage, plastics overboard ban), and Annex VI (air pollution, SOx, NOx limits).
India is a member of the IMO and has ratified most MARPOL annexes. The IMO is headquartered in London.
The Indian Coast Guard and the Directorate General of Shipping (DGS) are the primary enforcement agencies for MARPOL compliance in Indian waters. Tar balls washing ashore are a consequence of violations of MARPOL Annex I (oil pollution) by vessels, often through illegal bilge pumping or tank cleaning at sea.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS3, Marine pollution, international environmental law; GS2, IMO, multilateral conventions, India’s maritime obligations. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | MARPOL, IMO, Annex I, oil pollution, marine pollution, tar balls. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Attributing MARPOL to UNEP instead of IMO, UNEP administers environmental treaties like CBD, Stockholm Convention; IMO is the authority for ship-source pollution. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC has tested international environmental conventions; know that MARPOL is an IMO instrument and Annex I covers oil pollution, the most exam-relevant annex. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is India’s MARPOL enforcement infrastructure along its 7,516 km coastline adequate to hold polluting vessels accountable? |
Question 4 of 25
Match List I (UAS Operational Category in the Indian Army’s UAS Technology Roadmap) with List II (Primary Function):
| List I (Category) | List II (Function) |
|---|---|
| A. Loitering Munitions | 1. Unmanned cargo delivery to forward operational posts |
| B. MALE-class UAS | 2. Operational surveillance at medium altitude (5,000–15,000 m) |
| C. Counter-UAS (C-UAS) | 3. Kamikaze precision strike on ground targets |
| D. Logistics UAS | 4. Electromagnetic jamming and interception of adversary drones |
Facts
A → 3
The correct matches are (Loitering Munitions = kamikaze precision strike), B-2 (MALE = Medium Altitude Long Endurance surveillance at 5,000–15,000 m), C-4 (Counter-UAS = jamming/interception of adversary drones), D-1 (Logistics UAS = cargo delivery).
Analysis
Loitering munitions are distinctly different from strike drones, they loiter over target areas before diving to impact; confusing them with surveillance drones is a common error.
Concept note
The Indian Army’s 50-page UAS Technology Roadmap (April 2026) covers five operational categories and 30 UAS types (approximately 80 variants). Key UAS classes: HALE (High Altitude Long Endurance, >15,000 m, >24 hours endurance) for strategic ISR; MALE (5,000–15,000 m, 12–24 hours) for operational surveillance; Mini/Micro (<500 m, <2 hours) for platoon-level; FPV (First-Person View, very low altitude) for precision urban strike; and Swarm Drones for saturation attack.
MUM-T (Manned-Unmanned Teaming) is also featured, where piloted aircraft and UAS coordinate for extended reach. India’s inducted loitering munitions include Nagastra-1 (Solar Industries).
The MQ-9B Predator HALE drone from the USA is under a ₹32,000 crore deal. DRDO’s Archer loitering munition is under development.
PLI for drones = ₹120 crore incentive scheme.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS3, Defence technology, security doctrine, Aatmanirbhar Bharat; GS2, Defence procurement policy. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | UAS, loitering munitions, HALE, MALE, MUM-T, FPV drones, swarm warfare. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Confusing loitering munitions (kamikaze strike) with surveillance UAVs, loitering munitions are one-way strike weapons that spend time loitering before impact; pure surveillance UAVs return to base. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC 2022 tested defence technology; know Nagastra-1 (Solar Industries, first Indian loitering munition) and that PLI for drones is ₹120 crore. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does India’s focus on indigenous loitering munitions reflect a real strategic need, or is it driven more by the geopolitics of defence exports? |
Question 5 of 25
Facts
The 106th Constitutional Amendment reserves one-third of seats for women in the Lok Sabha, all State Legislative Assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of NCT of Delhi, not Rajya Sabha (upper house of Parliament), State Legislative Councils (Vidhan Parishads), Panchayats, or Municipalities. Panchayats and Municipalities already have separate reservation provisions under the 73rd and 74th Amendments (minimum one-third). Rajya Sabha seats are not directly elected.
Analysis
The exclusion of Rajya Sabha and upper houses is a structural limit of this Amendment.
Concept note
The Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act, 2023, notified on September 28, 2023, inserted: Article 330A (reservation in Lok Sabha, one-third of all seats including the SC/ST reserved seats); Article 332A (reservation in State Legislative Assemblies, including NCT Delhi). The reservation will come into force only after the first delimitation exercise following the next Census (Census 2021, delayed to 2025, results expected 2026-27 and delimitation in 2028-29).
The reservation is for 15 years initially. Parliament has the power to extend it.
Within the reserved seats, one-third must go to SC/ST women (where SC/ST reservation exists). The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam was passed unanimously by both Houses of Parliament in the Special Session of September 2023.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2, Constitutional Amendments, gender representation, electoral law; GS1, Women in Indian politics. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | 106th Amendment, Articles 330A and 332A, Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, delimitation trigger, gender representation. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Assuming Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishads are also covered, they are NOT. The amendment applies only to directly elected lower houses. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC may test this Amendment; know the two trigger conditions: (1) delimitation after Census, (2) 15-year initial validity. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** The reservation is contingent on delimitation, which could significantly alter representation across states. Does this create a perverse incentive to delay Census? |
Question 6 of 25
Facts
MARPOL Annex III deals with “Prevention of Pollution by Harmful Substances Carried by Sea in Packaged Form”, NOT sewage. Sewage is covered under MARPOL Annex IV (“Prevention of Pollution by Sewage from Ships”). Options A, B, and C are all correctly matched.
Analysis
The MARPOL annex numbering is a standard Prelims target, Annex III = packaged harmful substances; Annex IV = sewage is the most commonly confused pair.
Concept note
MARPOL 73/78 has six Annexes: I = Oil (most important; mandatory for all parties); II = Noxious Liquid Substances (NLS) in Bulk; III = Harmful Substances in Packaged Form (includes labelling and packaging standards); IV = Sewage from Ships (discharge restrictions near shore); V = Garbage (plastics overboard ban, all parties must comply; Annex V is mandatory); VI = Air Pollution (SOx cap, NOx tiers, designation of Emission Control Areas). The Indian Ocean has not been designated as an Emission Control Area (ECA).
The MARPOL Oil Record Book (Annex I) is a key accountability mechanism, ships must log all oil transfers and discharges. If traced for tar ball source, the Oil Record Book is used as evidence.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS3, Marine pollution, MARPOL, environmental law; GS2, IMO, maritime governance. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | MARPOL Annex I, Annex IV (sewage), Annex V (garbage), Annex VI (air), IMO, oil pollution. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Attributing sewage to Annex III instead of Annex IV. The sequence: I=Oil, II=NLS, III=Packaged Harmful Substances, IV=Sewage, V=Garbage, VI=Air Pollution. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC has tested MARPOL; use the mnemonic O-N-P-S-G-A (Oil, NLS, Packaged, Sewage, Garbage, Air) for Annexes I–VI. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is the voluntary nature of some MARPOL protocols adequate to prevent chronic ship-source oil pollution near developing country coastlines? |
Question 7 of 25
Facts
India’s wind energy target is 140 GW by 2030, forming part of the larger 500 GW non-fossil fuel electricity target (Panchamrit commitments at COP26 Glasgow, 2021). As of April 2026, India has crossed 56 GW of installed wind capacity after adding a record 6.05 GW in FY26. The pace needs to accelerate significantly, from 6 GW/year to approximately 12 GW/year, to reach 140 GW by 2030.
Analysis
The gap between current pace and required pace underscores the urgency of offshore wind and repowering initiatives.
Concept note
The Panchamrit (five elements of India’s climate commitment at COP26, Glasgow 2021) comprises: (1) 500 GW non-fossil electricity capacity by 2030; (2) 50% of electricity from non-fossil sources by 2030; (3) Reduce cumulative carbon emissions by 1 billion tonnes by 2030; (4) Reduce emissions intensity of GDP by 45% (from 2005 level) by 2030; (5) Net-zero by 2070. These were incorporated into India’s Updated NDC submitted to UNFCCC in August 2022.
Wind targets within the 500 GW: Solar 280 GW, Wind 140 GW, Other (hydro, small hydro, bio) ~80 GW. India added a record 6.05 GW of wind in FY26 (previous record 5.5 GW in FY17).
Total wind capacity crossed 56 GW. India is the 4th largest wind nation globally (after China, USA, Germany).
MNRE is the nodal ministry for wind energy.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS3, Renewable energy, Panchamrit, NDC commitments, energy security; GS2, COP26, UNFCCC, India’s climate diplomacy. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | Panchamrit, 500 GW, 140 GW wind target, NDC, MNRE, COP26. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Stating the total RE target is 450 GW, India updated this to 500 GW at Glasgow COP26 from the earlier 450 GW NDC target. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC 2022 tested Panchamrit; know all five elements and distinguish the 500 GW capacity target from the 50% share target (they are separate commitments). |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Given India’s projected electricity demand growth, can a 50% non-fossil share by 2030 be achieved without significantly expanding nuclear baseload alongside renewables? |
Question 8 of 25
Facts
The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) was established in 1916 and is headquartered in Kolkata. It operates under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change and is responsible for surveying, exploring, and documenting faunal diversity across India. The two new species, Corononema dhriti and Epacanthion indica, are free-living marine nematodes from the Tamil Nadu coast.
Analysis
ZSI 1916, BSI 1890, FSI 1981, founding years of apex survey institutions are standard Prelims targets.
Concept note
The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) was established on July 1, 1916 under the initiative of Lord Carmichael, then Governor of Bengal. It maintains the National Zoological Collections, over 1 million specimens.
ZSI has 16 regional centres across India including Marine Biological Station (Chennai), Desert Regional Station (Jodhpur), and Freshwater Biology Regional Centre (Hyderabad). The Botanical Survey of India (BSI) was established in 1890, Forest Survey of India (FSI) in 1981.
Corononema dhriti is only the 4th known species of its genus globally (others known from Australia, Thailand, Vietnam). Epacanthion indica has specialised mandible-like structures and functions as a microscopic benthic predator.
Both are meiofauna, microscopic organisms (0.1–1 mm) living in marine sediments. Nematodes are among the most abundant and diverse animal groups on Earth.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS3, Biodiversity, ZSI, species discovery, marine ecology; GS2, Ministry of Environment (MoEFCC), statutory survey bodies. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ZSI, marine nematodes, meiofauna, benthic biodiversity, Kolkata, MoEFCC. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Confusing ZSI (Zoological Survey, 1916) with BSI (Botanical Survey, 1890), both are under MoEFCC but established in different years and cover different domains. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC frequently asks about survey institutions; know ZSI (1916, Kolkata), BSI (1890, Kolkata), GSI (Geological Survey of India, 1851). |
| 🎤 Interview | ** India’s meiofauna and marine invertebrate taxonomy remain systematically under-resourced. What would a credible national marine biodiversity programme look like? |
Question 9 of 25
The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam does not extend women’s reservation to the Rajya Sabha or to State Legislative Councils.
The 106th Amendment inserted Articles 330A and 332A, which apply exclusively to the House of the People (Lok Sabha), State Legislative Assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of the NCT of Delhi, all directly elected bodies.
Select the correct answer:
Facts
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. The 106th Amendment inserted Article 330A (for Lok Sabha) and Article 332A (for State Legislative Assemblies including NCT Delhi’s). Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishads are excluded because they are not directly elected bodies, Rajya Sabha members are elected by State Assemblies; Vidhan Parishad members through various indirect methods. The constitutional logic is that mandatory quotas in directly elected houses are more compatible with the principle of popular representation.
Analysis
The Reason precisely explains why Rajya Sabha is excluded.
Concept note
India currently has 24 women in the Rajya Sabha (out of 245 seats = ~10%) and 82 women in the Lok Sabha (out of 543 = ~15%), both significantly below the global average of ~27% for national legislatures (IPU, 2025). The 106th Amendment, passed unanimously in the Special Parliament Session of September 18-22, 2023, will take effect only after (1) the first Census following the Act (Census 2021, delayed to 2025) and (2) the subsequent delimitation exercise, estimated at 2028-29.
The reservation applies to one-third of total seats including existing SC/ST reserved seats. One-third of SC/ST reserved seats must go to women.
The 15-year sunset clause allows Parliament to extend it through subsequent legislation. States that already have higher women’s representation (e.g., Bihar assembly after 2020) will still apply the new constitutional mandate.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2 — 106th Amendment, gender representation, Article 330A and 332A; GS1, Women in Indian polity. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | Articles 330A, 332A, Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, delimitation, Census 2021, Rajya Sabha exclusion. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Thinking Rajya Sabha is included, it is explicitly excluded because it is not a directly elected body. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC may test the two Articles inserted, 330A and 332A, and the two trigger conditions (Census + delimitation). |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is it paradoxical that the amendment promoting gender equity in elected bodies was itself passed without guaranteed timelines for implementation? |
Question 10 of 25
Facts
Satyashodhak Samaj (Society of Seekers of Truth), founded on September 24, 1873, was explicitly an anti-caste social reform organisation. Its primary aim was to challenge Brahminical monopoly over religious interpretation and social legitimacy, empower Shudras and Ati-Shudras (lower and untouchable castes), and promote rational thinking over religious authority.
Analysis
Phule’s intellectual project was constitutionally significant, B.R. Ambedkar acknowledged Phule as one of his three gurus (alongside Kabir and the Buddha).
Concept note
Jyotirao (Jotiba) Phule (1827–1890) was a Maharashtrian social reformer and thinker of the Mali (Shudra) caste. His major contributions: opened first school for girls in Pune (1848, with wife Savitribai Phule); established the Satyashodhak Samaj (1873); wrote Gulamgiri (1873, comparing Brahminical domination to American slavery); published Shetkaryacha Asud (Cultivator’s Whipcord) on peasant exploitation.
The Satyashodhak Samaj rejected Brahmin priests, promoted inter-caste social events, and emphasised direct access to God without priestly intermediaries. Phule was posthumously awarded the Mahatma title.
His work is considered a precursor to Ambedkar’s constitutional project, Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability) and the social justice framework in Part III reflect Phule’s intellectual legacy. April 8, 2026 editorials (Indian Express) explored how Phule’s thought is a “constitutional project.”
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS1, Social reform movements, 19th century Maharashtra, anti-caste movements; GS4, Ethics in public administration, social justice. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | Satyashodhak Samaj, Jyotirao Phule, anti-caste, Gulamgiri, Savitribai Phule, Article 17. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Attributing Satyashodhak Samaj to Dayananda Saraswati or to the Brahmo Samaj tradition, Phule’s Samaj was explicitly anti-Brahminical, unlike Brahmo/Arya Samaj which were reformist but within upper-caste intellectual traditions. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC 2019 tested Phule; know Satyashodhak Samaj (1873), Gulamgiri (1873), and his role as founding principal of the first girls' school (1848). |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Phule argued that caste was a form of property arrangement as much as a religious system. Does this economic framing still offer insight into caste persistence? |
Question 11 of 25
Facts
The “One Health” approach, formally adopted by WHO, FAO, UNEP, and WOAH (World Organisation for Animal Health) under the “One Health Joint Plan of Action,” recognises that human health, animal health, and environmental health are interconnected and must be governed together. India’s National One Health Mission establishes this three-domain integration at the national level.
Analysis
COVID-19, H5N1 avian influenza, and Nipah virus all emerged at the human-animal-environment interface, validating the One Health framework.
Concept note
The One Health concept was formally operationalised at the international level through the “One Health Joint Plan of Action (OH JPA)” published in 2022 by WHO, FAO, UNEP, and WOAH, the “Quadripartite.” The 2025 WHO Pandemic Agreement reinforces One Health principles, mandating stronger zoonotic disease surveillance. India’s National One Health Mission (announced in Union Budget 2023-24) aims to: (1) build One Health labs in states; (2) integrate human and veterinary disease surveillance; (3) create an early warning system for zoonotic outbreaks.
Zoonotic diseases, diseases that jump from animals to humans, include COVID-19, Nipah, Ebola, SARS, H5N1, Rabies, Brucellosis. India has documented Nipah outbreaks in Kerala (2018, 2023).
Approximately 60% of all known human infectious diseases are zoonotic. World Health Day 2026 (April 7) theme: "Together for Health.
Stand with Science."
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2, International health organisations, WHO, pandemic preparedness; GS3, Biotechnology, zoonotic diseases, environment-health linkage. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | One Health, WHO Pandemic Agreement, zoonotic diseases, WOAH, FAO, National One Health Mission. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Defining One Health as only about animal-human disease transmission, it also includes environmental health (antibiotic resistance, ecosystem degradation) as the third pillar. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC 2022 tested zoonotic diseases; know that One Health integrates three domains: human, animal, environmental. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** India’s veterinary and environmental health infrastructure is weaker than human health. Can the National One Health Mission genuinely integrate these without adequate resources at the state level? |
Question 12 of 25
1 The High Court of Andhra Pradesh has been functioning from Amaravati since 2019.
2 The AP Reorganisation Act, 2014 was enacted by Parliament under Article 3 of the Constitution.
3 The Andhra Pradesh High Court upheld the YSRCP government’s three-capital Decentralisation Act as constitutionally valid in 2022.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Facts
Statements 1 and 2 are correct;
Statement 3Incorrect
The Andhra Pradesh High Court struck DOWN the YSRCP government’s Decentralisation and Inclusive Development of All Regions Act in March 2022, holding it to be unconstitutional. The AP HC has been functioning from Amaravati since 2019. The AP Reorganisation Act 2014 was indeed enacted under Parliament’s power under Article 3.
Analysis
Statement 3 is a common trap, the AP HC struck down the three-capital plan, not upheld it.
Concept note
The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 bifurcated the combined state of AP on June 2, 2014, creating Telangana as the 29th state. Section 5 of this Act addressed capital arrangements, designating Hyderabad as joint capital for a maximum of 10 years.
The AP High Court was set up in Amaravati in 2019 after operating initially from Hyderabad. The YSRCP government (2019-24) passed the AP Decentralisation and Inclusive Development of All Regions Act (2020) to create three capitals.
The AP HC declared this Act unconstitutional in March 2022, noting that the Act violated land pooling commitments and due process. The Supreme Court stayed the AP HC order in April 2022 (before the YSRCP could enforce the three-capital plan effectively).
Following TDP’s return to power (June 2024), Parliament passed the AP Reorganisation (Amendment) Act, 2026 formally notifying Amaravati as the sole capital.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2, State reorganisation, Article 3, federalism, judicial review; GS1, State formation in India. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | AP Reorganisation Act 2014, three-capital controversy, AP HC, Article 3, Amaravati, CRDA. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Stating the AP HC upheld the three-capital law, it struck it down as unconstitutional in March 2022. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC may test state capital controversies; know that the AP bifurcation was under Article 3, and the 10-year joint capital period for Hyderabad expired on June 2, 2024. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does capital decentralisation offer genuine development dividends, or does it merely redistribute political patronage across regions? |
Question 13 of 25
Which of the following statements about the ZSI’s discovery of new marine nematode species is INCORRECT?
Facts
Statement C is INCORRECT. Corononema dhriti is the FOURTH (4th) known species of its genus globally, not the second. The other three known Corononema species have been described from Australia, Thailand, and Vietnam.
Statements A, B, and D are all correct, it was named after Dr Dhriti Banerjee (ZSI Director); both species are from Tamil Nadu’s benthic (seafloor) marine environment; Epacanthion indica (named for India) is a predatory nematode.
Analysis
The “4th species globally” detail is the specific verifiable fact that tests careful reading.
Concept note
Marine nematodes (roundworms of the Phylum Nematoda) are one of the most abundant multicellular organisms on Earth, with approximately 4,400 marine species described globally, but scientists estimate hundreds of thousands remain undescribed. Meiofauna (size range 0.1–1 mm) inhabit marine benthic sediments at densities of thousands per 10 cm².
They are: (1) critical for nutrient cycling (remineralising organic matter); (2) bioindicators of sediment health and pollution; (3) important in marine food webs as prey for benthic fish and invertebrates. India’s documented marine biodiversity covers approximately 30,000 species, but systematic surveys of meiofauna along India’s 7,516 km coast remain incomplete.
The genus Corononema has now 4 known species worldwide: from Australia, Thailand, Vietnam, and India. ZSI’s Marine Biological Station in Chennai is the primary centre for such marine invertebrate taxonomy work.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS3, Marine biodiversity, species taxonomy, ZSI, Nagoya Protocol; GS3, Ecosystem services, benthic ecology. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ZSI, meiofauna, nematodes, benthic ecosystem, Tamil Nadu coast, marine biodiversity. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Saying Corononema dhriti is a new genus entirely, it is a new species (the 4th) within an existing genus. The distinction between genus and species is critical in taxonomy. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC regularly tests new species discoveries; for this pair, memorise: ZSI, Tamil Nadu coast, 2 species, Corononema dhriti (ZSI Director), Epacanthion indica (named after India). |
| 🎤 Interview | ** With thousands of undescribed marine species off India’s coast, should India invest significantly more in deep taxonomy and systematic marine surveys? |
Question 14 of 25
Match List I (Constitutional Provision or Legislation) with List II (Primary Content):
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| B. 84th Constitutional Amendment (2001) | 2. Froze delimitation of parliamentary and state assembly constituencies on 1971 Census figures |
| C. 106th Constitutional Amendment (2023) | 3. Bifurcated Andhra Pradesh and created Telangana as the 29th state |
| D. AP Reorganisation Act, 2014 | 4. Gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions across India |
Facts
A → 4
(73rd Amendment 1992 = constitutional status to PRIs, 11th Schedule, Gram Sabha, reservations); B-2 (84th Amendment 2001 = froze delimitation on 1971 Census figures until the first census after 2026); C-1 (106th Amendment 2023 = women’s one-third reservation in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies); D-3 (AP Reorganisation Act 2014 = bifurcated AP, created Telangana).
All other combinations are wrong.
Analysis
The 84th and 106th Amendments are closely linked, the 84th froze delimitation, and the 106th Amendment’s women’s reservation depends on the delimitation that follows the next Census.
Concept note
Key constitutional amendments in India’s governance history: 42nd Amendment (1976, “Mini Constitution,” expanded Union powers); 44th Amendment (1978, restored fundamental rights diluted by Emergency); 52nd Amendment (1985, anti-defection law, 10th Schedule); 61st Amendment (1988, voting age 18 from 21); 73rd Amendment (1992, Panchayati Raj); 74th Amendment (1992, Municipalities); 84th Amendment (2001, freeze delimitation on 1971 Census); 86th Amendment (2002, Article 21A, Right to Education); 91st Amendment (2003, coalition government defection law); 101st Amendment (2016, GST, Article 246A, 279A); 102nd Amendment (2018, NCBC constitutional status); 103rd Amendment (2019, EWS 10% reservation); 105th Amendment (2021, states’ power to identify OBCs); 106th Amendment (2023, women’s reservation 330A, 332A).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2, Constitutional Amendments, electoral reforms, Panchayati Raj; GS1, Indian politics, federalism. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | 73rd Amendment, 84th Amendment, 106th Amendment, delimitation, Article 82, Panchayati Raj. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Placing the 73rd Amendment as granting "reservation to women in Panchayats" specifically, it mandated reservation of not less than one-third seats for women in PRIs, but the primary subject was constitutional status to PRIs as a whole. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC frequently tests amendment numbers and their content; know the 101st (GST), 103rd (EWS), 105th (OBC), 106th (Women) amendments as recent exam-relevant amendments. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** With the 84th Amendment freeze expiring with the next delimitation, how should India balance the competing interests of population-based representation and federal equity? |
Question 15 of 25
Facts
Section 5 of the AP Reorganisation Act, 2014 designated Hyderabad as the joint capital of both Andhra Pradesh and Telangana for a maximum of 10 years from the date of bifurcation (June 2, 2014). This 10-year period expired on June 2, 2024, the same date the TDP-NDA government assumed power in AP. After this period, Hyderabad becomes the exclusive capital of Telangana.
Analysis
The expiry of the 10-year joint capital period coincided with the change of government, giving political momentum to the Amaravati capital notification.
Concept note
The bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh on June 2, 2014 created Telangana as the 29th state (subsequently, Telangana became the 29th and Andhra Pradesh was the residuary state; with later additions Telangana is no longer the most recent state, Jammu & Kashmir was bifurcated in 2019 and J&K/Ladakh were redesignated UTs). The 10-year joint capital arrangement meant both states shared Hyderabad’s infrastructure (Secretariat, Assembly, High Court, civil services) for administrative continuity.
The residuary state AP was required to develop its own capital, hence the Amaravati project. The land pooling from 29 villages under the Land Pooling Scheme involved farmers giving up ~35,000 acres of fertile agricultural land in exchange for developed plots in the new capital city.
As of 2026, approximately ₹7,000 crore has been spent on Amaravati infrastructure.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2, State reorganisation, cooperative federalism, AP Reorganisation Act; GS1, Regional aspirations, linguistic states. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | AP Reorganisation Act 2014, Section 5, joint capital, 10 years, Amaravati, Hyderabad, TDP-YSRCP capital dispute. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Saying the joint capital arrangement was permanent or for 5 years, it was explicitly capped at 10 years from June 2, 2014 under Section 5. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC may test AP bifurcation specifics; the 10-year joint capital provision, June 2, 2014 date, and Section 5 are key factual anchors. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should Parliament have included clearer capital development timelines in the AP Reorganisation Act, 2014, rather than leaving it ambiguous? |
Question 16 of 25
Facts
I2U2 = India, Israel, UAE, and USA. The grouping was formed in October 2021 and held its first leaders’ summit in July 2022 (virtually). It focuses on joint investments in six areas: water, energy, transportation, space, health, and food security.
India leveraged this in its West Asia diplomacy during the Iran-Israel-UAE tensions in 2025-26.
Analysis
All four distractors are plausible because they use I, I, U, U country initials, only Option B has the correct four countries.
Concept note
I2U2 (India, Israel, UAE, USA) was formalised during US Secretary of State Anthony Blinken’s visit to Israel in October 2021. The first leaders’ summit took place in July 2022 with PM Modi, PM Lapid (Israel), PM Sheikh Mohammed (UAE), and President Biden (USA), held virtually.
Key I2U2 projects: $2 billion food security corridor (integrated agri parks in India, funded by UAE); clean energy projects in India (solar, wind, nuclear); connectivity projects linking Gulf and Mediterranean. India’s “Bombay school” foreign policy toward Arab Gulf states, pragmatic, commerce- and diaspora-driven engagement, contrasts with traditional Non-Aligned Movement ideology.
India has approximately 9 million diaspora in the UAE and Gulf countries, remitting $45+ billion annually. In April 2026, India’s support for Arab Gulf states against Iranian strikes was described by analysts as a revival of this Bombay school of pragmatic Gulf engagement.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2, India’s foreign policy, West Asia, multilateral groupings; GS3, Energy security, food supply chains. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | I2U2, India-Israel-UAE-USA, West Asia policy, Bombay school, Abraham Accords, diaspora diplomacy. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Confusing I2U2 with QUAD (India, USA, Japan, Australia), the latter is Indo-Pacific security focused; I2U2 is West Asia and infrastructure focused. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC 2023 tested multilateral groupings; know I2U2 (India, Israel, UAE, USA), QUAD (India, USA, Japan, Australia), AUKUS (USA, UK, Australia), SCO (India, Pakistan, China, Russia + Central Asia). |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is India’s I2U2 partnership with Israel compatible with its traditional support for Palestinian statehood, or does India now effectively separate its political and economic West Asia policies? |
Question 17 of 25
1 The 106th Constitutional Amendment inserted Article 330A providing for one-third reservation of seats for women in the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
2 The reservation under the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam will come into force only after the delimitation exercise following the next Census.
3 The 106th Amendment also provides for reservation of women in Rajya Sabha and in State Legislative Councils.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Facts
Statements 1 and 2 are correct;
Statement 3Incorrect
Article 330A (for Lok Sabha) and Article 332A (for State Assemblies) were inserted. Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Councils are NOT covered, the Amendment applies only to directly elected legislative bodies. The implementation is contingent on the delimitation following the first Census conducted after the Act’s commencement.
Analysis
Statement 3 is a standard distractor, Rajya Sabha is the most obvious “missing” house.
Concept note
The 106th Amendment was passed during the Special Parliament Session of September 18-22, 2023. Both Houses passed it unanimously, a historic political consensus.
However, the implementation timeline is opaque: the next Census (Census 2021, delayed to 2025) must first be conducted, then its data used for delimitation. Delimitation typically takes 2-3 years after Census data is available.
So realistic implementation is estimated at 2029-30 (post-2028 general elections). Within the reserved seats: one-third of SC-reserved seats must go to SC women; one-third of ST-reserved seats must go to ST women.
After every delimitation, the rotation of reserved seats will occur, so reserved seats won’t permanently fix in one constituency. As of 2026, 82 women are in the Lok Sabha (15%), and the first direct impact of this amendment would be at the General Elections of approximately 2034 (if 2028 delimitation is completed by then).
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2 — 106th Amendment, Articles 330A and 332A, gender representation; GS1, Women in Indian polity, political participation. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | Articles 330A, 332A, Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, delimitation trigger, Rajya Sabha exclusion, Census 2021. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Stating Rajya Sabha is included, it is explicitly NOT in the amendment. Also, do not confuse the 73rd/74th Amendment women’s reservation in PRIs/ULBs with this 106th Amendment. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | Know the two trigger conditions (Census + delimitation), the two articles inserted (330A and 332A), and the 15-year initial validity. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should the women’s reservation implementation be accelerated by decoupling it from delimitation, or does fair delimitation need to precede any seat reservation? |
Question 18 of 25
Facts
MUM-T stands for Manned-Unmanned Teaming, in which piloted aircraft (helicopters or fighters) and unmanned aerial systems (UAS) operate together to extend ISR reach and precision strike capability. In the US Army, the Apache attack helicopter teams with the MQ-1C Grey Eagle UAV. India’s ALH Dhruv helicopter and future IMRH are candidate platforms for MUM-T.
Analysis
MUM-T multiplies the effectiveness of each manned aircraft by extending its sensor and weapon reach through accompanying drones.
Concept note
MUM-T (Manned-Unmanned Teaming) originated in the US Army’s aviation doctrine. The concept allows a piloted helicopter to control an unmanned system, share sensor feeds in real time, and assign engagement targets without returning to base.
This dramatically extends the operational radius and situational awareness of manned aviation. In Ukraine-Russia conflict, Ukrainian attack helicopters increasingly rely on FPV drones as lead elements, a form of improvised MUM-T. India’s Army UAS Roadmap (April 2026) emphasises indigenous development for all five UAS categories.
Key platforms: Nagastra-1 (loitering munition, Solar Industries), Rustom-2/TAPAS (MALE, DRDO, under trials), MQ-9B Predator HALE (USA, ₹32,000 crore contract), Drishti-10 Starliner (maritime, inducted Navy/Coast Guard). PLI for drones = ₹120 crore. iDEX challenges are the key mechanism for startup engagement in military UAS development.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS3, Military technology, UAS doctrine, defence procurement; GS2, Aatmanirbhar Bharat, defence exports. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | MUM-T, loitering munitions, UAS categories, HALE, MALE, Nagastra-1, iDEX. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Confusing MUM-T with drone swarms, MUM-T requires a piloted aircraft as the command node; swarms are typically autonomous coordinated UAS without a manned lead. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC has tested defence doctrine and technology concepts; know MUM-T (Manned-Unmanned Teaming), HALE vs MALE distinction, and Nagastra-1 as India’s first inducted loitering munition. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** As artificial intelligence enables fully autonomous lethal drones, should India establish a domestic legal framework for the use of autonomous weapons systems? |
Question 19 of 25
India’s 140 GW wind energy target by 2030 is part of a larger Panchamrit commitment to achieve 500 GW of non-fossil fuel electricity capacity, and as of April 2026, installed wind capacity has crossed 56 GW.
India’s Updated Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC), submitted to the UNFCCC in 2022, additionally committed to achieving 50% of cumulative installed electricity capacity from non-fossil fuel resources by 2030, and to reducing emissions intensity of GDP by 45% from 2005 levels.
Select the correct answer:
Facts
Both A and R are factually correct. India’s 140 GW wind target is within the 500 GW Panchamrit goal. The Updated NDC does include the 50% non-fossil share and 45% emissions intensity reduction as separate commitments.
However, R does not explain A, the 50% non-fossil share and 45% intensity reduction are parallel NDC commitments, not the reason for setting the 140 GW wind sub-target specifically.
Analysis
This is a classic case where R is factually correct but logically is not the cause of A, they are sibling commitments, not parent-child.
Concept note
India submitted its first NDC in 2015 (at Paris COP21) and an Updated NDC in August 2022. Original 2015 NDC: 450 GW RE by 2030, 40% non-fossil share by 2030, 33-35% emissions intensity reduction.
Updated 2022 NDC: 500 GW non-fossil capacity by 2030, 50% non-fossil share by 2030, 45% emissions intensity reduction. The 500 GW target breakdown (approximate): Solar 280 GW, Wind 140 GW, Hydro 55 GW, Nuclear 20 GW, Others 5+ GW.
In FY26: India added 6.05 GW of wind (record) and approximately 25 GW of solar. To achieve 500 GW by 2030, India needs to add approximately 50+ GW/year of non-fossil capacity from 2026-30.
ISTS (Inter-State Transmission System) charge waiver till 2032 and Wind RPO (Renewable Purchase Obligation) trajectory for DISCOMs are the two key policy instruments driving wind expansion.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS3, NDC, Panchamrit, renewable energy, climate commitments; GS2, UNFCCC, COP process, India’s climate diplomacy. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | NDC, Panchamrit, 500 GW, 140 GW wind, 50% non-fossil share, Updated NDC 2022, ISTS waiver. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Stating the 2015 NDC target was 500 GW, it was 450 GW; 500 GW is the Updated 2022 NDC commitment. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC 2023 tested NDC; know the key numbers: 500 GW (capacity), 50% (non-fossil share), 45% (emissions intensity reduction), net zero 2070, all from the Updated NDC 2022. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** India’s NDC commitments are capacity-based (500 GW) rather than absolute emission reduction targets. Is this an appropriate approach for a developing country with legitimate growth aspirations? |
Question 20 of 25
Facts
DICGC insures deposits up to ₹5 lakh per depositor per bank, increased from ₹1 lakh to ₹5 lakh in February 2020 (via the DICGC Act Amendment 2021, effective February 4, 2020). The Shirpur Merchants’ Co-operative Bank, Maharashtra, cancelled by RBI on April 6, 2026 for capital inadequacy, has insured deposits of ₹48.95 crore, meaning depositors will receive up to ₹5 lakh each from DICGC.
Analysis
The increase from ₹1 lakh to ₹5 lakh in 2020 is a post-2016 change frequently tested.
Concept note
The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is a wholly owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India, established in 1978 under the DICGC Act, 1961. It provides deposit insurance for: savings accounts, fixed deposits, current accounts, and recurring deposits.
The ₹5 lakh limit covers each depositor in each bank, if you have deposits in two banks, each gets ₹5 lakh coverage. Interbank deposits, government deposits, and state co-operative bank deposits with the State Co-operative Bank are excluded from DICGC cover.
The premium is paid by member banks (currently 12 paise per ₹100 of assessable deposits per annum). India’s per-capita deposit insurance coverage relative to per-capita income is lower than international standards recommended by IADI (International Association of Deposit Insurers).
The 2021 DICGC Act amendment required banks to pay insured amounts to depositors within 90 days of liquidation, an important investor protection mechanism.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS3, Banking regulation, RBI, deposit insurance, co-operative banks; GS2, Financial regulatory bodies, DICGC. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | DICGC, ₹5 lakh deposit cover, RBI subsidiary, co-operative bank regulation, banking stability. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Stating the DICGC limit is still ₹1 lakh, it was revised to ₹5 lakh in February 2020. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC 2019 tested DICGC; know the ₹5 lakh limit (revised 2020), DICGC as RBI subsidiary (established 1978), and that co-operative banks are also covered. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Should India index DICGC deposit insurance coverage to CPI inflation, or is the fixed ₹5 lakh ceiling adequate for most retail depositors? |
Question 21 of 25
1 Drone Rules, 2021 replaced the earlier Unmanned Aircraft System (UAS) Rules, 2021 notified in March 2021.
2 The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for drones has a total outlay of ₹120 crore.
3 Nagastra-1, developed by Solar Industries, is India’s first indigenous loitering munition to be inducted by the Indian Army.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Facts
All three statements are correct. Drone Rules 2021 were notified in August 2021, replacing the UAS Rules 2021 (notified in March 2021, which were considered restrictive). The PLI scheme for drones has an outlay of ₹120 crore and was notified by MoCA/DPIIT.
Nagastra-1 (Solar Industries) was inducted by the Indian Army in 2024 as the first domestic loitering munition.
Analysis
All three are accurate factual statements, this tests careful tracking of recent defence policy milestones.
Concept note
India’s drone policy evolution: (1) DGCA issued interim rules in 2018 (very restrictive); (2) UAS Rules 2021 (March 2021, still restrictive); (3) Drone Rules 2021 (August 2021, liberal framework with “green, yellow, red” airspace zones; no-permission, no-takeoff digital control); (4) Drone (Amendment) Rules 2022 (further simplified). Key initiatives: PLI for Drones (₹120 crore, 3-year period, for manufacturers and component producers); iDEX (Innovation for Defence Excellence) challenges; Drone Shakti programme; Positive Indigenisation List for UAS (import ban, mandatory domestic procurement).
India exported Nagastra-1 loitering munitions to a friendly country in 2025, first such defence export. The MQ-9B Predator HALE drone procurement (₹32,000 crore, 31 drones: 16 Navy, 8 Army, 7 Air Force) was cleared in 2023 from USA under the US Foreign Military Sales (FMS) framework.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS3, Defence technology, drone policy, Aatmanirbhar Bharat; GS2, Regulatory frameworks, DGCA, defence procurement. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | Drone Rules 2021, PLI for drones, Nagastra-1, UAS indigenisation, iDEX, Positive Indigenisation List. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Saying the UAS Rules 2021 (March) were not superseded, the Drone Rules 2021 (August) explicitly replaced them. Also, the MQ-9B Predator is procured from USA, not indigenously developed. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC may test the PLI for drones (₹120 crore outlay), much smaller than PLI for electronics (₹12,195 crore) or semiconductors (₹76,000 crore). |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Is India’s drone export ambition (Nagastra-1) realistic in a market dominated by Israel, Turkey, and China, or does it represent a genuine first-mover advantage in South Asia? |
Question 22 of 25
Facts
The Madurai court awarded the death penalty to 9 police personnel in the Sattankulam (Thoothukudi district, Tamil Nadu) custodial deaths case involving P. Jayaraj and his son J. Beniks (Bennix), who died in police custody in June 2020 after alleged torture. This verdict is exceptionally rare, custodial death cases resulting in capital punishment for police are almost unheard of in India.
Analysis
The verdict is significant precisely because it pierces the near-total institutional impunity that typically protects police personnel in custodial death cases.
Concept note
Jayaraj (59) and his son Beniks (31) were arrested on June 19, 2020 by Tamil Nadu Police for allegedly keeping their mobile phone shop open beyond COVID-19 lockdown hours. They died in judicial custody on June 22-23, 2020, after alleged brutal torture at Sathankulam police station, Thoothukudi district.
Medical evidence and witness testimonies described severe physical injuries. A CBI investigation was ordered; the chargesheet named 12 accused (nine convicted, including the station inspector).
Provisions used: Indian Penal Code Sections 302 (murder), 330 (causing hurt to extort confession), and 34 (common intention). The case triggered national outrage and highlighted chronic custodial violence in India.
National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) data: 2,544 cases of deaths in custody in 2022, of which 1,968 were in judicial custody and 175 in police custody. Conviction rate in custodial death cases remains below 5%.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2, Criminal justice, police accountability, custodial violence; GS4, Ethics in law enforcement. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | Sattankulam, custodial deaths, police accountability, Section 176 CrPC (mandatory magistrate inquiry), NHRC, capital punishment. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Confusing the Sattankulam (2020, Tamil Nadu, police torture) case with other custodial death cases, the specific detail is 9 police personnel awarded death penalty in 2026. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC tests custodial violence periodically; know that Section 176 CrPC mandates a judicial magistrate inquiry for custodial deaths and that NHRC receives custodial death reports. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Does awarding capital punishment to police personnel in a custodial death case create sufficient deterrence, or does systemic police violence require deeper institutional reform? |
Question 23 of 25
Which of the following statements about the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) is INCORRECT?
Facts
Statement D is INCORRECT. GeM was launched in August 2016, not 2014. The Digital India Programme was announced in July 2015 and GeM came two years later, in 2016.
Statements A, B, and C are all factually correct.
Analysis
The launch year (2016) is a specific factual anchor, “2014” is a plausible distractor as it was the year the NDA government took office and launched several major programmes.
Concept note
GeM was launched on August 9, 2016 by Minister of Commerce and Industry Nirmala Sitharaman. It replaced the Directorate General of Supplies and Disposals (DGS&D) as the primary platform for Central Government procurement.
Digital India was announced on July 1, 2015 (with PM Modi and Mark Zuckerberg at its launch). The Public Procurement Policy for MSEs, 2012, notified under the MSME Development Act, 2006, mandates: 25% total from MSEs; 4% from SC/ST-owned MSEs; 358 items reserved for purchase from MSEs only.
GeM’s architecture as a Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) includes: real-time price comparison, reverse auctions for bulk purchases, quality certification system (QCI), and GeM-GST integration for automatic reconciliation. GeM processes both goods procurement and service contracts, it expanded from goods-only in 2017 to include services in 2018.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS2, e-Governance, Digital India, public procurement reform; GS3, MSME sector, digital economy. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | GeM, 2016 launch, Digital India, MSE procurement policy, DGS&D, GMV. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Placing GeM’s launch in 2014 or 2015, it was August 2016. Digital India was 2015 but GeM came in 2016. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC tested GeM in 2023; know launch year (2016), administering ministry (Commerce), and the cumulative GMV milestone (₹18.4 lakh crore in FY26). |
| 🎤 Interview | ** GeM has been transformative for Central Government procurement, but does it meaningfully improve quality assurance and delivery performance compared to the earlier DGS&D system? |
Question 24 of 25
1 India committed to achieving 500 GW of non-fossil fuel electricity capacity by 2030 in its Updated Nationally Determined Contribution submitted to the UNFCCC in 2022.
2 India’s national target for installed wind energy capacity by 2030 is 140 GW.
3 India has committed to achieving net-zero carbon emissions by 2050 under the Paris Agreement.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Facts
Statements 1 and 2 are correct;
Statement 3Incorrect
India’s net-zero target is 2070, NOT 2050. The 2050 net-zero target belongs to the European Union, UK, and many developed nations. India specifically argued at COP26 and in its NDC that as a developing country with massive energy access gaps, it needs until 2070 for net-zero. Statements 1 (500 GW by 2030) and 2 (140 GW wind) are both factually accurate Panchamrit commitments.
Analysis
2050 vs 2070 net-zero is the most common trap in India’s climate commitments.
Concept note
India’s net-zero by 2070 commitment was made by PM Narendra Modi at COP26 Glasgow (November 2021). Key reasons India chose 2070 over 2050: (1) India’s per-capita emissions are approximately 2.9 tonnes CO2e, far below the US (14.7) and EU (7.3); (2) India needs 6-8% GDP growth over decades to eliminate poverty; (3) Historical responsibility: CBDR-RC (Common But Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities) principle.
India’s Updated NDC 2022 has four quantified commitments: 500 GW non-fossil by 2030; 50% non-fossil electricity share by 2030; 45% emissions intensity reduction by 2030; net-zero by 2070. Countries with 2050 net-zero targets: USA, EU-27, UK, Canada, Japan, South Korea.
Countries with 2060 targets: China, Russia. Countries with 2070: India.
India’s record FY26 wind addition of 6.05 GW must accelerate to ~12 GW/year to reach 140 GW by 2030.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS3, Climate change, NDC, Panchamrit, COP26; GS2, UNFCCC, India’s climate diplomacy, CBDR-RC. |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | Panchamrit, 500 GW, net-zero 2070, Updated NDC 2022, CBDR-RC, COP26 Glasgow. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Stating India’s net-zero target is 2050, it is 2070. This is the single most common error in India climate commitment questions. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC 2022 tested net-zero targets; memorise: USA/EU 2050, China 2060, India 2070. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** Given rapid advances in solar and wind cost reduction, should India revisit its 2070 net-zero timeline, or would an earlier commitment impose unfair economic burdens? |
Question 25 of 25
Facts
The Principle of Priority is the foundational rule of the ICZN, establishing that the first valid, published name for a species (the “senior synonym”) takes precedence over all subsequent names for the same taxon. This is why naming new species, like Corononema dhriti and Epacanthion indica, involves meticulous literature review to ensure no previous name exists. The Principle of Typification (each name has a type specimen), Coordination (coordinate taxa share nomenclatural status across ranks), and Homonymy (same name for different taxa creates junior homonyms) are other ICZN principles.
Analysis
Priority gives international scientific nomenclature stability and prevents the chaos of multiple names for the same species.
Concept note
The International Code of Zoological Nomenclature (ICZN) is maintained by the International Commission on Zoological Nomenclature, established in 1895. Key ICZN principles: (1) Principle of Priority, first valid published name wins; (2) Principle of Typification, each species name is attached to a specific type specimen (holotype), deposited in an institution; (3) Principle of Homonymy, a name already used for another animal (homonym) cannot be used again; (4) Principle of Coordination, names at different ranks (species, subspecies) are coordinated.
For plants, the equivalent is the International Code of Nomenclature for algae, fungi, and plants (ICN). The binomial nomenclature system was formalised by Carl Linnaeus in Species Plantarum (1753) and Systema Naturae (1758).
ZSI deposits type specimens of newly described species in the National Zoological Collection, ensuring scientific verifiability. The discovery of Corononema dhriti and Epacanthion indica required the scientists to verify the ICZN priority rule that no prior description of these species existed.
🎯 Concept Kit tap to expand
| 🔗 Cross-Paper Links | GS3, Biodiversity, species discovery, scientific nomenclature, ZSI; GS3, Environmental law (Biological Diversity Act, ABS). |
| ✍️ Mains Keywords | ICZN, Principle of Priority, binomial nomenclature, Linnaeus, type specimen, ZSI, holotype. |
| ⚠️ Common Mistake | Confusing "Principle of Priority" (ICZN rule for animals) with IPR/patent priority (which is a completely different legal concept), in taxonomy, priority is about first-published scientific names, not intellectual property. |
| 📌 Exam Tip | UPSC has tested Linnaeus and binomial nomenclature; know that ICZN governs animals, ICN governs plants, and the Principle of Priority is the core rule of both. |
| 🎤 Interview | ** In an era of molecular phylogenetics, how should species concepts and nomenclature codes adapt when DNA shows that morphologically defined species are actually multiple distinct lineages? |
Performance
Question-wise Result